Biological Science
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Biological Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles of life and living organisms. Students will study the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living systems, ranging from the molecular and cellular level to organisms and ecosystems. The course integrates areas such as genetics, physiology, ecology, and molecular biology, and emphasizes scientific methods, critical analysis, and hands-on experimentation. Through lectures, laboratory sessions, and research projects, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how biological processes shape the natural world and impact human society.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between a theory and a hypothesis is that a:
A)theory must be proven beyond a shadow of a doubt.
B)hypothesis must be proven beyond a shadow of a doubt.
C)hypothesis must be supported by evidence.
D)theory must be supported by evidence.
Answer: D
Q2) A good hypothesis must:
A)be falsifiable.
B)be false.
C)be theoretical.
D)lead to a question.
E)be true.
Answer: A
Q3) Living things inherit information from their parents encoded in: A)fats.
B)atoms.
C)proteins.
D)DNA.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acids release hydrogen ions into aqueous solutions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following molecules is most likely to bind to an ion,and why?
A)Molecule A, because it has electrical charges that will attract an ion
B)Molecule B, because it has four hydrogen atoms on the exterior of the molecule
C)Molecule A, because any molecule with oxygen is able to bind to an ion
D)Molecule B, because it has a carbon at in the center of the molecule
Answer: A
Q3) An atom becomes an ion when:
A)it gains or loses neutrons.
B)it forms a covalent bond.
C)it gains or loses electrons.
D)hydrogen ions are shared.
E)it gains or loses protons.
Answer: C
Q4) Hydrogen bonds may form between oxygen of one water molecule and ________ of another water molecule.
Answer: hydrogen
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipids with carbon-carbon double bonds tend to be more solid at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) All hormones are steroids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) You have a genetic defect that prevents your cells from making the amino acid tryptophan from indole and serine.Your cells might be lacking the proper information in their ________,which would direct the synthesis of the ________ that catalyzes tryptophan synthesis.
Answer: DNA; enzyme
Q4) Hydroxyl groups are commonly found in:
A)amino acids.
B)DNA.
C)carbohydrates.
D)fatty acids.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every form of life is either a single cell or is composed of cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prokaryotic cells include:
A)bacteria and animal cells.
B)bacteria and plant cells.
C)bacteria and archaea.
D)archaea and fungi.
Q3) Which structures are in a plant cell and not in an animal cell? Which organelle would you find in an animal cell but not a plant cell?
Q4) A secretory protein that exits from the ER within a vesicle will head directly to the:
A)nucleus.
B)cytosol.
C)mitochondria.
D)Golgi complex.
E)plasma membrane.
Q5) Animal cells contain centrioles and chloroplasts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hydrophilic region of the phospholipid bilayer faces to the interior of the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Peripheral proteins:
A)usually span the entire membrane.
B)have no known functions in membranes.
C)act as channels through which materials can pass.
D)are defective in cystic fibrosis.
E)usually attach to integral proteins.
Q3) The type of transport shown is an example of:
A)simple diffusion.
B)active transport.
C)endocytosis.
D)exocytosis.
E)facilitated diffusion.
Q4) Osmosis is an example of passive transport.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Osmosis refers to the diffusion of ________ across a membrane.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is exergonic?
A)bringing glucose molecules together to form glycogen
B)plants producing glucose from CO
C)bringing amino acids together to form proteins
D)cells breaking down glucose into CO
Q2) When you digest the starch in plants into glucose,some energy is lost as heat.This increases the ________ of the universe.
A)energy
B)order
C)entropy
D)potential
E)equilibrium
Q3) The regulation of an enzyme's activity by means of a molecule binding to a site on the enzyme other than its active site is called ________.
Q4) A reaction that requires the input of energy to move forward is ________.
Q5) Endergonic reactions release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how vitamins play a role in cellular metabolism.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the final net number of ATP molecules that can be produced per glucose molecule by cellular respiration?
A)36
B)4
C)8
D)2
E)38
Q2) Eukaryotic cells require oxygen to:
A)enter the Krebs cycle as an intermediate.
B)perform fermentation.
C)breathe.
D)serve as an electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
E)start glycolysis.
Q3) During the Krebs cycle,acetyl CoA covalently binds to oxaloacetate to form citrate,a ________ -carbon molecule.
A)six
B)three
C)five
D)two
E)four
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) If something is oxidized,it loses electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which wavelength of light is most likely to be used by plants for photosynthesis?
