Biological Science for Non-Majors Final Exam - 1647 Verified Questions

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Biological Science for Non-Majors Final Exam

Course Introduction

Biological Science for Non-Majors offers an introduction to the principles and concepts of biology tailored for students not specializing in the life sciences. This course explores the fundamental characteristics, diversity, and processes of living organisms, including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and human biology. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of biology to everyday life, critical thinking about scientific issues, and understanding of how biological knowledge influences society and the environment. Laboratory activities and case studies provide hands-on experience and practical applications of biological concepts.

Recommended Textbook

Human Biology 14th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr

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25 Chapters

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science

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Sample Questions

Q1) A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an

A)community.

B)population.

C)organism.

D)tissue.

E)species.

Answer: C

Q2) The cell you are examining under the microscope appears to contain a nucleus.This organism belongs to the domain

A)BacteriA.

B)Archaea.

C)Eukarya.

D)Animalia.

E)Fungi.

Answer: C

Q3) Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not present in a nucleotide?

A)phosphate

B)nitrogenous base

C)5 ring sugar

D)an R group

E)a pentose

Answer: D

Q2) The monomer unit of a protein is

A)fatty acids.

B)amino acids.

C)monosaccharides.

D)polysaccharides.

E)nucleic acids.

Answer: B

Q3) A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane?

A)endosymbiont model

B)fluid-mosaic model

C)plasmagel-plasmasol model

D)lock and key model

E)induced-fit model

Answer: B

Q2) The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the A)matrix.

B)cristae.

C)rugae.

D)effluvium.

E)villi.

Answer: A

Q3) The nucleus of a cell in your thigh muscle contains the same genes as the nucleus of a cell in your brain.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is mismatched to its location in the skin?

A)fat--subcutaneous layer

B)sense organs--dermis

C)keratinization--epidermis

D)nerves/blood vessels--epidermis

E)hair follicle--dermis

Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the waterproofing of skin?

A)mucus

B)keratin

C)hyaline cartilage

D)sweat

E)wax

Q3) Which body cavity contains the small and large intestines?

A)abdominal cavity

B)dorsal cavity

C)cranial cavity

D)vertebral canal

E)pelvic cavity

Q4) List the function and organs associated with urinary system.

Q5) List and describe the three types of cartilage.

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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood

Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Blood pressure plays a major role in returning venous blood to the heart.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When dissecting a specimen,Barry noticed that the arteries were thicker and more elastic than the veins.Why?

A)Veins return blood to the heart against gravity.

B)Arteries contain a greater volume of blood.

C)Veins have valves.

D)Arteries are under greater pressure.

E)Arteries have less smooth muscle than veins.

Q3) Tina's heart began to beat much faster when it came to the scary scene in the movie.Which part of the nervous system causes the heart to beat faster when afraid?

A)peripheral

B)parasympathetic

C)somatic

D)sympathetic

E)axial

Q4) Describe the 4 functions of the cardiovascular system.

Q5) Compare the structure and function of the arteries to that of the veins.

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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Approximately how many oxygen molecules can a single RBC carry?

A)less than 10

B)one hundred

C)one thousand

D)one million

E)one billion

Q2) List the steps involved in the formation of a blood clot.

Q3) Red blood cells are unable to undergo mitosis.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Agglutination refers to the

A)production of antibodies.

B)destruction of red blood cells.

C)development of platelets.

D)production of lymphocytes.

E)clumping of red blood cells.

Q5) List the 5 types of white blood cells and their functions.

Q6) The most abundant component of plasma is water.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by

A)creating interferon.

B)causing them to burst.

C)inactivating their ribosomes.

D)agglutinating them.

E)destroying their nucleic acids.

Q2) Which of the following is not considered a barrier to entry of a pathogen?

A)intact skin

B)mucous membranes

C)sebaceous secretions

D)acid pH of stomach

E)inflammatory response

Q3) Which class of antibodies plays a role in activating the complement and clumping cells?

A)IgM

B)IgG

C)IgA

D)IgD

E)IgE

Q4) Describe the function of the thymus as it relates to the lymphatic system.

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Chapter 8: Biology of Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tuberculosis is caused by a A)virus.

B)bacterium. C)fungi.

D)protist. E)worm.

Q2) How many different "lines" of antibiotics do we have against TB?

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

E)5 or more

Q3) There is no point in taking antibiotics for a cold. A)True

B)False

Q4) People can become resistant to antibiotics. A)True B)False

Q5) List and describe the most common opportunistic diseases an individual in category C of AIDS will die from.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a nutrition label states that something has "0" grams of trans fat,this might not mean there are no trans fats in the food.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland?

A)It secretes bile through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood.

