Course Introduction
Biological Science II
Chapter Exam Questions
Biological Science II is a continuation of introductory biology, focusing on the structure, function, and diversity of living organisms. The course covers major concepts in evolution, ecology, plant and animal physiology, and the biological mechanisms underlying reproduction and development. Students explore the classification of life forms, their interactions within ecosystems, and the adaptive strategies that enable survival in a variety of environments. Building on foundational principles from the first semester, this course integrates laboratory investigations and critical analysis of current biological challenges, fostering a deeper understanding of the interconnectedness of life.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Recall the chili pepper experiment that tested whether capsaicin acts as a deterrent to predators.What eating habits were predicted for the curve-billed thrasher-a known seed disperser?
A)The thrasher was predicted to eat both mild and hot chilies.
B)The thrasher was predicted to eat only the mild chilies.
C)The thrasher was predicted to eat only the hot chilies.
D)The thrasher was predicted to not eat any of the chilies.
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement about spontaneous generation is false?
A)Pasteur demonstrated that it does not occur under normal laboratory conditions.
B)It apparently occurred at least once-when life on Earth began.
C)It occurs every time a new species evolves from a preexisting species.
D)It addresses the formation of living cells from previously nonliving material.
Answer: C
Q3) The pattern component of the cell theory claims that all organisms consist of cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) When are atoms most stable?
A)when they have the fewest possible valence electrons
B)when they have the maximum number of unpaired electrons
C)when all of the electron orbitals in the valence shell are filled
D)when all electrons are paired
Answer: C
Q2) Why would the spontaneous formation of formaldehyde and hydrogen cyanide not take place on Earth today as much as on the prebiotic Earth?
A)Microorganisms break these down immediately.
B)The sun has changed its output.
C)Atmospheric conditions on Earth,such as the presence of oxygen,have changed.
Answer: C
Q3) You need to write down information about a molecule,but need to indicate only which atoms it contains and how many of each.Which representation would work best?
A)molecular formula
B)structural formula
C)ball-and-stick model
D)space-filling model
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) Several of the molecules called vitamins act as enzyme cofactors.Vitamin deficiencies cause disease.What is the most direct explanation for this?
A)Vitamins combine with nonprotein molecules to delay the onset of disease.
B)If cofactors are missing,enzymes cannot function properly,and important reaction products will be absent from cells.
C)Normal regulation cannot occur in the absence of cofactors.As a result,all enzymes will function all of the time.
D)Cofactors inhibit enzymes found in disease-causing bacteria and viruses.When cofactors are absent,these disease-causing agents multiply.
Answer: B
Q2) If the primary structure of a protein is incorrect
A)the secondary structure will be correct.
B)the tertiary structure will be correct.
C)any quaternary structure will be correct.
D)any higher-level folding of the protein will be incorrect.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) The "information system" of the cell involves stable genetic information being stored as ________,which can be used to make a "disposable" (relatively short-lived)copy of this information as ________.
A)RNA;DNA
B)DNA;DNA
C)DNA;RNA
D)RNA;RNA
Q2) In the secondary structure of DNA,the -helical twists are organized into
A)major and minor grooves.
B)large and small grooves.
C)major and small grooves.
D)large and minor grooves.
Q3) What is gel electrophoresis used for?
A)to denature proteins for further analysis
B)to separate macromolecules by size or charge
C)to separate the two helices that make up the DNA double helix
D)to identify the first self-replicating molecule that formed during chemical evolution
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) Which of the following can vary among monosaccharides?
A)the number of carbon atoms
B)the presence of a carbonyl group
C)the presence of hydroxyl groups
D)all of the above
Q2) When an insect is crushed,it creates a crunching sound.What carbohydrate is the most likely source of this sound?
A)glycogen
B)chitin
C)peptidoglycan
D)cellulose
E)starch
Q3) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of -glycosidic linkages in starch?
A)amylase
B)phosphorylase
C)glycolase
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) You have a planar bilayer at a relatively warm temperature.After testing the permeability of this membrane to glucose,you increase the quantity of cholesterol in the bilayer.What will happen?
A)You can't predict the outcome.You simply have to make the measurement.
B)Permeability to glucose will increase.
C)Permeability to glucose will decrease.
D)Permeability to glucose will stay the same.
Q2) Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used for moving a medium-sized molecule (like a monosaccharide or an amino acid)from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration on the inside of a cell?
A)facilitated diffusion through an ion channel protein
B)facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein
C)active transport through a "pump" protein
D)passive transport
Q3) What most distinguishes lipids from other biomolecules is
A)that only lipids contain hydrogen atoms.
B)their molecular weight (size).
C)their chemical properties.
D)where they are found in the body.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) You are studying an organism and note that its proteins fail to be glycosylated.A deficiency in which of the following organelles is likely the cause?
A)Golgi apparatus
B)Peroxisomes
C)Mitochondria
D)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) One function of peroxisomes is alcohol detoxification.In which of the following locations would you expect to find large quantities of peroxisomes?