A)1 nm
B)200 nm
C)450 nm
D)550 nm
E)900 nm
Q3) During the process of ________,carbon dioxide is incorporated into an organic molecule.
Q4) The stomata are located in the leaf's ________,and the chloroplasts are located in the leaf's ________.
A)epidermis; epidermis
B)mesophyll; epidermis
C)epidermis; mesophyll
D)epidermis; stomata
E)mesophyll; mesophyll
Q5) The enzyme ________ can bind both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Q1) What is one of the differences between cell division in plant cells and cell division in animal cells?
A)Plant cells separate chromosomes by attachment to the plasma membrane.
B)There is no DNA replication before cell division in plant cells.
C)Plant cells do not use a mitotic spindle to separate chromosomes.
D)Plant cells separate by the formation of a new plasma membrane and cell wall in the middle of the cell.
Q2) What would be the consequence if one base were changed in the base sequence of a DNA molecule?
A)Messenger RNA would correct the mistake.
B)Genome copying would be impossible.
C)Protein synthesis would stop.
D)A defective protein could be produced.
Q3) You are a physician treating a patient with cancer.Traditional chemotherapy has not been working on this patient,so you prescribe a new class of drugs called taxanes,which inhibit microtubule function.Your patient asks you how they work.How would you explain to your patient how these drugs work?
Q4) The ________ of an organism is its complete collection of genetic information.
Q5) In cell division,the separation of duplicated chromosomes is ________.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) What process produces genetic diversity through random distribution of chromosomes?
A)alignment of the metaphase plate to one side instead of in the middle B)cytokinesis
C)independent assortment
D)recombination
E)crossing over
Q2) In mitosis,cells duplicate their chromosomes once and divide once.In meiosis,cells duplicate their chromosomes ________ and divide ________.
A)once; once B)twice; once C)twice; twice
D)once; twice
Q3) In humans,which cells undergo meiosis?
A)polar bodies
B)oogonia and spermatogonia
C)zygotes
D)primary oocytes and spermatocytes
E)sperm and eggs
Q4) Once produced,a zygote will divide by ________ to develop into a whole organism.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) A true-breeding strain of red tulips is crossed to a true-breeding strain of white tulips.All the offspring have pink flowers.When a pink-flowered plant is self-fertilized,the offspring have red,pink,and white flowers,in the ratio 1:2:1.This type of inheritance is an example of ________.
Q2) In Mendel's pea plants,yellow seeds are dominant to green seeds.Purple flowers are dominant to white flowers.Use Y and y for the seed color alleles and P and p for the flower color alleles.Flower color and seed color assort independently.A true-breeding plant with green seeds and white flowers is crossed to a plant that is heterozygous for the genes for both phenotypes.What is the probability that the cross will yield a plant with green seeds and white flowers?
A)3/16
B)3/32
C)1/32
D)1/16
E)1/4
Q3) What is the difference between a monohybrid and a dihybrid cross?
Q4) A particular quality of an organism is referred to as a ________,each variation of which is a particular ________.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a transfer of genes between non-homologous chromosomes?
A)duplication
B)crossing over C)inversion
D)deletion
E)translocation
Q2) What is one difference between polyploidy and aneuploidy?
A)Polyploidy is extra sets of chromosomes; aneuploidy occurs when there are either more or fewer chromosomes than normally exist in its species full set.
B)Humans can be viable as polyploids but not as aneuploids.
C)Polyploidy is extra sex chromosomes; aneuploidy is extra autosomes.
D)Polyploidy is one extra chromosome; aneuploidy is one missing chromosome.
E)Polyploidy causes diseases and disorders in humans; aneuploidy does not.
Q3) Polyploidy is better tolerated in plants than in animals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person with only one allele for a recessive condition who does not have the condition is called a ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the relationship between mutations and cancer?
A)Cells do not require mutations to become cancerous but acquire them as they divide.
B)Cells lose the ability to mutate their DNA and evolve once they become cancerous.
C)Some mutations cause cells to lose control over cell division, resulting in cancer.
D)Any point mutation will cause a cell to start proliferating without control, resulting in cancer.
E)Only a mutation can stop a cell once it becomes cancerous.
Q2) What happens if an incorrect nucleotide is not removed and replaced by the cell's DNA-correcting machinery?
A)A point mutation has occurred.