B)It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and bile into the blood.

C)It secretes secretin through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood.

D)It secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blooD.

E)It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and secretin into the blood.

Q3) What enzyme initiates the process of starch digestion in the mouth?

A)salivary lipase

B)salivary protease

C)salivary sucrase

D)salivary amylase

E)salivary lactase

Q4) The stomach is bounded on both ends by a sphincter.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where is the respiratory control center located?

A)in the brain

B)in the bronchi

C)in the lungs

D)in the aorta

E)in the diaphragm

Q2) List the structures associated with the upper respiratory tract and those associated with the lower respiratory tract.

Q3) The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the A)vital capacity.

B)tidal volume.

C)inspiratory reserve volume.

D)expiratory reserve volume.

E)residual volumE.

Q4) During respiration,which structure connects the larynx to the bronchiole tree?

A)trachea

B)glottis

C)lungs

D)alveoli

E)esophagus

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Chapter 11: Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is located within the glomerular capsule?

A)the renal cortex

B)the loop of Henle

C)several collecting ducts

D)a knot of capillaries

E)the peritubular capillary network

Q2) Why do some people not drink beverages with caffeine right before bedtime?

A)It increases the flow of urine and causes you to go to the bathroom during the night.

B)It decreases the flow of urine and can cause kidney stones.

C)It may affect the ability to sleep but caffeine has very little effect on the urinary system.

D)It can cause a headache if consumed late at night.

E)It can lead to diarrhea.

Q3) The kidneys interact with every other organ system of the human body in maintaining homeostasis.

A)True

B)False

Q4) List the components of the glomerular filtrate and indicate where they can be found.

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Chapter 12: Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) How are osteocytes and osteoblasts related?

A)Osteocytes become osteoblasts as the bone matures.

B)Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures.

C)Osteocytes and osteoblasts have the same function,but osteocytes work in the adult and osteoblasts work in the fetus.

D)Osteocytes and osteoblasts work opposite each other.One builds up bone while the other absorbs it.

E)Osteocytes are mature bone cells while osteoblasts are a form of bone cancer.

Q2) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.

Q3) Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone?

A)scapula

B)maxilla

C)hyoid

D)coccyx

E)temporal

Q4) Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the steps involved in bone growth by endochondral ossification.

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Chapter 13: Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle,which pathway(s)do slow-twitch fibers prefer?

A)the creatine phosphate pathway

B)fermentation

C)aerobic respiration

D)the creatine phosphate pathway or fermentation

E)the creatine phosphate pathway or aerobic respiration

Q2) Because the heart beats continuously,cardiac fibers never relax completely.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which way does the adductor longus move the thigh?

A)away from the midline

B)toward the midline

C)in a circle

D)in a cone

E)towards the back

Q4) The origin of a muscle is on a stationary bone.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Heavy use of which drug can lead to hallucinations,anxiety,depression,paranoia,and psychotic symptoms?

A)marijuana

B)ecstasy

C)heroin

D)cocaine

E)methamphetamine

Q2) How does caffeine work?

A)increases the amount of neurotransmitter at a synapse

B)interferes with or decreases the action of a neurotransmitter

C)replace or mimic a neurotransmitter

D)replace or mimic a neuromodulator

E)promote the action of a neurotransmitter

Q3) The postganglionic fiber in the parasympathetic division is long because the ganglia lie near or within the organ.

A)True

B)False

Q4) List the structures associated with the brain stem and indicate their primary function.

Q5) List the order of events that will occur during a reflex arc.

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Chapter 15: Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) As you try to focus on a far away object,the lens of the eye becomes round and thick.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Rotational and gravitational equilibrium both involve all of the following except A)stereociliA.

B)hair cells.

C)calcium carbonate granules.

D)a gelatinous substance within a chamber.

E)the vestibular nervE.

Q3) List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what they respond to.

Q4) When blood pressure increases,what type of sensory receptor detects this?

A)an exteroceptor called a chemoreceptor

B)an exteroceptor called a osmoreceptor

C)an exteroceptor called a nociceptor

D)an interoceptor called a baroreceptor

E)an interoceptor called a chemoreceptor

Q5) Describe the steps involved in the action of a muscle spindle.

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about growth hormone?

A)Growth hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary.

B)The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence.

C)Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism.

D)Too much growth hormone results in giantism.

E)Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature problems.

Q2) How are the nervous system and the endocrine system alike?

A)They both utilize axons and synapses.

B)They both regulate the activities of other systems.

C)They both utilize glands.

D)They both respond very rapidly to stimuli.

E)They both have an very prolonged response to stimuli.

Q3) The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Describe the characteristics of individuals with Type 2 diabetes.

