Biological Science
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biological Science is the comprehensive study of living organisms, encompassing their structure, function, growth, evolution, distribution, and taxonomy. This course introduces students to the fundamental concepts of biology including cell theory, genetics, ecology, and evolutionary processes. Students will explore the diversity of life forms, the interaction among organisms and their environments, and the molecular mechanisms underlying life processes. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, this course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the application of biological principles to real-world issues related to health, environment, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Q1) What is the purpose of the "control" in a controlled experiment?
Answer: The control will have only one variable compared to the treatment group.The control group provides a basis for comparison.
Q2) What is the difference between a tissue and an organ system?
A)Tissues are composed of organ systems.
B)Tissues are not composed of cells, but organ systems are composed of cells.
C)A tissue cannot exist unless it is part of an organ system, but an organ system can exist independently of tissues.
D)An organ system includes tissues.
Answer: D
Q3) Discuss why it is important that the public be knowledgeable about science.
Answer: After reading the chapter,students should be familiar with the reasons why it is important for the public to understand science and how lack of science education can harm society.Being scientifically literate enables people to better understand how the world around them works.Science allows people to understand the potential influence of new discoveries and technologies on their lives.A scientifically literate public affects policy decisions by the government regarding a whole host of issues,such as environmental protection,food and drug regulation,and research funding.
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Sample Questions
Q1) A measure of the quantity of matter in an object is known as: A)atoms.
B)density.
C)mass.
D)energy.
Answer: C
Q2) The number of atoms coming out of a chemical reaction must equal the number of atoms going into a chemical reaction.This follows the principle of:
A)the law of conservation of energy.
B)chemical bonding.
C)atomic theory.
D)the law of conservation of mass.
Answer: D
Q3) Sodium chloride (NaCl)crystals (table salt)form as a result of:
A)covalent bonding.
B)hydrogen bonding.
C)being chemically stable.
D)the attraction of oppositely charged particles for each other.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contains both a carboxyl group and an amino group?
A)carbohydrates
B)nucleotides
C)amino acids
D)lipids
Answer: C
Q2) A functional group added to a hydrocarbon usually makes the hydrocarbon:
A)nonpolar.
B)hydrophobic.
C)polar.
D)acidic.
E)an isomer.
Answer: C
Q3) Unique chemical groups that confer special properties to an organic molecule are called:
A)monomers.
B)amino acids.
C)functional groups.
D)lipids.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the nucleus is to:
A)contain the DNA.
B)contain the cytoplasm.
C)produce proteins.
D)add sugars to proteins.
E)organize the cytoskeleton.
Q2) List the sequence of organelles a protein would pass through as it moves through the endomembrane system to the exterior of the cell.
Q3) Tay-Sachs disease results from the accumulation of fatty deposits within neurons,when normally they should be broken down within these cells.The organelle that would be defective in Tay-Sachs would most likely be the:
A)lysosome.
B)Golgi complex.
C)ribosome.
D)endoplasmic reticulum.
E)mitochondrion.
Q4) Animal cells contain centrioles and chloroplasts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) An accident victim lost a lot of blood and was rushed to the emergency room.In the emergency room,the first thing the doctors did was replace lost fluids by giving an IV of pure water.But this caused the patient to die.Propose a reason why the patient died.
Q2) Which statement about diffusion is correct?
A)Diffusion can occur only through a membrane.
B)Diffusion requires a protein channel.
C)Diffusion of water cannot occur.
D)Diffusion causes movement of materials toward equilibrium.
Q3) Facilitated diffusion occurs with the help of:
A)recognition proteins.
B)peripheral proteins.
C)transport proteins.
D)communication proteins.
E)ribosomes.
Q4) Diffusion is a process by which a substance:
A)goes from lesser to greater concentration.
B)goes down its concentration gradient.
C)goes up its concentration gradient.
D)is at equilibrium.
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes work to speed up a chemical reaction by:
A)supplying the energy needed for the reaction.
B)increasing the activation energy of the reaction.
C)lowering the activation energy of the reaction.
D)attaching coenzymes to the substrate.
E)heating up the substrate.
Q2) The regulation of an enzyme's activity by means of a molecule binding to a site on the enzyme other than its active site is called ________.
Q3) You work hard to pedal your bicycle up a steep hill.You rest when you get to the top,then you let your bicycle roll quickly down the other side of the hill.You converted ________ energy into ________ energy,then you converted it back into ________ energy.