B)The result is a chromosomal aberration.
C)The effect will be lethal, and the cell will die.
D)The cell will become cancerous.
E)The entire chromosome must be destroyed.
Q3) Mutations will not be passed on to the next generation if they occur in ________ cells.
Q4) ________ is the enzyme involved in joining nucleotides as they are paired up.
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation, and Regulation
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Q1) The genomes of human beings and chimpanzees are nearly identical,so why are humans and chimps so different?
A)The genes of chimps make different proteins.
B)Out of 907 genes in the liver of both humans and chimps, only half are active in chimps.
C)The micro RNAs destroy mRNAs in chimps.
D)The micro RNAs destroy DNAs in chimps.
E)The regulatory sequences are different in the two species.
Q2) What does the RNA polymerase enzyme complex do?
A)It unwinds the DNA.
B)It brings complimentary RNA nucleotides to DNA.
C)It synthesizes RNA molecule.
D)It splices introns out of mRNA.
E)It unwinds the DNA, brings complementary RNA nucleotides to DNA, and synthesizes an RNA molecule.
Q3) What is the relationship between DNA,chromosomes,genes,RNA,proteins,transcription,and translation?
Q4) What are the basic differences between DNA and RNA molecules?
Q5) How does the protein synthesis occur?
Q6) During translation,the tRNA binds to the mRNA using its ________. Page 16
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Page 17
Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) You are a crime scene investigator,and the only evidence you are able to gather at the crime scene are some strands of hair.You want to see whether a suspect in custody was at the crime scene.What technique would you use to try and connect the suspect to the crime scene?
A)PCR followed by cloning
B)cloning and transgenics
C)PCR followed by analyzing small tandem repeats
D)recombinant DNA techniques
Q2) These days many of our food crops are genetically modified.To some people this "frankenfood" poses many dangers and should not be used.Do you agree? Why or why not?
Q3) Which of the following need to be included in a PCR reaction?
A)chromosomes, DNA polymerase, amino acids
B)DNA, nucleotides, DNA polymerase, primers
C)primers, DNA, restriction enzymes, plasmids
D)eggs, sperm, DNA donor cells
Q4) Restriction enzymes occur naturally in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define recombinant DNA.
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The longer two populations are kept from interbreeding,the:
A)more they will differ from one another in adaptations.
B)more recessive alleles will be expressed.
C)greater the chance one will go extinct.
D)greater the mutation rate will be.
Q2) Instead of being trained as a biologist,Charles Darwin actually received a ________ degree.
Q3) A small group of finches on the Galapagos Islands was very important to Darwin in helping him to develop the theory of evolution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) John Endler's experiment with guppies demonstrates which of the following in regard to evolution through natural selection?
A)Male guppies can change color depending on their environment.
B)There is one optimal set of traits for each species.
C)The reproductive success a trait imparts depends on the environmental context.
D)Bigger and brighter is always better.
Q5) The length of time that Darwin's round-the-world voyage took was about ________.
Q6) The use of radioactive elements to date geological specimens is called ________. Page 19
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) If within a large population no mutations occur,no migration occurs,all mating is random,and each individual has an equal chance of reproducing,which of the following will probably happen?
A)No evolution will occur.
B)A bottleneck will occur.
C)A change in allele frequency will lead to rapid evolution.
D)Extinction will occur.
Q2) Male long-tailed widowbirds have unusually long tails,about 20 inches in length,whereas the females have short tails.In an experiment with long-tailed widowbirds,one group of males had their tails clipped to 5 inches,a second group were left with normal 20-inch tails,and a third group had their tails lengthened to 30 inches by gluing on feathers clipped from the tails of other birds.If sexual selection is responsible for the males having such long tails,predict what will happen when similar numbers of females are placed in the territories of each group of males.
Q3) Mutations:
A)are always detrimental.
B)account for most of the change in allele frequency in a population.
C)may do nothing, may be harmful, or may be beneficial.
D)are always beneficial.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Two species of birds that are kept from interbreeding by the differences in their mating songs are experiencing ________ isolation.
Q2) Where would a researcher most likely find examples of allopatric speciation?
A)in the surface waters of Lake Michigan
B)in a forest on the west side of Lake Michigan
C)in a forest on the east side of Lake Michigan
D)in forests on the east and west sides of Lake Michigan
Q3) Speciation can never occur unless populations become separated by a geographic barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q4) About 50,000 animal species are vertebrates,yet only some vertebrates then went on to evolve four limbs.This tetrapod feature is considered to be a/an ________ of vertebrates.
