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Biological Science is the study of living organisms, encompassing their structure, function, growth, evolution, distribution, and taxonomy. This course explores fundamental principles of biology, including cell biology, genetics, ecology, and physiology. Students will investigate how organisms interact with their environments, how life is sustained and propagated, and the molecular mechanisms that underlie vital biological processes. By integrating laboratory experiments with theoretical learning, the course aims to build a comprehensive understanding of the diversity and complexity of life on Earth, preparing students for advanced studies and careers in biological and environmental sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow without Physiology 5th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Q1) If 10 million people enter a drawing,what is each person's probability of winning?
A)10%
B)1%
C)0.1%
D)0.001%
E)0.00001%
Answer: A
Q2) If a hypothesis stands after years of repeated testing,is consistent with all data gathered,and helps make successful predictions about other phenomena,it is considered to be a ____.
A)speculative idea
B)proven theory
C)proven hypothesis
D)law of nature
E)scientific theory
Answer: A
Q3) All regions of Earth where organisms live
Answer: C
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Q1) Which food product would likely contain the largest amount of unsaturated fat?
A)butter
B)lard
C)salami
D)olives
E)cheese
Answer: D
Q2) The human body requires about ____ of fat each day to stay healthy.
A)1 teaspoon
B)4 teaspoons
C)1 tablespoon
D)4 tablespoons
E)1 cup
Answer: C
Q3) the bond between the hydrogen atoms of molecular hydrogen
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent
Answer: C
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Q1) ____ are cellular structures that act like propellers to move a cell through fluid environments.
A)Pilli
B)Microvilli
C)Cilia
D)Flagella
E)Microfilaments
Answer: D
Q2) Cell shape is reinforced by ____.
A)phospholipids
B)DNA
C)cytoskeletal filaments
D)transport proteins
E)ribosomes
Answer: C
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Q1) The sodium-potassium pump is an example of ____.
A)facilitated diffusion
B)simple diffusion
C)osmosis
D)active transport
E)bulk flow
Q2) Which of the following occurs in feedback inhibition?
A)Coenzymes block enzyme activity.
B)Products of metabolic reactions block enzyme activity.
C)NADH is altered in electron transport chains.
D)ADP is phosphorylated.
E)Low reactant concentrations decrease enzyme activity.
Q3) Wilting of a plant occurs ____.
A)if the plant is placed in an isotonic solution
B)if there is a rise in turgor pressure
C)as a result of facilitated diffusion
D)if the plant is placed in a hypertonic solution
E)if the plant is placed in a hypotonic solution
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Q1) Which group of molecules serves as inputs for the light-independent reactions?
A)H<sub>2</sub>O, ATP, and NADPH
B)CO<sub>2</sub>, NADPH, and H<sub>2</sub>O
C)CO<sub>2</sub> and NADPH
D)ATP, NADPH, H<sub>2</sub>O, and CO<sub>2</sub>
E)NADPH, ATP, and CO<sub>2</sub>
Q2) In most plants,glucose is stored as ____.
A)glucose
B)starch
C)sucrose
D)glycogen
E)cellulose
Q3) The yield of ATP per glucose molecule in fermentation is ____.
A)2
B)6
C)12
D)36
E)40
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Q1) How does x-ray crystallography provide details about molecular structure?
A)Only DNA molecules scatter x-rays; therefore, this helped to prove that DNA was the genetic material in cells.
B)X-rays are reflected by some atoms and absorbed by others; thereby giving clues to molecule structure.
C)X-rays are scattered by atoms in a specific pattern, from which molecular size, shape, and spacing of repeating elements can be calculated.
D)This technique captures photographs of magnified molecules.
E)X-rays can be used to isolate DNA molecules from living organisms.
Q2) In order to visualize the DNA for a karyotype _____.
A)DNA is treated with enzymes to open the compacted chromatin structure
B)DNA is treated with proteases to open the compacted chromatin structure
C)DNA is stained to visualize the DNA.
D)DNA is treated with enzymes to compact the chromatin structure
E)DNA is treated with proteases to compact the chromatin structure
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Q1) What is the genetic code?
A)all of our genes collectively
B)all of our base-pairs collectively
C)the genetic "words" that code for amino acids
D)the genes in DNA that code for proteins
E)the genes that encode protein products
Q2) Many ribosome-inactivating proteins are not toxic to humans because _____.
A)we have enzymes to detoxify them
B)they are very rare in nature
C)they are sequestered by white blood cells
D)they are rapidly metabolized
E)they do not cross cell membranes very well
Q3) The first amino acid in a growing polypeptide chain is _____.
A)methionine
B)valine
C)lysine
D)phenylalanine
E)glycine
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Q1) During S phase,_____.
A)chromosomes condense
B)the cell produces proteins in preparation for mitosis
C)the cytoplasm begins to divide
D)DNA is replicated
E)sister chromatids separate from each other
Q2) Which of the following is/are essential for formation of the cleavage furrow during cytoplasmic division in animal cells?
A)a contractile ring
B)Golgi body vesicles
C)ATP molecules
D)a contractile ring and Golgi body vesicles
E)a contractile ring and ATP molecules
Q3) Tumor suppressor genes _____.
A)will turn into cancer genes
B)encode proteins that inhibit mitosis
C)encode proteins that promote mitosis
D)are cancer genes that back mutate into normal genes
E)encode proteins that promote DNA replication
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Q1) If a child has an AB blood type,____.