A)potential; kinetic; potential
B)kinetic; potential; kinetic
C)heat; kinetic; heat
D)heat; potential; heat
Q4) Explain why enzymes are involved in exergonic reactions,such as lactose breaking down into glucose and galactose,and whether these reactions can occur spontaneously.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis produces how many molecules of NADH?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q2) How many NADH are produced in the Krebs cycle for each glucose molecule used?
A)one
B)three
C)six
D)eight
Q3) Cyanide is a deadly poison that reacts with hemoglobin in our blood and prevents it from binding oxygen.Cyanide also binds to a molecule in the electron transport chain and blocks the flow of electrons down the chain.Explain why both these mechanisms will stop ATP synthesis.
Q4) Eukaryotic cells require oxygen to:
A)enter the Krebs cycle as an intermediate.
B)perform fermentation.
C)breathe.
D)serve as an electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
E)start glycolysis.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What advantage is it for some plants to use C and CAM photosynthesis?
A)They can conserve water and reduce photorespiration under hot, dry conditions
B)They can conserve water and produce four-carbon sugars instead of glucose
C)They can absorb carbon dioxide more efficiently when atmospheric CO levels are low.
D)They can use the Calvin cycle at night when conditions are cooler and more humid.
Q2) The two colors of light that drive most photosynthesis are ________ and ________.
Q3) The oxygen produced during photosynthesis comes from:
A)water.
B)carbohydrates.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)the air plants take in.
Q4) The Calvin cycle requires all of the following except: A)O .
B)ATP.
C)NADPH.
D)RuBP.
Q5) The enzyme ________ can bind both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell
Division
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Q1) A cell plate is forming across the middle of a cell and new nuclei are forming at the poles.What kind of cell is this?
A)an animal cell going through cytokinesis
B)an animal cell during telophase
C)a bacterial cell
D)a plant cell during metaphase
E)a plant cell going through cytokinesis
Q2) The replication of a DNA molecule results in:
A)two DNA molecules, each with one old and one new strand.
B)two DNA molecules, one being made of the old strands and one being made of two new strands.
C)two DNA molecules, both of which are made of completely new strands.
D)four unwound DNA strands.
Q3) During S phase,chromosomes are converted to what form?
A)karyotypes
B)sister chromatids
C)chromatin
D)centrosomes
Q4) What is the advantage of chromatin coiling and condensing into tight structures before mitosis?
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) What is the advantage of ova production resulting in one egg and three polar bodies?
A)This allows the egg to receive most of the cytoplasm.
B)This reduces egg size by distributing most of the cytoplasm to the polar bodies.
C)This allows the egg to receive all the chromosomes.
D)This removes Golgi complex, lysosomes, and other organelles from the egg.
E)This creates more polar bodies, which are the cells that will actually be fertilized.
Q2) A plant branch that regenerates roots and develops into another plant is:
A)genetically unique.
B)the product of a special type of sexual reproduction.
C)the product of self-fertilization.
D)the product of a recombination event.
E)genetically identical to the plant from which the branch was taken.
Q3) The number of chromosomes present in a cell in metaphase I and metaphase II is the same.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ have both male and female reproductive parts.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) In his basic experiments,Mendel began with true-breeding parental (P)plants.What results did he see when he cross-fertilized P generation plants that had different traits?
A)The F plants had new traits that were a blend of P traits.
B)All F plants had the trait of one or the other P plant.
C)The F plants had an entirely new trait, not seen in either P plant.
D)The F plants showed a combination of the two P traits in a 1:1 ratio.
E)The F plants showed a combination of the two P traits, in a 3:1 ratio.
Q2) Dimpled cheeks are dominant to undimpled cheeks.If there exists a 50 percent chance that a child will have dimpled cheeks,the parental genotypes must be:
A)dd and dd.
B)Dd and dd.
C)DD and Dd.
D)Dd and Dd.
E)DD and dd.
Q3) List two characteristics of the garden pea plant,Pisum sativum,that make it an ideal organism for genetic experiments.
Q4) In the Law of ________,Mendel stated that two genetic elements are separated in gamete formation.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autosomal recessive disorder:
A)requires that only one parent be a carrier.
B)displays its symptoms only in heterozygotes.
C)is more frequent in males than females.
D)will appear only in children of parents who both carry the gene.
E)is dominant in females.
Q2) A woman who does not carry the color-blindness allele has children with a man who is color blind.What proportion of their children will be color blind?
