Course Introduction
Biological Science
Exam Questions
Biological Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles governing living organisms and life processes. It covers a broad spectrum of topics including cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology. Students will examine the diversity of life forms, their interaction with the environment, and the molecular mechanisms underpinning heredity and adaptation. The course integrates theoretical concepts with practical laboratory experiences, fostering critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills essential for advanced studies and careers in the biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 4th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology: The Science of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many insects do not see into the red color-range and as a result,many insect-pollinated flowers are colors other than red (e.g.,purple and yellow).This flower coloration would be considered a(n)
A) natural selection.
B) evolution.
C) adaptation.
D) gene.
E) DNA.
Answer: C
Q2) Scientists were studying temperature selection amongst pregnant big brown bats.What would be the best control group for this study?
A) pregnant bats
B) female bats that were not pregnant
C) male bats
D) juvenile male bats
E) juvenile female bats
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) The pH of pure water is ______ because ___________________________.
A) 7.0; water dissociates an equal number of H<sup>+</sup> ions and OH<sup>-</sup>
B) 14.0; water dissociates and more OH<sup>-</sup> is formed because there are more hydrogen atoms in water
C) 1.0; water dissociates and more H<sup>+</sup> is formed since hydrogen is smaller and can separate from the oxygen easily
D) 7.0; there are no ions formed in pure water
E) acidic; there are more H<sup>+</sup> ions than OH<sup>-</sup> ions present
Answer: A
Q2) The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an average atom of an element is best estimated by
A) adding the number of electrons and protons together.
B) subtracting the number of electrons from the number of protons.
C) adding the mass number to the number of electrons.
D) subtracting the number of protons from the mass number.
E) adding the atomic number and atomic mass together.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following elements would be found in a carbohydrate?
A) C, H
B) C, H, O
C) C, H, O, P
D) C, H, O, N
E) C, H, Cl, O
Answer: B
Q2) Which nitrogen containing base is found in DNA but not in RNA?
A) guanine
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) adenine
E) uracil
Answer: B
Q3) The shape of a protein is a critical factor in its function.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Mitochondria are found in
A) plant cells.
B) animal cells only.
C) both plant cells and animal cells.
D) neither plant or animal cells.
E) animal cells and bacterial cells only.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes the function of a chloroplast?
A) It converts light energy into chemical energy.
B) It aids in intracellular digestion.
C) It manufactures proteins.
D) It converts chemical energy into heat energy.
E) It stores water.
Q3) Which of the following is an INCORRECT match?
A) ribosomes - protein synthesis
B) Golgi apparatus - protein alteration and packaging
C) mitochondria - production of cellular ATP
D) lysosomes - cellular digestion
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum - storage of water
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Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms best describes entropy?
A) order
B) disorder
C) potential energy
D) kinetic energy
E) energy conversions
Q2) If blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution
A) the cells will shrink due to water loss by the cell.
B) the cells will be unaffected since they have a cell membrane to separate them from the solution.
C) the cells will swell due to diffusion.
D) the cells will burst due to active transport.
E) the cells will shrink due to the loss of solutes from the blood cell.
Q3) The changing of an enzyme's shape as the substrate binds to the active site is called the
A) substrate binding theory.
B) induced fit model.
C) metabolic pathway.
D) energy of activation.
E) enzyme binding theory.
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Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Q1) CAM photosynthesis limits CO<sub>2</sub> fixation to nighttime hours in order to A) allow water to enter leaf spaces during the daylight hours.
B) open stomata only at night, limiting water loss because of heat and low humidity.
C) allow NADPH and ATP to enter leaf spaces.
D) limit the Calvin cycle reactions to nighttime only.
E) limit water uptake from the soil during daytime hours.
Q2) Not all molecules contain the same amount of chemical energy.The energy relationship between G3P and CO<sub>2</sub> is
A) G3P and CO<sub>2</sub> have the same amount of energy.
B) G3P has less energy than CO<sub>2</sub>.
C) Neither G3P nor CO<sub>2</sub> contain any chemical energy.
D) G3P has more energy than CO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) The light reactions act much as a battery to power the reactions of the Calvin cycle.This energy is stored as
A) ATP and NADP<sup>+</sup>.
B) ADP + P<sub>i</sub>.
C) ADP + P<sub>i</sub> and NADP<sup>+</sup>.
D) ATP and NADPH.