A)in liver tissue of people who drink large quantities of alcohol
B)in the stomach of people who drink large quantities of alcohol
C)in liver tissue of people who consume high-fat diets
D)in heart muscle of all people
Q3) What can you infer about high-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus?
A)They are foreign proteins.
B)They lack nuclear localization signals (NLS).
C)They are defective proteins.
D)They have been tagged for destruction.
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a bacterium that can settle on human lung cells.P.aeruginosa can secrete a signalling molecule that recruits other P.aeruginosa cells.The result of this secretion is the formation of a A)capsule.
B)slime layer.
C)biofilm.
Q2) Osteocytes are bone cells.Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance between and among the osteocytes.The collagen and calcium salts are
A)components of the plasma membrane of osteocytes.
B)part of the extracellular matrix.
C)extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum.
D)deposited by the circulatory system and are not associated with the osteocytes.
Q3) A gap junction is a channel that connects adjacent cells.What kinds of substances can pass through a gap junction?
A)ions that can regulate heartbeat
B)raw materials for protein synthesis
C)subunits of nucleic acids
D)all of these substances
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Pyruvate oxidation occurs in
A)the cytosol.
B)the mitochondrial intermembrane space.
C)the mitochondrial inner membrane.
D)the mitochondrial matrix.
Q2) Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK)deficiency afflicts springer spaniels,affecting an estimated 10% of the breed.PFK is the glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates fructose-1-phosphate and catalyzes the committed step in glycolysis.Given its critical role in glycolysis,one implication of the genetic defect resulting in PFK deficiency in dogs is
A)early embryonic mortality.
B)elevated blood-glucose levels.
C)exercise intolerance.
D)nothing.It would have no visible effect on the health of the animal.
Q3) Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?
A)breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules
B)the breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide
C)the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)substrate-level phosphorylation
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Energy from sunlight can excite electrons,kicking them out of their orbitals and creating free radicals.Free radicals are highly reactive atoms or molecules that have unpaired electrons.They degrade and destroy other compounds in their vicinity.Carotenoids,one of the pigments present in most chloroplasts,can stabilize these free radicals.This suggests that
A)once chloroplasts are destroyed,the free radicals will destroy the cell.
B)carotenoids probably have a protective function in the cell.
C)other pigments (besides carotenoids and chlorophyll)are essential for the health of a plant cell.
D)carotenoids communicate directly with the immune system of plants.
Q2) The process of photosynthesis probably originated
A)in plants.
B)in prokaryotes.
C)in fungi.
D)three separate times.
Q3) Stomata,openings in the leaf,are important to photosynthesis for A)entry of carbon dioxide that is used in the Calvin cycle.
B)entry of oxygen that is used in the Calvin cycle.
C)removal of water and carbon dioxide,the end-products of photo-oxidation.
D)removal of nitrogen-containing waste products.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) The term contact inhibition refers to the A)exchange of signals between cells using cell surface receptions.
B)cessation of cell growth when two cells touch each other.
C)action of non-competitive inhibitors on the catalytic activity of enzymes.
Q2) DNA is composed of four nucleosides: adenosine,cytidine,thymidine,and guanosine.If scientists introduced radioactive thymidine into the growth medium of the cells,it would be incorporated into the DNA molecule
A)at any point in the cell cycle.
B)when centromeres split so the two chromosomes can be separated.
C)during DNA replication.
D)as the cell enters G of interphase.
Q3) Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrows involved in animal cell cytokinesis?
A)actin
B)dynein
C)tubulin
D)elastin
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) Chromosome number of hexaploid wheat,Triticum aestivum,can be represented by which of the following?
A)n
B)2n
C)4n
D)6n
Q2) At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?
A)DNA replication does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis.
B)prophase I
C)between meiosis I and meiosis II
D)None.DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins.
Q3) Centromeres split and sister chromosomes migrate to opposite poles in
A)anaphase I.
B)prophase II.
C)anaphase II.
D)telophase II.
Q4) Which of the following is an example of monosomy?
A)Turner's syndrome (XO)
B)Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY)
C)Down's syndrome (21,21,21)
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) In tigers,a recessive allele causes a white tiger (absence of fur pigmentation).If two phenotypically normal tigers that are heterozygous at this locus are mated,what percentage of their offspring is expected to be white?
A)50%
B)75%
C)about 66%
D)about 90%
E)25%
Q2) The distance between two genes is a determinant of their recombination frequency.Based on the image below,which of the following sets of genes will show the greatest recombination frequency?
A)A and B
B)B and C
C)C and D
D)A and E
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) Refer to Figure 14.1.What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the order that they will be added.
A)C,A,G,C,A,G,A
B)T,C,T,G,C,T,G
C)A,G,A,C,G,A,C
D)U,G,U,C,G,U,C
Q2) In humans,xeroderma pigmentosum is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism.These individuals are unable to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light.Which of the following are the most prominent types of mutations in individuals suffering from xeroderma pigmentosum?