A)all
B)1/4
C)1/2
D)3/4
E)none
Q3) Regarding the human sex chromosomes,which statement is correct?
A)The Y chromosome carries a greater number of genes than does the X chromosome.
B)X and Y are different in size but carry nearly equal numbers of genes.
C)The X chromosome carries more genes than does the Y chromosome.
D)The X chromosome carries only gender-related genes.
E)The X chromosome carries the genes for the development of male phenotype.
Q4) Explain what causes aneuploidy.
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a point mutation?
A)a mutation that affects a single cell
B)a mutation in which one chromosome is lost
C)an error in DNA that is caused by malfunctioning of DNA ligase
D)a mutation found at a single base pair in the genome
E)a mutation that affects only one metabolic pathway
Q2) What is the difference between whole-chromosome aberrations and point mutations?
A)Point mutations are not permanent changes in the DNA; aberrations are permanent.
B)Aberrations are not permanent changes in the DNA; point mutations are permanent.
C)Point mutations are the loss of parts of chromosomes; aberrations are the loss of whole chromosomes.
D)Point mutations affect a single base pair in the genome; aberrations affect a large section.
Q3) The bases of each strand of a double helix are paired with bases on the other strand,so each strand of DNA is said to be ________ to the other.
Q4) In a normal DNA molecule,adenine always pairs with ________,and cytosine always pairs with ________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation,
and Regulation
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Q1) Mutations in regulatory DNA sequences may be more important to evolution than mutations in genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A portion of a gene has the following DNA sequence: GAAGGAGTAGCA,which when translated gives the amino acid sequence leucine-proline-histidine-arginine.Assume a mutation causes a C to be inserted into the sequence in between the second A and the second G.Predict how this would affect the protein produced when it is translated.
Q3) How many codons can act as termination codons?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q4) The full complement of DNA found in a cell of your body constitutes your:
A)coding sequences.
B)non-coding sequences.
C)genome.
D)genetic code.
Q5) What signals the end of the translation of an mRNA?
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) These days many of our food crops are genetically modified.To some people this "frankenfood" poses many dangers and should not be used.Do you agree? Why or why not?
Q2) On what basis does forensic biotechnology distinguish one individual from another?
A)Different people will have different mutations in their short tandem repeats.
B)Different people will have a different number of tandem repeats at the same location in their genomes.
C)Different people will have completely different genomes.
D)A small tandem repeat in one person will be in a different location in the genome of another person.
Q3) What is a "cloning vector"?
A)an enzyme used to cut or combine DNA
B)a cell that is producing protein from a recombinant plasmid
C)a DNA vehicle that carries recombinant DNA into cells
D)a protein such as HGH that is produced by biotechnology
Q4) It is not possible for a human gene to work in any other organism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ involves the fusion of a somatic cell with an enucleated egg cell.
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The longer two populations are kept from interbreeding,the:
A)more they will differ from one another in adaptations.
B)more recessive alleles will be expressed.
C)greater the chance one will go extinct.
D)greater the mutation rate will be.
Q2) In Charles Lyell's Principles of Geology,what idea had a significant impact on Charles Darwin's thinking?
A)Organisms change form over generations.
B)A series of catastrophes wiped out life in given areas.
C)Populations produce more individuals than can survive.
D)Geological forces that are still operating act to change the Earth's surface.
Q3) Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace both realized that most species produce many more offspring than is necessary to maintain a constant population.What might be the fate of the excess individuals?
A)The more favorable forms survive and reproduce, but the others do not.
B)They mutate and then are able to adapt to new environments.
C)They evolve to take advantage of natural resources.
Q4) The use of radioactive elements to date geological specimens is called ________.
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Q5) Instead of being trained as a biologist,Charles Darwin actually received a ________ degree.
Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) Evolution by genetic drift is most obvious in:
A)invertebrate species.
B)migratory species.
C)aquatic populations.
D)small populations.
Q2) Phenotypes that show a wide range of almost continuous variation,such as height or skin color in humans,are probably:
A)due to several sets of alleles working together.
B)due to both alleles of one gene working together.
C)acquired characteristics.
D)dominant.
Q3) If a species of bird with an intermediate beak size evolves into two varieties,one with large beaks and one with small beaks,this could result from disruptive selection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There can be more than two varieties of alleles for a particular gene in a population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Eastern and western meadowlarks look almost identical and sometimes inhabit the same areas of prairies.They recognize members of their own species by distinctive songs and thus do not breed with each other.This is an example of:
A)geographic isolation.