E) NADPH and NADP<sup>+</sup>.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Q1) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration?
A) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport chain, preparatory stage
B) citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis
C) glycolysis, preparatory stage, citric acid cycle, electron transport chain
D) preparatory stage, electron transport chain, citric acid cycle, glycolysis
E) citric acid cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis, preparatory stage
Q2) The products of fermentation depend on the type of organism carrying out the process.Yeasts are used to produce
A) wine, beer, and bread with lactic acid fermentation.
B) only wine and beer with lactic acid fermentation.
C) wine, beer, and bread with alcohol fermentation.
D) wine and beer with alcohol fermentation and bread with lactic acid fermentation.
E) wine with alcohol fermentation and beer and bread with lactic acid fermentation.
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9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) ___________ are a type of internal signal molecule used in controlling the cell cycle.
A) Kinases
B) Histones
C) Centromeres
D) Actins
E) Nucleosomes
Q2) If there are twenty centromeres in a cell,how many chromosomes are there?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80
Q3) Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because
A) plant cells need to build a cell wall while animal cells do not.
B) plant cells need to build a cell wall while animal cells built the extra cellular matrix.
C) animal cells need to build a cell membrane while plant cells do not.
D) animal cells are living while plant cells are not.
E) plant cells divide by mitosis while animal cells divide by meiosis.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Meiosis and the Genetic Basis of Sexual
Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following lists is in the correct order,from the least inclusive to the most inclusive?
A) allele - gene - chromosome
B) gene - allele - chromosome
C) allele - chromosome - gene
D) chromosome - gene - allele
E) gene - chromosome - allele
Q2) You are looking at a cell under the microscope,and see what appears to be several "X" structures being pulled to each side of the cell.What stage of meiosis are you looking at?
A) anaphase I
B) prophase I
C) prophase II
D) metaphase I
E) anaphase II
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) How many different gametes can be produced from the genotype AaBBDDEeff?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16
Q2) Which feature is found among an autosomal recessive pedigree?
A) Heterozygotes have a normal phenotype.
B) Affected children will have at least one affected parent.
C) Heterozygotes are affected.
D) Both males and females are affected with equal frequency.
E) The trait is carried on the Y chromosome.
Q3) In a one-trait test cross,the phenotype that disappears in the F1 generation is the A) dominant trait.
B) negative trait.
C) recessive trait.
D) heterozygote.
E) homozygote.
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Chapter 11: DNA Biology
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Q1) Using three bases to represent each amino acid in a polypeptide
A) ensures that all amino acids are represented at least once by the code.
B) ensures that other organisms can read the code too.
C) ensures that DNA can replicate properly.
D) prevents the wrong amino acid from being incorporated into a protein.
E) prevents early termination of transcription.
Q2) Which of the following series of events is in the correct order?
A) chemical binds to receptor, signal transduction pathway stimulates transcription activator, target gene is transcribed and translated
B) signal transduction pathway stimulates receptor, transcription activator is activated by target gene
C) chemical binds to receptor, target gene is transcribed and translated, signal transduction pathway stimulates proteins that bring about desired changes
D) signal transduction pathway activates receptor, chemical binds to receptor, target gene stimulates transcription activator
E) chemical binds to receptor, signal transduction pathway stimulates target gene, target gene stimulates transcription activator
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) Specialized cells differ from one another because
A) they only express certain genes.
B) they express all genes.
C) they turn off gene expression once specialized.
D) they may re-enter the cell cycle at any time.
E) they do not express housekeeping genes.
Q2) Which gene on chromosome 22 is believed to have made a difference in the evolution of humans compared to that of chimpanzees?
Rev: 02_07_2014_QC_44610
A) The gene for proper speech development.
B) The gene for smell.
C) The gene for hearing.
D) The gene for blood type.
E) The gene for social behaviors.
Q3) Therapeutic cloning
A) can produce clones of adult individuals.
B) can be used to produce superior farm animals.
C) can produce specialized cells to treat human disease.
D) can be used to create new species of plants.
E) can produce embryonic stem cells.
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Q1) Mutations within genes always result in non-functional proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mutations are uncommon because
A) DNA repair enzymes often repair errors.
B) physical mutagens such as X-rays seldom damage DNA.
C) DNA is able to repair itself over time.
D) frameshift mutations occur very frequently.
E) transposons are constantly moving throughout the genome.