Q5) Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic?

Q6) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) In males,is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females?

Q2) Which of the following forms of birth control is a small piece of molded plastic that does not allow the fertilized embryo to implant?

A)diaphragm

B)cervical cap

C)intrauterine device

D)cervical shield

E)female condom

Q3) Where does spermatogenesis occur?

A)lobules of the testes

B)ovaries

C)vas defernetia

D)urethra

E)Bulbourethral gland

Q4) Which of the following is part of the external genital organs of the female?

A)cervix

B)glans clitoris

C)vagina

D)ovary

E)oviduct

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Development and Aging

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the A)mesoderm.

B)endoderm.

C)chorion.

D)allantois.

E)blastula.

Q2) Which of the following does not occur prior to or during stage 1 of labor?

A)bloody show

B)effacement

C)uterine contractions

D)breaking water

E)dislodging of the placenta

Q3) If a fetus contains an X and a Y chromosome but a defective SRY gene,they will develop

A)into a female because testosterone is not present.

B)into a male because testosterone is not present.

C)into a female because testosterone is present.

D)into a male because testosterone is present.

E)into a hermaphrodite due to the presence of estrogen and testosteronE.

Q4) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized,it does not complete meiosis II.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?

A)prophase I

B)prophase II

C)anaphase I

D)anaphase II

E)telophase I

Q3) All the products of oogenesis are equal in size and content.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16,and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate,then you are looking at A)mitosis.

B)meiosis.

C)interphase.

D)G<sub>2</sub>.

E)G<sub>1</sub>.

Q5) List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.

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Chapter 20: Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) Both heredity and environmental risk factors come into play in the development of cancer.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Epstein-Barr virus is routinely isolated from cases of cervical cancers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not a type of immunotherapy?

A)cancer vaccines

B)anti-p53 engineered adenovirus

C)cytokine therapy

D)monoclonal antibodies

E)genetically engineered antigen presenting cells

Q4) Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Melanoma is the most serious form of skin cancer.

A)True

B)False

Q6) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) When describing someone as "lactose intolerant",you are describing their A)genotype.

B)phenotype.

C)alleles.

D)genome.

E)none of these

Q2) In a pedigree,an affected male would be designated by A)an open circle.

B)a shaded circle.

C)an open square.

D)a shaded square.

E)a square with a line through it.

Q3) Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele?

A)A

B)b

C)AA

D)Aa

E)bb

Q4) List the genotypic ratios of the cross between a man with O blood type and a woman who is heterozygous B blood type.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: DNA Biology and Technology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?

A)The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA.

B)The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits.

C)The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time.

D)The ribosome dissociates into its two subunits and falls off the mRNA.

E)One of the three stop codons is reached.

Q2) Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?

A)amino acids

B)fatty acids

C)nucleotides

D)carbohydrate rings

E)steroid rings

Q3) Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In ex vivo gene therapy,therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells with the use of a vector or carrier molecule.

A)True

B)False

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Human Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the evolutionary theory humans are descended from apes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to Bergmann's rule,

A)hominins such as Cro-Magnons were capable of symbolic thinking because they buried their dead with flowers.

B)plants and animals that live at the same time evolve together.

C)animals in colder regions have bulkier body builds.

D)variation exists because of genetic inheritance.

E)the longer two populations have been separated,the more genetically disparate they will bE.

Q3) Which of the following is not an important anatomical features for determining if a fossil is a hominin?

A)absence of sharp canines

B)bipedal posture

C)flat face

D)brain size

E)absence of a chin

Q4) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish?

Q5) List and explain the elements of the natural selection process.

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Global Ecology and Human Interferences

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does the word "trophic" mean?

A)energy

B)niche

C)web

D)feeding

E)biomass

Q2) Almost 100% of the energy taken in by plants from the sun is available to an ecosystem.

A)True

B)False

Q3) How much of the food energy taken in by an herbivore is passed on to a carnivore?

A)1%

B)5%

C)10%

D)50%

E)90%

Q4) There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Human Population,global Resources,and Conservation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not associated with groundwater depletion?

A)subsidence

B)sinkholes

C)saltwater intrusion

D)lowering of the water table

E)sediment buildup

Q2) List and describe the criteria that are used to measure quality of life.

Q3) Describe the factors that are contributing to the biodiversity extinction crisis we are currently experiencing.

Q4) Which of the following medicinal value pairings is mismatched?

A)rosy periwinkle--leukemia

B)armadillo--leprosy

C)viruses--antibiotics

D)fungus--penicillin

E)horseshoe crabs--limulus amoebocyte lysate

Q5) "Green revolution" plants caused many ecological problems.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.

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