A)both parents must have different blood types
B)neither parent can have blood type AB
C)both parents must have blood type AB
D)both parents can be any blood type
E)one parent can have blood type O
Q2) Marfan syndrome
A)autosomal dominant disorder
B)autosomal recessive disorder
C)X-linked disorder
Q3) In codominance,____.
A)one allele is dominant to another allele
B)the genotype is determined by the phenotype
C)the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate to the homozygous phenotypes
D)the intermediate phenotype may be the result of enzyme insufficiency
E)two alleles may be equally expressed
Q4) cystic fibrosis
A)autosomal dominant disorder
B)autosomal recessive disorder
C)X-linked disorder
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Q1) technique of separating DNA fragments of different sizes
A)eugenics
B)electrophoresis
C)DNA profile
D)genetic engineering
E)DNA sequencing
F)gene therapy
G)polymerase chain reaction
Q2) When DNA fragments are inserted into plasmids,the resulting recombinant molecules must be introduced into ____ in order for the DNA to be replicated.
A)rabbits
B)humans
C)bacteria
D)mice
E)chimpanzees
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Q1) 14C is a radioisotope of carbon that decays into ____.
A)potassium
B)oxygen
C)carbon dioxide
D)nitrogen
E)sulfur
Q2) The time it takes for half of the atoms in a radioisotope sample to decay is called the ____.
A)decay time
B)half-life
C)isotopic life
D)release time
E)denature time
Q3) Biogeography is the study of the ____.
A)distribution of land masses
B)patterns in the geographical distribution of species
C)patterns of species dispersal
D)patterns of population demographics
E)the biodiversity of plant and animal species
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Q1) Homozygous dominant black mice are camouflaged by dark rocks and homozygous recessive light-colored mice are camouflaged by light colored rocks.Heterozygous grey mice have no camouflage and are easily picked off and eaten by hawks.
A)reproductive isolation
B)sexual selection
C)directional selection
D)disruptive selection
E)genetic drift
F)founder effect
G)gene flow
H)stabilizing selection
Q2) A female horse can mate with a male donkey but they will produce a mule that is sterile.This is an example of what type of isolation mechanism?
A)allopatric
B)physical
C)behavioral
D)reproductive
E)geological
Q3) distribution of traits in a population before selection occurs
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Q1) Bacteria ____.
A)are diploid organisms
B)produce gametes
C)have a life cycle that varies between unicellular stage and multi-cellular stage
D)have a single circular chromosome
E)lack both DNA and RNA
Q2) conjugation
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q3) Ciliates,such as Paramecium,are likely to be found in ____ or in the gut of mammalian grazers where they aid in the digestion of _____.
A)seawater; animal flesh
B)seawater and freshwater; plant material
C)freshwater; animal flesh
D)acidic hot springs; soil minerals
E)seawater and acidic hot springs; plant material
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Q1) In seed plants,which develops into a pollen grain?
A)megaspore
B)microsporangium
C)microspore
D)female gametophyte
E)megasporangium
Q2) Ferns,horsetails,and club mosses are _____.
A)seed-bearing vascular plants
B)gymnosperms
C)angiosperms
D)seedless vascular plants
E)nonvascular plants
Q3) cuticle
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q4) style
Q5) carpel
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Q1) dry-nosed
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) A typical amniote has ____,but fish do not.
A)a backbone
B)waterproof skin
C)gills
D)external fertilization
E)a cartilaginous skeleton
Q3) Which of the following is a defining trait found in chordate embryos?
A)a pseudocoelom
B)a larval stage
C)a coelom
D)limb buds
E)gill slits
Q4) first opening of the embryo becomes an anus,and the second becomes a mouth
Q5) first opening of the embryo becomes a mouth,and the second becomes an anus.
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Q1) If the death rate of a population exceeds the birth rate of a population,____.
A)the growth rate will remain static
B)the population will grow
C)the environment will become overexploited
D)an exponential growth curve will result
E)the population will decrease in size
Q2) The most common type of population distribution is ____.
A)clumped
B)uniform
C)random
D)near-uniform
E)semi-random
Q3) In a population of Asian elephants,the death rate equals the birth rate.This population ____.
A)has reached its biotic potential
B)is not growing
C)has not exceeded its carrying capacity
D)is experiencing exponential growth
E)is experiencing survivorship growth
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Q1) Which is a characteristic of parasites?
A)They are indiscriminate in their choice of host.
B)They inflict serious injury and kill their host.
C)Some reside inside their host, whereas others live outside their host.
D)Parasitic hosts are always animals.
E)They rarely harm their host.
Q2) spotted owls eating mice
A)producer
B)herbivore
C)carnivore
D)detritivore
E)decomposer
Q3) Nitrogen gas is first converted into _____ by certain_____ before it enters the land nitrogen cycle.
A)nitrate; bacteria
B)ammonium; bacteria
C)elemental nitrogen; bacteria
D)nitrate; bacteria and fungi
E)ammonium; bacteria and fungi
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Q1) The distribution of major biomes is controlled mainly by ____.
A)ocean currents
B)climate
C)human manipulation
D)longitude
E)latitude
Q2) main producers are dinoflagellates
A)lakes
B)streams
C)estuary
D)ocean shores
E)coral reefs
F)open ocean
G)hydrothermal vents
Q3) The prime factor that drives coral bleaching is ____.
A)fungal infection
B)water levels changing
C)salinity levels changing
D)light levels changing
E)temperature changes
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