Q3) Ex vivo gene therapy differs from in vivo gene therapy in that
A) ex vivo gene therapy involves directly introducing the gene into the body.
B) in vivo gene therapy involves directly introducing the gene into the body.
C) in vivo gene therapy only employs viruses for gene transfer.
D) ex vivo gene therapy only employs viruses for gene transfer.
E) ex vivo gene therapy can employ viruses, nasal sprays, or liposomes for gene transfer, but only liposomes may be used for in vivo gene therapy.
Q4) An extra three nucleotides inserted into a gene will cause a frameshift mutation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) One species forming multiple new species is called
A) natural selection.
B) speciation.
C) adaptation.
D) biogeography.
E) artificial selection.
Q2) Critical to the theory of evolution,Darwin needed to include an idea that was not generally accepted by scientists or society at that time.That idea was
A) that catastrophism occurred at a uniform rate.
B) that the inheritance of acquired characteristics was true.
C) that the Earth must be very old.
D) that uniformitarianism was false.
E) that diversity of life was constant through time.
Q3) Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Organisms always evolve the characteristics they need to survive.
B) Some individuals within the population must die for natural selection to occur.
C) Darwin used molecular biology as evidence of evolution.
D) Natural selection can only work on variation that already exists.
E) Convergent evolution produces homologous structures.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Q1) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula,what does q<sup>2</sup> represent?
A) frequency of the dominant allele
B) frequency of the recessive allele
C) frequency of the heterozygotes
D) frequency of the homozygous dominants
E) frequency of the homozygous recessives
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the conditions required for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) Mutations must not occur.
B) Natural selection must not occur.
C) Random mating must not occur.
D) Genetic drift must not occur.
E) Assortative mating must not occur.
Q3) Which individual would be considered the fittest?
A) Individual that has the longest canine teeth within the group
B) Individual that has the greatest number of breeding opportunities
C) Individual that has the best camoflauge to avoid predators
D) Individual that controls the largest territory
E) Individual that has the greatest number of offspring
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Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) Shared derived traits are found in all members of the ingroup of a clade.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the figure shown here,___ and ___ have a common shared derived trait that is not possessed by ____.
A) X; Y; Z
B) Y; Z; X
C) Y; Z; W
D) X; Z; W
E) Y; W; Z
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the punctuated equilibrium model?
A) There is a period of no change interrupted by speciation.
B) Transitional fossils are less likely to be found.
C) It is difficult to determine when speciation occurred.
D) It often involves an isolated subpopulation.
E) Speciation often occurs rapidly.
Q4) Geographic isolation is not a factor in sympatric speciation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Cyanobacteria are important producers as A) photoautotrophs.
B) saprotrophs.
C) chemoautotrophs.
D) saproautotrophs.
E) photoheterotrophs.
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect for all viruses?
A) Viruses have an inner core of nucleic acid.
B) Viruses have a protein capsid.
C) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
D) Viruses have envelopes.
E) Viral genomes may consist of either DNA or RNA.
Q3) Some bacteria carry out a metabolic process known as fermentation,and
A) consume acids.
B) produce acids.
C) produce oxygen.
D) consume oxygen.
E) consume both acids and oxygen.
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Which structure is the ovary?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) If you are studying a eukaryotic,multicellular,non-photosynthetic organism,what piece of information would be least useful it determining if it is a fungus or an animal?
A) It is motile.
B) It has cell walls.
C) It ingests or absorbs its food.
D) It has specialized tissues and organs.
E) All of the choices would be equally useful.
Q3) In the fern life cycle,which of these is haploid?
A) frond only
B) zygote only
C) gametophyte only
D) gametes only
E) both gametophyte and gametes
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) Which organism does not posses features that identify them as an arachnid?
A) spider
B) scorpion
C) tick
D) horseshoe crab
E) lobster
Q2) Which is the largest,most diverse group of arthropods?
A) arachnids
B) millipedes
C) insects
D) crustaceans
E) centipedes
Q3) Which of these has the necessary adaptations to survive in a dry land environment?
A) insect
B) lobe-finned fish
C) amphibian
D) planarian
E) tunicate
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21
Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) Which plant tissue type transports water and nutrients throughout the plant?
A) Vascular
B) Epidermis
C) Ground
D) Dermis
E) Parenchyma
Q2) The bark of a tree is entirely derived from vascular cambium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which plant tissue type helps carry out the function of a particular plant organ?