B)ecological isolation.
C)no isolation mechanism.
D)behavioral isolation.
Q2) A natural population of organisms that can produce fertile offspring belong to the same ________.
Q3) If a hybrid is unable to produce sperm because meiosis does not proceed correctly,gene flow between the populations is restricted by:
A)ecological isolation.
B)gametic isolation.
C)temporal isolation.
D)hybrid infertility.
Q4) The wings of a bird and the wings of a butterfly are the result of ________ evolution.
Q5) Any speciation that does not involve geographic isolation is a type of ________ speciation.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of the following would support a hypothesis that insects preceded amphibians on land and were flourishing when the first amphibians evolved?
A)Amphibians and insects both have lungs in their terrestrial stage.
B)Amphibians and insects have many adaptations in common.
C)Amphibians and insects share a recent common ancestor.
D)Many amphibians are insectivores in their terrestrial stage.
Q2) What is the significance of finding evidence that zirconium/uranium rocks formed in water 4.2 million years ago?
A)Zirconium can be used for dating old rock samples.
B)The Earth coalesced from gas earlier than originally thought.
C)The Earth cooled earlier than originally thought.
D)Radiation played a role in the origin of life.
Q3) Most evolutionary "branches" on the tree of life can read like the story of stepwise challenge and evolutionary innovation.For example,a cuticle solved the problem of maintaining moisture in the first terrestrial plants.Outline and explain the steps in the evolution of terrestrial vertebrates that lead to the evolution of mammals.
Q4) Discuss why many scientists consider RNA to have been the basis for early forms of life.
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) Which Homo species from 1-2 million years ago is connected as an ancestor of Homo sapiens according to the hominin family tree?
A)Homo ergaster
B)Homo habilis
C)Homo erectus
D)Homo neanderthalensis
Q2) How long ago did Australopithecus afarensis live?
A)50,000-100,000 years ago
B)500,000 years ago
C)about 2.2 million years ago
D)about 3.2 million years ago
Q3) Which statement would support a hypothesis that most (about the first 70 percent)of human evolution took place in Africa?
A)The oldest fossils are found in Africa.
B)Homo sapiens fossils are found in Africa and Europe.
C)No Neanderthal fossils are found in Africa.
D)The earliest fossils found outside of Africa are 1,800,000 years old.
Q4) To which species does the fossil hominin in the first crate belong? Briefly explain your answer.
Page 22
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Chapter
Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Which of the following areas/conditions would be favored by thermophiles?
A)anaerobic conditions
B)deep-sea volcanic vents
C)the arctic tundra
D)the stomachs of herbivores
Q2) Scientists do not consider viruses to be alive because viruses cannot metabolize outside a host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nearly half the antibiotics used in the United States go into animal feed as growth stimulants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a virus takes over the machinery of a cell,it forces the cell to manufacture more viral particles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Some bacteria can obtain their nutrition by photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) A fungus is examined microscopically and found to have a "lollypop-shaped" sporangium.This fungus must belong to: A)chytrids.
B)basidiomycetes.
C)zygomycetes.
D)ascomycetes.
Q2) The missing label indicated by a "1" corresponds to:
A)a spore.
B)the fruiting body.
C)hyphae.
D)mycelium.
Q3) For fungi that produce mushrooms,the majority of the organism is located: A)above ground.
B)in fruiting bodies.
C)in spores.
D)underground.
Q4) Appraise and evaluate the following statement,and cite evidence from the chapter as appropriate: Despite having a closer "outward" appearance to plants in some ways,evidence support fungi as being far more closely related to animals than plants.
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) Flatworms are the most primitive animal phylum to have:
A)asymmetry.
B)radial symmetry.
C)organs.
D)a circulatory system.
E)muscle tissue.
Q2) The term "arthropod" best translates as:
A)human-like.
B)outside skeleton.
C)sharp jaws.
D)jointed leg.
E)hairy legs.
Q3) We see a great deal of variation in reproductive strategies in the animal kingdom.Evaluate the basic strategies and trends in egg fertilization and protection in sexually reproducing animals.
Q4) Sponges were the earliest animals to evolve true tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The structure in cnidarians with both digestive and circulation functions is the
25
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) Both mosses and ferns "show their aquatic ancestry" because they:
A)lack a water-repellent cuticle.
B)typically require water for sperm delivery to the egg.
C)have roots that must remain wet at all times.
D)require water for egg laying.
Q2) The missing label indicated by a "3" corresponds to the:
A)multicellular sporophyte.