A)ancestral character
B)homologous character
C)analogous character
D)derived character
Q5) The wings of a bird and the wings of a butterfly are the result of ________ evolution.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Photosynthesis was first performed by bacteria about 3.4 billion years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Primates first appear in the fossil record in the:
A)Mesozoic era.
B)Cambrian period.
C)Paleozoic era.
D)Cenozoic era.
Q3) The metabolism-first model suggests that a self-replicating RNA molecule was responsible for driving the evolution of the first forms of life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the most likely candidate for the first eukaryotic life-forms to move onto land?
A)amphibians in shallow water
B)algae in shallow water
C)fungi
D)trilobites
Q5) Angiosperms are unique among plants because they produce ________.
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) The missing label indicated by a "4" in the figure should be:
A)Australopithecus afarensis.
B)Australopithecus africanus.
C)Homo ergaster.
D)Homo neanderthalensis.
Q2) "Grasping feet" suggest an adaptation for some degree of:
A)tree-dwelling life-style.
B)limited tool use.
C)knuckle walking.
D)migratory behavior.
Q3) The genus Kenyanthropus appears to be the immediate ancestor of the genus Homo.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A paleoanthropologist is a scientist who studies:
A)rocks and their ages.
B)all fossils.
C)fossils in the human lineage.
D)ancient human culture.
Page 24
Q5) The two hominin species that are believed to have been alive 50,000 years ago concurrently with modern humans are ________ and ________.
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Chapter
Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Scientists do not consider viruses to be alive because viruses cannot metabolize outside a host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Spherical bacteria are called cocci.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The missing label indicated by a "2" corresponds to the: A)receptor.
B)capsid.
C)RNA.
D)envelope.
Q4) When bacteria undergo binary fission,they produce identical daughter cells. A)True B)False
Q5) The core of some viruses is carbohydrate in nature. A)True
B)False
26
Q6) Photosynthetic aquatic microorganisms,such as some bacteria and protists,are known as ________.
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) Fungi obtain food by:
A)engulfing food through phagocytosis and then digesting it within fungal cells.
B)producing antibiotics that internally destroy bacteria.
C)photosynthesis.
D)absorbing predigested material.
Q2) Ecologically speaking,most soil fungi are to plant roots as:
A)viruses are to animals.
B)smut fungi are to corn.
C)mosquitoes are to mammals.
D)intestinal bacteria are to humans.
Q3) Most fungi are ________,or fixed in one spot.
Q4) All fungi are:
A)unicellular.
B)multicellular.
C)autotrophic.
D)heterotrophic.
Q5) Yeasts are all members of the chytrids.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The spore-releasing structure found in the zygomycetes is called a ________.
Page 28
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) When we say an animal has an "open circulatory system," this means that:
A)a small amount of blood may leak out of vessels.
B)blood flows out of vessels and into spaces or sinuses.
C)the animal has a single-chambered heart, so blood mixes from all areas.
D)there are no vessels-blood simply fills all spaces inside the coelom.
E)movement of the animal is solely responsible for moving circulatory fluid.
Q2) The term "arthropod" best translates as:
A)human-like.
B)outside skeleton.
C)sharp jaws.
D)jointed leg.
E)hairy legs.
Q3) Which statement about the vertebrates is most accurate?
A)They are the dominant phylum in the animal kingdom.
B)There are more vertebrate species than flatworms or cnidarians but fewer than there are insects.
C)They are the only group to have evolved aquatic, terrestrial, and flying lifestyles.
D)They evolved from echinoderms.
E)They evolved from molluscs.
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) The life cycle of mosses contains only a haploid generation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a more recently evolved plant group,angiosperms completely lack a gametophyte generation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endosperm is the nutritional tissue found within a seed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Trees that intentionally lose their leaves according to coordinated,seasonal schedules are:
A)deciduous.
B)gametophytes.
C)sporophytes.
D)thigmotropic.
Q5) In some areas of the world where there are large numbers of pines,everything is covered in the spring with a yellow dust that turns out,upon examination,to be pine pollen.Why must conifers produce so much pollen,and why do we not see as much pollen produced by a field of flowers?
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) Sepals are:
A)pollen-producing structures.