A)mismatch errors
B)telomere shortening
C)methylation of purines
D)pyrimidine dimers
Q3) DNA is synthesized through a process known as A)semiconservative replication.
B)conservative replication.
C)dispersive replication.
D)transcription.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) The proteome is all the proteins produced by an organism.The genome is the totality of all genes of an organism.If the proteome is much larger than the genome,which of the following statements would be accurate?
A)This finding lends support to the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis.
B)The number of monomeric subunits found in proteins is fewer than the number of monomeric subunits found in genes.
C)At least in some cases,a single gene must code for more than one protein.
D)Noncoding DNA is important in determining the proteome.
Q2) The statement,DNA RNA Proteins,
A)has become known as the central dogma.
B)depicts the regulation of gene expression.
C)is reversible in most living organisms.
D)describes a series of catalytic reactions.
Q3) Which molecule carries the message from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm where the code is translated?
A)mRNA
B)DNA
C)rRNA
D)tRNA
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) Refer to Figure 16.3.What is the function of the AGU on the loop of the tRNA?
A)It attaches to the amino acid.
B)It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.
C)It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
D)It is the active site of this ribozyme.
Q2) RNA polymerase needs a subunit to initiate transcription that is not needed for transcript elongation.What is the subunit?
A)Mg²
B)rho
C)sigma
D)the holoenzyme
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in initiation of translation?
A)binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the small ribosomal subunit
B)binding of tRNA carrying formyl methionine to the start codon and small ribosomal subunit
C)recognition and binding of mRNA by the small ribosomal subunit
D)formation of a polypeptide bond
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18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) Imagine that you've set up a genetic screen to identify E.coli mutants that cannot metabolize the amino acid tryptophan.Beginning with a master plate containing many colonies,you prepare replica plates on medium with glucose or tryptophan as the only energy source.You would look for colonies that
A)cannot grow on either type of media.
B)can grow on both types of media.
C)can grow only on the plates with tryptophan.
D)can grow only on the plates with glucose.
Q2) How does the inducer change the repressor's affinity for DNA?
A)Inducer binding changes the repressor's shape so that the promoter is bent from a rectangular to a loop-like shape.
B)Inducer binding changes the repressor's shape to alter the positioning of the repressor's DNA binding domains so they no longer interact with DNA.
C)Inducer binding makes the repressor's DNA binding domains more positively charged,so they can no longer bind the operator.
D)Inducer binding makes the repressor's DNA binding domains more negatively charged,so they can no longer bind the operator.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Histone acetyl transferases exert their effect on gene activity by
A)neutralizing positive charges on the lysines of histones.
B)introducing negative charges on the glutamic acids of histones.
C)modifying the DNA sequence of the promoter.
D)increasing the affinity of transcriptional activators for DNA.
E)increasing the affinity of transcriptional inhibitors for DNA.
Q2) Gene expression is often assayed by measuring the level of mRNA produced from a gene.If one is interested in knowing the amount of a final active gene product,a potential problem of this method is that it ignores the possibility of
A)chromatin condensation control.
B)transcriptional control.
C)alternative splicing.
D)translational control.
E)all of the above.
Q3) An example of a basal transcription factor is
A)RNA polymerase.
B)the TATA-binding protein.
C)an enhancer-binding transcription factor.
D)a silencer-binding transcription factor.
E)a promoter-proximal-binding transcription factor.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Plasmids are used as cloning vectors in genetic engineering.This means that plasmids allow for
A)carrying of DNA into a cell and DNA replication.
B)infection of cells.
C)DNA replication outside rather than inside cells.
D)carrying of RNA into a cell and RNA replication.
Q2) What information is critical to the success of PCR itself?
A)The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
B)The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known.
C)The sequence of restriction enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified must be known.
D)The sequence of restriction enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known.
Q3) Transgenic mice
A)often provide valuable animal models of human disease.
B)are essential for mapping human genes.
C)are now used in place of bacteria for cloning human genes.
D)were instrumental in pinpointing the location of the huntingtin gene.
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) An early step in shotgun sequencing is to
A)break genomic DNA at random sites.
B)map the position of cloned DNA fragments.
C)randomly select DNA primers and hybridize these to random positions of chromosomes in preparation for sequencing.
Q2) When gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome,what has occurred?
A)pseudogene creation
B)creation of a gene cluster
C)creation of a polyploid
D)creation of an aneuploid
E)creation of a diploid
Q3) Mutations that occur in one member of a gene pair that arose from genes duplication may create
A)a pseudogene.
B)a gene with a new function.
C)a gene family with two distinct but related members.
D)A and B only.
E)all of the above.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) For which of the following reasons are adult stem cells said to be multipotent?
A)They can divide and develop into any part of the multicellular organism.
B)They can only divide and develop into a limited number of related cells types.
C)They can divide and develop to form a complete multicellular organism.
Q2) Even though plant and animal development processes share a number of features,there are some differences between the two groups of organisms.Which of the following is NOT a shared characteristic of plant and animal development?