B)multicellular gametophyte.
C)gametes.
D)spores.
Q3) Elaborate leaves called "fronds" are found in which group of seedless vascular plants?
A)green algae
B)gymnosperms
C)mosses
D)ferns
Q4) The three main kinds of seedless vascular plants are: ________,________,and
Q5) Movement of the hormone ________ to different areas of a plant to promote growth is one of the ways a plant is able to respond to external signals.
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) Describe how the broad leaf of a typical dicot is so well adapted for its job as the photosynthetic organ of a plant.In your answer make sure to assess the ways plants evolved to deal with potential problems the broad leaf might cause.
Q2) Because a plant can grow indefinitely at the tips of the roots and shoots,we say that a plant's growth is:
A)annualized.
B)indeterminate.
C)determinate.
D)limitless.
Q3) Vascular tissue that conducts water and minerals is the:
A)meristematic tissue.
B)phloem.
C)xylem.
D)ground substance.
Q4) Mesophyll cells are primarily responsible for:
A)transport of water.
B)protection of a leaf.
C)regulating passage of carbon dioxide into the leaf.
D)photosynthesis.
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Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) In oxygen homeostasis,the kidney that releases EPO,prompting increased red blood cell production is the:
A)stimulus.
B)response.
C)product.
D)reactant.
Q2) Which of the following typically connects a bone to another bone?
A)cartilage
B)ligaments
C)tendons
D)marrow
Q3) What unusual feature do you find in connective tissues?
A)glandular secretions
B)conductive cells
C)cells with the ability to contract
D)extracellular material called the ground substance
Q4) What is the evolutionary significance of tissues,organs,and organ systems in animals?
Q6) Glands are part of the ________ tissue category. Page 28
Q5) The brain is in the ________ cavity,which is part of the larger ________ cavity.
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) The autonomic nervous system is a part of the:
A)central nervous system.
B)somatic nervous system.
C)peripheral nervous system.
D)appendicular nervous system.
Q2) Different parts of the tongue are responsive to different tastes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Humans have sophisticated,highly evolved brains that would be useful in directing all body activities.Yet we have the autonomic division and reflexes that intentionally bypass the conscious centers of the brain and directly handle some responses.Evaluate why this is useful.Also,propose situations to the contrary in which it might be useful to use the brain rather than an autonomic response,and explain why we respond as such anyway.
Q4) The value of the three small bones of the middle ear is that they:
A)translate vibration into nerve impulses.
B)translate solid vibration into internal liquid vibration.
C)amplify vibrations by concentrating them into a smaller area.
D)connect the eardrum to the nerves of hearing.
Page 30
Q5) Which division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates digestion?
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) Where are the parathyroid glands located?
Q2) The hormone that stimulates mammary gland development and milk production is
Q3) The endocrine system helps maintain homeostasis through positive feedback.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Peptide hormones generally work by:
A)attaching to membrane receptors and triggering chemical reactions.
B)passing into the cell and attaching to receptors inside.
C)triggering an action potential in the cell.
D)triggering an influx of potassium ions.
E)stimulating endocytosis of hormones and receptors.
Q5) Steroid hormones generally work by:
A)attaching to membrane receptors and triggering chemical reactions.
B)passing into the cell and attaching to receptors inside.
C)triggering an action potential in the cell.
D)triggering an influx of potassium ions.
E)stimulating endocytosis of hormones and receptors.
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Q6) Which endocrine gland is associated with proper development of certain white blood cells?
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) The inflammatory response is caused by the chemical ________.
Q2) Lymphocytes that become part of antibody-mediated immunity arm of the adaptive immune response develop in the:
A)bone marrow.
B)thymus.
C)intestine.
D)lymph nodes.
E)spleen.
Q3) Which of the following would best be defined in part as an immune system overreaction?
A)autoimmune disease
B)chronic disease
C)allergies
D)cell-mediated response
E)cytotoxic T cell action
Q4) B cells are the main cells of the cell-mediated pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What happened to the young lady?
Q6) Inflammation is a type of ________ immune response.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) The tiny air sacs of the lungs are called:
A)bronchi.
B)trachea.
C)alveoli.
D)bronchioles.
Q2) Which chamber of the heart is connected to the aorta?