B)leaf-like structures that protect a flower before it opens.
C)pollen receptacles on a carpel.
D)insect-attracting structures of the flower.
Q2) Describe how the broad leaf of a typical dicot is so well adapted for its job as the photosynthetic organ of a plant.In your answer make sure to assess the ways plants evolved to deal with potential problems the broad leaf might cause.
Q3) Guard cells open stomata when they engorge with water and bow outward.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Vascular tissue that conducts food produced during photosynthesis is the:
A)meristematic tissue.
B)phloem.
C)xylem.
D)ground substance.
Q5) The two basic divisions of the "body" of an angiosperm plant are ________ and ________.
Q6) ________ provides the force that moves water up xylem.
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Chapter 26: Body Support and Movement: the
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) Groups of cells that secrete substances are called: A)glands.
B)organ systems.
C)tissues. D)hormones.
Q2) A 25-year-old friend tells you her mom was diagnosed with advanced osteoporosis.Your friend seems dispirited,feeling resigned to the same fate.Using the material you learned about the skeletal system,what supportive advice can you give your friend for ways she can guard against her risk of osteoporosis?
Q3) In the textbook,the stomach was given as an example of an organ.Which of the following is a valid description of the work of one of its tissues?
A)Its connective tissue helps drain the stomach contents.
B)Its muscle tissue forces secretions out of glands and into the stomach.
C)Its epithelial tissue secretes substances that help with digestion.
D)Its nervous tissue communicates directly with the intestines to coordinate digestion.
Q4) The abdominopelvic cavity is part of the larger ventral body cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) The Pacinian corpuscle is important to:
A)sight.
B)hearing.
C)the sense of touch.
D)information about the position of the joints.
Q2) In which layer of cells in the eye is light converted into an electrical signal?
Q3) Which statement best describes how one neuron stimulates another?
A)Sodium ions jump across to the next neuron's membrane.
B)The neurons are physically connected, so the action potential continues movement.
C)Calcium ions diffuse across the synapse.
D)Neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synapse.
Q4) How do hair cells of the cochlea translate vibration into nervous impulses?
A)Bending cilia lead to ion flow and neurotransmitter release.
B)Pulling hairs trigger an action potential.
C)Vibrating hairs open voltage sensitive channels.
D)Moving cilia break molecules at their bases.
Q5) Which part of the brain is probably most involved with dreaming?
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Q6) In which part of the inner ear are vibrations converted into action potentials?
Q7) Why are sensory receptors often called transducers?
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) A friend tells you that his Aunt Jane is being treated for a brain disorder that is causing her to produce too much of the glucocorticoid hormones.Your friend looked up the hormone and (correctly)found it to be produced by the adrenal glands.He says he doesn't understand why a brain disorder should have anything to do with the adrenal glands.What do you tell your friend to help him understand the connection between the two?
Q2) Peptide hormones generally work by:
A)attaching to membrane receptors and triggering chemical reactions.
B)passing into the cell and attaching to receptors inside.
C)triggering an action potential in the cell.
D)triggering an influx of potassium ions.
E)stimulating endocytosis of hormones and receptors.
Q3) The hormone that stimulates mammary gland development and milk production is
Q4) Which hormones stimulate the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium?
Q5) The adrenal glands are located close to the heart.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) Human growth hormone is composed of 191 amino acids.This would place it in which class of hormone?
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) Cowpox inoculation worked as a somewhat effective vaccine against smallpox because its viral particles were similar enough in ________ to smallpox viral particles.
Q2) What does it mean when we say a vaccine is based on an "attenuated" virus?
A)The vaccine is a live virus that has been heat-killed.
B)The vaccine is a live virus that has been chemically damaged.
C)The vaccine is a similar species to the virus that isn't harmful (e.g., cowpox for smallpox).
D)The vaccine isn't the virus at all, just similar-shaped chemicals.
E)The vaccine is based on a virus that has been rendered harmless by lab-induced mutation.
Q3) B cell receptors are specific to only one antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lymph "glands" (nodes)swelling is a sign that an infection is present.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a phagocyte?
Q6) Inflammation is a type of ________ immune response.
Q7) What happened to the young lady?
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) Which of the following will raise HDL and lower LDL levels?
A)exercise
B)replacing unsaturated fat in the diet with saturated fat
C)drinking more milk
D)stopping the use of anti-inflammatory medications
Q2) Arteries branch into smaller and smaller arteries until they become small-diameter ________ that enter the capillary bed.