A)Gene expression in developing embryonic tissues is closely regulated.
B)Orientation of cells and tissues is critical for proper development.
C)Differentiation of cells is directed and maintained by cascades of signals.
D)Cell types,once determined,generally cannot change their differentiated characteristics.
Q3) When the Bicoid protein is expressed in Drosophila,the embryo is still syncytial (divisions between cells are not yet fully developed).This helps to explain which observation by Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus?
A)mRNA from the egg is translated into the Bicoid protein.
B)Bicoid protein diffuses throughout the embryo in a concentration gradient.
C)Bicoid protein serves as a transcription regulator.
D)Bicoid protein determines the dorsoventral axis of the embryo.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) During early cleavage in animal embryos,minimal growth of the embryo is observed,even though rapid cell division is taking place.How might this lack of growth be most easily measured without destroying the embryo?
A)oxygen uptake measurements
B)vital dye uptake measurements
C)measurements of embryo movement
D)counting the number of nuclei in the embryo
Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence in the development of specialized cells?
A)differentiation,pattern formation,morphogenesis,determination
B)differentiation,determination,morphogenesis,pattern formation
C)pattern formation,determination,morphogenesis,differentiation
D)pattern formation,morphogenesis,differentiation,determination
E)pattern formation,morphogenesis,determination,differentiation
Q3) In Xenopus embryos,which developmental sequence is correct?
A)neurula,blastula,gastrula,cleavage
B)cleavage,neurula,gastrula,blastula
C)gastrula,neurula,cleavage,blastula
D)cleavage,blastula,gastrula,neurula
E)cleavage,gastrula,blastula,neurula
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) In their study of the Madagascar lace plant,how did the researchers establish that the holes were formed through programmed cell death?
A)They tested for apoptosis using the TUNEL assay.
B)They found suberin around the margins of the holes.
C)They found no nutrients in the cells forming the hole.
D)They tested for a waxy substance that triggered programmed cell death.
Q2) Meristematic tissue cells in plants are MOST similar to which kind of cells in animals?
A)somite cells
B)ectodermal cells
C)embryonic stem cells
D)mesodermal cells
Q3) All of the following statements are true of the endosperm except that
A)it may be likened to the yolk of an animal egg.
B)it is a triploid tissue.
C)it is used as a food source by the embryo.
D)it is formed from equal contributions of both parents.
E)it is the major energy source for germination.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Vestigial traits and neutral changes in DNA sequences are good examples of
A)adaptation.
B)acclimation.
C)convergent traits.
D)nonadaptive traits.
E)developmental homology.
Q2) Which of the following is the best modern definition of evolution?
A)descent without modification
B)change in allele frequencies in a population over time
C)survival of the fittest
D)inheritance of acquired characters
Q3) Who proposed that organisms could be organized into a great chain of being?
A)Aristotle
B)Lamarck
C)Linnaeus
D)Darwin
E)Wallace
Q4) Evolution by natural selection changes the population but not the individual.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s.They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community.Today,the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies,at many loci,from all other populations including those in their original homeland.Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
A)population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B)heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C)sexual selection and inbreeding depression
D)mutation and natural selection
E)founder effect and genetic drift
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years.If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease,what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A )and recessive (A )alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model?
A)f(A )= 0.9997,f(A )= 0.0003
B)f(A )= 0.9800,f(A )= 0.0200
C)f(A )= 0.9700,f(A )= 0.0300
D)f(A )= 0.9604,f(A )= 0.0392
E)f(A )= 0.9600,f(A )= 0.0400
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Which of the following reproductive barriers would prevent a hybrid zygote from developing into a viable,fertile adult?
A)behavioural isolation
B)gametic hybridization
C)mechanical isolation
D)hybrid sterility
Q2) Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate.Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South America.What outcomes can occur where the ranges of two species overlap?
A)The species will interbreed,eventually fusing over time.
B)A stable hybrid zone will form if hybrids are better adapted to the area of overlap than either parent species is.
C)Species will continue to diverge and be isolated by behavioral or genetic mechanisms.
D)All of the above are possible outcomes.
E)None of the above are a possible outcome.
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28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) A hypothetical island lies far from any other landmasses.There are many different types of plants,but only one animal-a beetle that can fly or walk from plant to plant and feeds by chewing leaves.Which morphological change would be most likely to trigger an adaptive radiation of the beetles?
A)a change in wing shape that improves flight speed
B)an additional segment on a pair of legs
C)a mouthpart that can pierce fruits and seeds
Q2) Why would gene duplication events,such as those seen in the Hox gene complex,set the stage for adaptive radiation?
A)There are more copies of genes,meaning speciation had occurred by polyploidy.
B)The original gene copy is the out-group,and the new gene copies are the adaptive radiation.
C)Without duplicated genes,species would be vulnerable to extinction.
D)One copy of a gene can perform the original function while other copies are available to take on new functions.
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29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) What is the characteristic feature of the Chlamydiales phylum?
A)unusual flagella
B)formation of colonies
C)rod shape
D)parasitic life cycle
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is correct?