A)right ventricle
B)left ventricle
C)right atrium
D)left atrium
Q3) Capillaries are essentially water-tight vessels,so nutrients and gases diffuse in and out,but water stays put.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A friend has been asked to be a bone marrow donor for her sister.She tells you that her sister has low red blood cell counts that drop more every day.Your friend doesn't understand why blood transfusion wouldn't work without having to do a bone marrow treatment.How would you explain the need for the bone marrow donation to your friend?
Q5) What technique is used to separate blood into plasma and formed elements?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) Formulate reasons in support of why the duodenum could be described both structurally and functionally as the "crossroads" of the digestive tract.
Q2) In what way are the essential amino acids different from nonessential amino acids?
A)Nonessential amino acids are not necessary for any proteins we make.
B)Nonessential amino acids are not absorbed by the digestive tract.
C)Essential amino acids cannot be made and must be obtained from food.
D)Essential amino acids are the ones exclusively used to make enzymes.
Q3) Which nutrient has the highest caloric content?
Q4) Why are saturated fats considered a less healthy nutrient?
A)Because saturated fats are from animal sources, they can produce allergic reactions.
B)Saturated fats cannot be used for energy as the other fats can.
C)Saturated fats raise HDL levels, which contributes to heart disease.
D)Saturated fats raise LDL levels, which contributes to heart disease.
Q5) What is unusual about soy protein as opposed to other plant protein sources?
A)Soy protein has all essential amino acids in the proper proportions.
B)Soy protein has the same saturated fat levels as animal fat.
C)Soy protein has more energy per gram than lipids.
D)Soy protein has only one-tenth the energy per gram of other proteins.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) Homeobox sequences vary widely from one species to another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In sea urchin development,the archenteron becomes the:
A)ectoderm.
B)endoderm.
C)digestive tube.
D)lungs.
Q3) Cell death during development will always have negative,possibly fatal,effects on normal development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you could stop diffusion of substances in fruit fly zygotes,could you stop normal development? Why or why not?
Q5) What is the effect of higher concentration of bicoid protein in part of a fruit fly embryo?
A)It will develop into the posterior end of the organism.
B)It will develop into the heart of the organism.
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C)It will develop into the head end of the organism.
D)It lowers the chances of embryo survival.
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Women produce oocytes from stem cells from puberty all throughout life.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The developing organism is referred to as a fetus during its first eight weeks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The portion of a sperm that carries enzymes needed for fertilization is the: A)tail.
B)nucleus.
C)acrosome.
D)mitochondrion.
Q4) Three weeks after conception,which of the following has happened in an embryo?
A)organ formation
B)neural tube formation
C)limb bud formation
D)primitive eye formation
Q5) Menstruation refers to the later life cessation of the monthly ovarian cycle.
A)True B)False
Q6) Enzymes are carried in the ________ of a sperm. Page 37
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) Most insects would be typical of which survivorship curve category?
A)early-loss species
B)constant-loss species
C)late-loss species
D)late-gain species
E)early-gain species
Q2) A negative rate of increase,or a negative r,means that:
A)the population is shrinking.
B)the population has a short generation time.
C)death rates have decreased.
D)there is zero population growth.
Q3) Species with populations that are likely to rise and fall rapidly in reaction to variations in the environment are referred to as ________ species.
Q4) Which of the following would be generally true of r-selected species?
A)Most live until older age.
B)All live very short life spans.
C)R-selected species are larger organisms that produce few offspring.
D)R-selected species are smaller organisms that produce many offspring.
Q5) Define the term biosphere.
Page 39
Q6) What is the relationship between a community and an ecosystem?
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following happens when a new island arises from the ocean and life begins to colonize the island?
A)competitive exclusion
B)coevolution
C)primary succession
D)secondary succession
Q2) A species whose absence would bring about major changes in a community is called a ________.
Q3) The term "niche" is usually limited to a description of the physical surroundings in which a species is normally found.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Commensalism often results in competitive exclusion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the differences between a primary succession and a secondary succession.Give an example of each type of succession.
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Q6) Which form of biological succession occurs in an area where most life has been destroyed,but fertile soil remains?
Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) Atmospheric N is useless to plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Photosynthesizers take in carbon dioxide,whereas decomposers ________ carbon dioxide.
A)yield up
B)take in
C)destroy
D)fix
Q3) The lowest layer of the atmosphere,from sea level to about 7.4 miles,is the: A)troposphere.
B)stratosphere.
C)ozone layer.
D)ionosphere.
Q4) Which of the following was historically considered to be the biggest limiting factor in worldwide food production up until the last century?
A)nitrogen
B)carbon
C)seed availability
D)land
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