Q3) Nerve-like muscle cells that function as the heart's pacemaker are found in the:
A)left ventricle.
B)right ventricle.
C)coronary arteries.
D)atrioventricular valves.
E)sinoatrial node.
Q4) Many people regularly donate plasma.Which of the following substances is not given when the plasma is donated?
A)electrolytes
B)antibodies
C)water
D)red blood cells
Q5) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element involved in gas exchange?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) Which type of muscle is involved in peristalsis in the intestine?
A)cardiac
B)skeletal
C)smooth
D)voluntary
Q2) Gallstones are a problem when they:
A)get stuck in the folds of the small intestine.
B)block the cystic duct or common bile duct.
C)break and release enzymes.
D)break and release cholesterol.
Q3) Which structure,A,B,C,or D,transports urine using peristalsis?
Q4) Minerals are always chemical elements,not compounds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Complex carbohydrates that are digestible are known as ________.
Q6) How would blockage of the pancreatic duct affect the digestive system?
A)The food in the small intestine would be more basic (alkaline).
B)It would have little effect because liver enzymes would take over.
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C)The small intestine would contain acidic, mostly undigested chyme.
D)The stomach would be unable to function.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) Homeobox sequences vary widely from one species to another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A basic description of the function of morphogens is that they:
A)stimulate the formation of the ectoderm.
B)affect the course of local development.
C)kill cells during development.
D)stop all embryonic growth.
Q3) Which cells are most important in initiating the production of bicoid protein?
A)limb bud cells
B)posterior portion cells
C)nurse cells
D)neural tube cells
Q4) The lenses of the eye are produced from the endoderm.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The morula stage is part of which phase of embryonic development?
Q6) Cells first arrange themselves into layers during organogenesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Sperm development takes about:
A)1 month.
B)28 days.
C)6 months.
D)2)5 months.
Q2) How many sperm participate in the formation of fraternal twins?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q3) What prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing one egg?
A)release of granules that harden the membrane outside of the oocyte
B)atresia
C)phagocytosis by accessory cells once one sperm contacts the membrane
D)egg immediately divides and becomes impervious to sperm
Q4) Which of these is not a supporting gland in males?
A)prostate gland
B)seminal vesicle
C)epididymis
D)bulbourethral gland
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) Which graph,A,B,or C,represents a population likely to exhibit the greatest population rate increase over the next few decades?
Q2) A community of organisms and the physical environment with which they interact is an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oak trees grow slowly and put a lot of resources into the trunk,bark,and roots.Seeds are relatively heavy.In the plant kingdom,oaks might be considered:
A)density independent.
B)r-selected.
C)opportunistic.
D)K-selected.
Q4) Species with populations that are likely to rise and fall rapidly in reaction to variations in the environment are referred to as ________ species.
Q5) What is the total fertility rate number associated with zero population growth,and why?
Q6) What is the relationship between a community and an ecosystem?
Q7) An "S" shaped curve would be indicative of ________ growth.
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Organisms in communities may be important factors in the evolution/adaptation of other organisms in the community.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biodiversity is essential for all communities to survive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If two species of woodpeckers eat two different kinds of beetle larvae on pine trees in a forest,we would identify that as:
A)mutualism.
B)resource partitioning.
C)competitive exclusion.
D)commensalism.
Q4) A chameleon avoiding predation by being colored similarly to its surroundings demonstrates which strategy?
Q5) A horseshoe crab walking on the bottom of shallow coastal waters,feeding on algae,invertebrates,and other small life forms,describes the horseshoe crab's
Q6) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) Respiration is the only major process through which carbon moves from organic molecules back to the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What major agricultural innovation in the early twentieth century allowed for production of far more food on arable land?
A)the discovery of crop rotation
B)use of fish as fertilizer
C)concentration of carbon fertilizer
D)industrial nitrogen fixation
E)genetically modified crops
Q3) One of the proposed solutions to global warming is to grow a large number of trees.This could be effective because:
A)trees would move carbon from CO in the atmosphere to organic molecules.
B)the gross primary production of trees moves CO into soil.
C)plant carbon is different from atmospheric carbon.
D)when decomposed, plant carbon is impossible to convert back to CO .
E)plants are the base of all ecological food chains.
Q4) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
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