A)During oxygenic photosynthesis,water is used as a source of electrons;during non-oxygenic photosynthesis,hydrogen sulfide is used as a source of electrons.
B)During oxygenic photosynthesis,hydrogen sulfide is used as a source of electrons;during non-oxygenic photosynthesis,water is used as a source of electrons.
C)During oxygenic photosynthesis,oxygen is used as a source of electrons;during non-oxygenic photosynthesis,water is used as a source of electrons.
D)During oxygenic photosynthesis,oxygen is used as a source of electrons;during non-oxygenic photosynthesis,hydrogen sulfide is used as a source of electrons.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile,photosynthetic protists evolve to become parasitic to fish.They gain the ability to live in the fish gut,absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food.Over time,which of the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population of protists?
A)loss of motility
B)loss of chloroplasts
C)gain of a rigid cell wall
D)gain of meiosis
E)no changes would be expected
Q2) What is meant by the term "high-selected" lines in the phytoplankton experiment?
A)lines of phyloplankton that had strong environmental selection pressures
B)lines of phytoplankton that were grown in high CO conditions,compared to other phytoplankton lines
C)lines of phytoplankton that were allowed to grow at a faster rate than other lines of phytoplankton
D)All of the above.
E)Both A and B.
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) How are the bryophytes and seedless vascular plants alike?
A)Plants in both groups have vascular tissue.
B)In both groups,sperm swim from antheridia to archegonia.
C)The dominant generation in both groups is the sporophyte.
D)Plants in both groups have true roots,stems,and leaves.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q2) What two major novelties allowed for the first colonization of terrestrial habitats by plants?
A)roots and vascular tissue
B)cuticle and pores
C)roots and true leaves
D)tracheids and vessel elements
E)All of these answers apply.
Q3) Plant systematists working with angiosperm DNA have determined that
A)dicots appear to have developed from more than one ancestor.
B)dicots are not really angiosperms.
C)monocots are not really angiosperms.
D)monocots appear to have developed from more than one ancestor.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Refer to Figure 31.2.Which of the following results would support Simard et al.'s (1997)hypothesis that fungi can move carbon from one plant to another? Hypothesis: Sugars made by one plant during photosynthesis can travel through a mycorrhizal fungus and be incorporated into the tissues of another plant.
A)Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.
B)Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.
C)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.
D)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.
Q2) This symbiotic association grows on rocks,where it begins the process of soil formation,and it is a major food source for caribou.
A)arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi
B)ectomycorrhizal fungi
C)endophytes
D)lichens
E)chytrids
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins.In fact,it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet.What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the development of these toxins?
A)the medusa body form
B)asexual reproduction
C)a slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult
D)diploblastic design
E)bilateral symmetry in the mobile larval forms
Q2) The text describes four ways,or tactics,of feeding.Which of the following is NOT one of those ways?
A)suspension feeding
B)food-mass feeding
C)herbivory feeding
D)deposit feeding
E)fluid feeding
Q3) If humans were characterized as undergoing metamorphosis,infant humans would be described as
A)nymphs.
B)larvae.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which mollusc group can be described as having several calcium carbonate plates along their dorsal side?
A)bivalves
B)gastropods
C)chitons
D)cephalopods
Q2) Compare the graphs in Figure 33.2 of CO emission for Cormocephalus morsitans and Scutigerina weberi.What hypothesis can you make about each centipede's habitat?
A)C)morsitans lives in a habitat that provides more carbon dioxide than S.weberi.
B)C)morsitans lives in a habitat with more predators than S.weberi.
C)C)morsitans lives in a colder habitat than S.weberi.
D)C)morsitans lives in a dryer habitat than S.weberi.
Q3) The common ancestor of the protostomes had a coelom.What does this suggest?
A)All lophotrochozoans have a coelom.
B)There are no pseudocoelomates within the protostomes.
C)There are no acoelomates within the protostomes.
D)None of the above answers apply.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following observations would not support the hypothesis that H.floresiensis used symbolic spoken language?
A)finding that several H.floresiensis individuals cooperated in ambushing and killing large prey
B)finding that a large ancestral population of H.floresiensis traveled to Flores by boat
C)finding that H.floresiensis manufactured stone tools for specialized purposes
D)finding the hyoid bone of H.floresiensis similar in morphology to that of modern H.sapiens
E)finding that the brain regions responsible for speech were enlarged in H.floresiensis
Q2) Which characteristic is common to all the major reptilian lineages (Testudinia,Lepidosauria,Crocodilia,or Aves)?
A)presence of teeth
B)presence of limbs
C)ectothermy
D)presence of a notochord
E)all of the above
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following viruses would be the most likely to have reverse transcriptase?
A)an RNA-based lytic virus
B)an RNA-based lysogenic virus
C)a DNA-based lytic virus
D)a DNA-based lysogenic virus
Q2) When HIV infects people,it does not immediately induce AIDS and kill its host.When people die from HIV infections,it is usually because
A)they have too many HIV particles in their lymph system,which causes it to shut down.
B)they have too few T cells and become susceptible to secondary infections and cancers.
C)they have too many T cells,and this overwhelms their immune systems.
D)the virus induces a coma and then eventually stops the heart muscle.
E)the virus starts destroying cells as it divides and causes massive internal hemorrhaging that leads to shock and eventually death.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Which of these statements is not true about plant sclerenchyma cells?
A)They can be gritty stone cells in pears and hard cells in nutshells.
B)Long fibers are used in products such as hemp rope,linen,ramie,and paper.
C)Their cell walls contain lignin in addition to cellulose.
D)They are the main support and water-transport cells in woody plants.
E)Like parenchyma and collenchyma,they all contain cytoplasm at maturity.
Q2) The most effective way to kill a tree is to remove a ring of bark from the circumference.Why does the tree die?
A)No water can be transported from the roots to the leaves.
B)No water can be transported from the leaves to the roots.
C)No sugars can be transported from the leaves to the roots.
D)Both water and sugars are prevented from being transported.
Q3) What is not a function of modified leaves?
A)trapping and digesting insects for an additional nutrient source
B)wrapping around structures for support
C)attracting pollinating insects with their bright colors
D)absorbing oxygen for photosynthesis
E)storing nutrients and water
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) The pressure-flow mechanism for sugar translocation you have learned about in this class is based on research on angiosperms,and thus might not occur in other vascular plants.Which of the following real or hypothetical observations on gymnosperms would suggest they possess a different mechanism?
A)Pores in the sieve areas of their sieve-tube members are filled with numerous membranes.
B)Gymnosperms do not possess vessels.
C)Bidirectional phloem transport occurs in gymnosperms.
D)Asymmetric annual growth rings occur in gymnosperms.
E)Formation of buds is supported by products of photosynthesis primarily from leaves on the same branch.
Q2) Compared to plants from other environments,the cells of many desert plants contain high concentrations of solutes.This helps them survive in their arid surroundings because the high solute concentrations create relatively ________,which help reduce water loss.
A)low solute potentials
B)high pressure potentials
C)low pressure potentials
D)high solute potentials
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) What kind of climate is most often associated with epiphytic plants?
A)warm
B)humid
C)sunny
D)all of the above
Q2) Why do plants use cotransporters instead of ion channels to transfer anions into cells?
A)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the membrane potential gradient,but ion channels cannot.
B)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the concentration gradient,but ion channels cannot.
C)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the proton gradient,but ion channels cannot.
D)Anions are too bulky to be transported by ion channels.
Q3) What is a typical habitat for carnivorous plants?
A)mangrove
B)woodlands
C)bog
D)desert
E)tundra
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) Which of the following cannot be sensed by plants' senses?
A)gravity
B)pathogens
C)wind
D)light
E)all of the above
Q2) Refer to the table above.How would Plant A be classified?
A)long day
B)short day
C)day-neutral
Q3) Which of the following is the strongest evidence that cytokinins regulate cell divisions?
A)increase of cyclin gene expression in tissues exposed to cytokinin
B)decrease of cyclin gene expression in tissues exposed to cytokinin
C)induction of shoot growths in tissues exposed to cytokinin
D)induction of root growths in tissues exposed to cytokinin
E)ability of cytokinin to interact with auxin at the molecular level and change auxin biosynthesis and transport
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12).What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?
A)The sperm has 6 chromosomes.
B)The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.
C)The zygote has 12 chromosomes.
D)The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q2) A researcher found a beautiful plant while traveling in Alaska and collected its seeds.When she came back to Florida,she soaked some seeds in pure water and some in water with hormone gibberellin.When she put seeds to grow in soil,only seeds soaked with gibberellin germinated.The seeds that were soaked in pure water did not germinate because of the A)presence of pericarp.
B)low concentration of ABA.
C)absence of nutrients in pure water.
D)Any of the above might have reduced germination rate.
Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon?
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Gills serve multiple functions in fish in addition to gas exchange.Given the large surface area of gills with lamellae,what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal?
A)to prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water
B)to prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water
C)to prevent protein loss to the surrounding water
D)to prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water
Q2) Choose the statement below that is TRUE regarding thermoregulation strategy.
A)An Atlantic salmon regulates its body temperature to match the surrounding air temperature.
B)A rooster's internal temperature is kept strictly at 39°C.
C)An ant's body temperature fluctuates with the surrounding environment.
D)A kangaroo's body temperature conforms to the surrounding environment.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a structure that has an increased surface area for absorption?
A)a cow's digestive tract consisting of 3 stomachs
B)an earthworm's segmented body
C)a cheetah's large nostrils
D)a human's lungs with many thin-walled alveoli
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) A potassium ion gradient is set up in the Malpighian tubules through an active transport process.As a result,potassium concentration is higher in the lumen of the tubules than in hemolymph.How would the potassium gradient affect water movement?
A)Water would be forced out of the lumen of the Malpighian tubules through an osmotic gradient.
B)The potassium gradient would have no effect on water movement.
C)There would be a net movement of water into the lumen of the tubules.
D)Water would be conserved,forming a hypertonic solution in the Malpighian tubules.
Q2) What role does Na /K -ATPase play in salt excretion by the shark rectal gland?
A)Na /K -ATPase pumps sodium out and potassium into cells across the apical membrane.
B)Na /K -ATPase pumps sodium into and potassium out of cells across the apical membrane.
C)Na /K -ATPase pumps sodium out and potassium into cells across the basolateral membrane.
D)Na /K -ATPase pumps sodium into and potassium out of cells across the basolateral membrane.
Q3) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
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44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Villi and microvilli that are associated with the luminal surface of the intestinal epithelium are important in that they
A)increase the surface area available for absorption.
B)contain stratified (layered)epithelial cells for protection against pathogens entering with food.
C)transport substances from the epithelial cells into the circulatory system.
D)contain cilia that facilitate movement of the contents of the alimentary canal toward the anus.
Q2) Following a meal high in starch,digestive processes break the starch into ________,which when absorbed into circulation cause a release of the hormone ________.
A)amino acids;glucagon
B)free fatty acids;cholecystokinin
C)glucose;glucagon
D)glucose;insulin
Q3) How many food calories does the jug of apple juice contain?
A)120
B)240
C)480
D)960
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Which of the following conditions would be the most likely result of an abnormally high blood pressure in an animal,like a reptile,possessing a closed circulatory system?
A)hemorrhage in the capillary beds
B)hemorrhage in the aorta
C)reversal of normal blood flow direction in the veins
D)all of the above
Q2) When you are jogging,your muscles are using more oxygen and releasing more carbon dioxide into the blood than when you are at home on the couch.Which of the following would occur during your jog?
A)Blood pH would increase by at least 1 pH unit.
B)The concentration of bicarbonate ions (HCO )in the blood would decrease.
C)The medullary respiratory center would increase the rate of breathing.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) A large increase in albumin concentration in the plasma of a dog would result in which of the following?
A)increase in blood volume and decrease in lymph volume
B)decrease in blood volume and increase in lymph volume
C)increase in blood volume and increase in lymph volume
D)decrease in blood volume and decrease in lymph volume
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following statements about action potentials is FALSE?
A)All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in magnitude.
B)All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in duration.
C)Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon.
D)Movement of ions during the action potential occurs mostly through the sodium pump.
E)The frequency of action potentials,not their size,is the meaningful signal.
Q2) Neurotransmitter is released
A)in response to an action potential depolarizing the presynaptic membrane.
B)when threshold potential is reached.
C)when enough voltage-gated sodium channels open.
Q3) Which letter in Figure 45.1 corresponds to a large efflux of K ions from the cell?
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Compared to human eyes,the eyes of cephalopods (squid and octopus)
A)are extremely similar,with no significant differences.
B)are not camera eyes and do not have a single lens.
C)are inferior because they have few photoreceptors.
D)have an adaptive advantage because they do not have a blind spot.
Q2) When a doctor tests your patellar reflex by tapping the tendon on the front of your knee,your lower leg comes forward.Which muscle is activated in this reflex?
A)hamstring (located in the back of your thigh)
B)quadriceps (located in the front of your thigh)
Q3) What causes rigor mortis?
A)exhaustion of Ca² from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)lack of ATP in dead tissue
C)lack of acetylcholine (ACh)in dead tissue
D)cessation of action potentials after death
Q4) Bat echolocation (sonar)is most closely related to which human sensory system?
A)hearing
B)smell
C)taste
D)touch
E)vision
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) You spend two months in the mountains of Peru at ~ 3500 m altitude.After returning to Toronto,you notice that you can run your regular 10 k route significantly more easily than before you left.What is the reason for this burst of fitness?
A)You were in the mountains,so you must have been hiking every day and got in better shape.
B)Due to lower oxygen concentrations at high altitudes,low blood oxygen levels stimulated release of EP,which stimulated the production of red blood cells.This increased the oxygen binding capacity of your blood.
C)The time you spent at a high altitude resulted in an increased lung capacity and therefore extra oxygen intake.This extra oxygen stimulated the release of EP and in turn the production of red blood cells.
D)The time spent at a high altitude resulted in an increased active metabolic rate and therefore increased ATP production.
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a second messenger?
A)cAMP
B)IP3
C)norepinephrine
D)DAG
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) On a submarine expedition to the ocean bottom,you discover a population of fish that uses a method of reproduction in which female offspring develop from unfertilized eggs.What type of reproduction is this?
A)sexual
B)budding
C)cloning
D)parthenogenesis
E)hermaphroditism
Q2) Why does external fertilization typically occur much more often in aquatic animals than in terrestrial animals?
A)The gametes are hydrophobic,so they must be suspended in water to avoid clumping.
B)The gametes must be produced in large numbers,which can occur only in aquatic environments.
C)The gametes must be kept wet to avoid desiccation.
D)All of the above answers apply.
E)None of the above answers apply.
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is a difference between Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC)proteins?
A)Class I MHC proteins can be found on most cell types and signals that this cell has been compromised,while Class II proteins are found on cells of the immune system and are designed to activate immune responses.
B)Class I MHC proteins are added to antigens in the cytoplasm,while Class II proteins are added to antigens in the Golgi apparatus.
C)Class I MHC proteins signal the immune system to activate the cell displaying the message,while Class II proteins signal the immune system to destroy a particular cell.
D)Class I and Class II MHC proteins have the same basic role,but individuals with particularly strong immune systems will have both types while most individuals have just one or the other.
Q2) What do neutrophils and macrophages have in common?
A)Both ingest and kill bacteria.
B)Both arrive simultaneously at a wound site.
C)Both secrete cytokines.
D)Both secrete lysozymes.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) The rainfall associated with the Indian summer monsoon shows a large intraseasonal and interannual variability.Break-monsoon conditions are one of the most important epochs of the monsoon,and they contribute significantly to the intraseasonal variability of the monsoon.Given what you know about the Hadley cell,how would it have to change to produce this break phase in the monsoon (Bhatla et al.,2004)?
A)The downward arm of Hadley cell strengthens.
B)The upward arm of Hadley cell strengthens.
C)The downward arm of Hadley cell weakens.
D)The upward arm of Hadley cell weakens.
E)No change is needed in the Hadley cell to produce the break phase.
Q2) Besides sunlight,which would be the next most important climatic factors for plants?
A)wind and fire
B)moisture and wind
C)temperature and wind
D)temperature and moisture
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) What was the main reason the honeybees would switch from the "round dance" to the "waggle dance"?
A)The ratio of females to males in the hive shifted.
B)The preferred food source was farther away.
C)The original food source was exhausted.
D)An intruder approached the hive.
Q2) In the figure above,which is the most logical conclusion from the data?
A)Young children are more at risk when living with a stepparent.
B)Older children are more at risk when living with a stepparent.
C)Older children will not die of homicide when living with biological parents.
D)All stepparents are unfit to raise nonbiological children.
Q3) Lobsters can navigate back home at night using Earth's magnetic field.Is this statement a proximate cause or an ultimate cause?
A)proximate cause
B)ultimate cause
Q4) Which of the following has greatest coefficient of relatedness?
A)black bear siblings
B)human fraternal twins
C)worker honey bees
D)tiger siblings
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is Earth's carrying capacity?
A)2 billion
B)6 billion
C)over 1 trillion
D)Earth's carrying capacity is what we decide it will be.
Q2) Which statement about K is false?
A)K varies among populations.
B)K varies in space.
C)K varies in time.
D)K is specific for a given species.
Q3) Using information from the table above,which year was the most successful for the population?
A)year 0
B)year 1
C)year 5
D)The figure does not provide this information.
Q4) If 60 snow geese were alive in 1926 and 856 existed in 2001,what is r?
A)0)070
B)0)035
C)0)094
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main difference between a disturbance and a disturbance regime?
A)A disturbance regime includes defining the predictable frequency and severity of the disturbance.
B)A disturbance regime includes defining the length of the disturbance.
C)A disturbance regime is a more specific type of disturbance.
D)They are essentially the same thing.
Q2) What is the main difference between asymmetric competition and symmetric competition?
A)One species is outcompeted completely in asymmetric competition.
B)Competition is barely measurable in symmetric competition.
C)The fitness reduction is roughly equal between each species in symmetric competition.
D)None of the above answers applies.
Q3) A measure of how much a community is affected by a disturbance is termed A)resilience.
B)resistance.
C)stability.
D)primary productivity.
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55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue,this is
A)net primary productivity.
B)the amount of energy available to consumers.
C)maintenance costs.
D)Both A and B
E)Both B and C
Q2) How much nitrogen is fixed from human processes?
A)It is equal to the amount fixed by natural means.
B)It is about half that fixed by natural means.
C)It is about double that fixed by natural means.
D)We cannot calculate this value.
Q3) Considering the global carbon cycle,where are humans having a large impact?
A)terrestrial ecosystems
B)oceans
C)atmosphere
D)beneath the surface of the Earth
E)Both A and C
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In looking at the figure above,what can be said about edge effects?
A)Biomass declines sharply along edges of forest fragments.
B)Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.
C)Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.
D)Fragmentation does not affect biomass.
Q2) During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea,a research team concluded that at least 1800 bacterial species were discovered.Based on what you know about this area,what would expect to see in coral reef waters?
A)slightly greater genetic diversity
B)slightly smaller genetic diversity
C)equal genetic diversity
D)markedly greater genetic diversity
E)markedly smaller genetic diversity
Q3) In looking at the species-area plot in the figure above,what can be concluded?
A)Number of bird species increases linearly with island area.
B)Number of bird species is different on various islands.
C)Diversity is independent from island area.
D)Number of bird species increases exponentially with island area.
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