A) Ground
B) Epidermis
C) Vascular
D) Xylem
E) Trichomes
Q4) Eudicot roots may experience secondary growth.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Responses and Reproduction
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Q1) A farmer wishes to force a normal plant to maintain a dwarf size.Which of the following plant hormones might she apply?
A) auxin
B) cytokinin
C) ethylene
D) abscisic acid
E) gibberellins
Q2) Because tomatoes contain seeds they are classified as a(n)
A) dry fruit.
B) pome.
C) stone fruit.
D) berry.
E) legume.
Q3) Plants are naturally able to reproduce asexually because they contain meristematic tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A root growing into the Earth is exhibiting negative gravitropism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) _________ carry signals to the cell body of a neuron while _________ carry signals away from the cell body.
A) Neuroglia; dendrites
B) Axons; dendrites
C) Intercalated disks; neuroglia
D) Dendrites; axons
E) dendrites; neuroglia
Q2) Which of the following lists the types of connective tissue from least rigid to most rigid?
A) hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous - bone - blood
B) blood - loose fibrous - hyaline cartilage - bone
C) loose fibrous - blood - bone - hyaline cartilage
D) bone - hyaline cartilage - blood - loose fibrous
E) blood - bone - hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous
Q3) A possible location,in the body,for the tissues in sample one is the
A) kidneys.
B) intestines.
C) brain.
D) skin.
E) trachea.
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) Which of the following features are incorrectly matched with the type of blood vessel in which it is found?
A) well developed middle layer with smooth muscle and elastic tissue - arteries
B) narrow, microscopic tubes of endothelium - capillaries
C) valves are present insuring one-way flow of blood - veins
D) thick, well developed walls due to the presence of a thick layer of smooth muscleveins
E) formed from capillaries and join to form veins - venules
Q2) In the cardiac cycle,the diastole is
A) the relaxation of heart muscle.
B) the contraction of the atria.
C) the closing of the atrioventricular valves.
D) the opening of the semilunar valves.
E) the contraction of the ventricles.
Q3) The presence of salts and plasma proteins in capillaries causes
A) a greater osmotic pressure than blood pressure at the arterial end.
B) diffusion of water into the body tissues.
C) greater osmotic pressure in the blood than in body tissues.
D) slower flow of blood through capillaries.
E) water to move out of the blood capillary at the venous end.
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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is in the correct order for protein digestion?
A) pepsin - peptides - peptidase - amino acids
B) peptidase - peptides - pepsin - amino acids
C) peptidase - amino acids - pepsin - peptides
D) amino acids - peptidase - peptides - pepsin
E) peptides - pepsin - peptidase - amino acids
Q2) Ammonia helps maintain the optimal pH of urine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ruminants have a stomach that enables them to digest cellulose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the figure shown here,the area represented by letter "D"
A) is where blood is filtered to form urine.
B) is the area where urine formed by nephrons is collected.
C) is where arterial blood is brought into the kidneys.
D) is the renal cortex.
E) is the renal medulla.
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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) Mark is 72 inches tall and weighs 180 pounds.His Body Mass Index is
A) 24.4.
B) 20.0.
C) 29.8.
D) 33.2.
E) 35.4.
Q2) Which of the following substances is NOT correctly matched with its caloric value?
A) carbohydrate - 4 kcal/gram
B) fat - 4 kcal/gram
C) water - 0 kcal/gram
D) protein - 4 kcal/gram
E) fiber - 0 kcal/gram
Q3) The percent of daily value on a nutrition facts label is based on
A) a diet of 2000 calories day.
B) a diet of 2500 calories a day.
C) a BMI of 22.
D) an individual weighing 175 pounds.
E) an individual weighting 120 pounds.
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) Antibodies are ___ proteins while antigens are ___ proteins.
A) bacterial; self-produced
B) self-produced; foreign
C) self-produced; also self-produced
D) cancer; bacterial
E) viral; self-produced
Q2) Which of the following is not correct in describing the spleen?
A) It contains red pulp and white pulp.
B) It is an essential organ for survival.
C) It can be involved in fighting cancer.
D) It is spongy, containing many sinuses.
E) It is easily ruptured by a severe blow or infection.
Q3) Which cell type plays a role in adaptive immunity in the body?
A) lymphocytes
B) red blood cells
C) platelets
D) epithelial cells
E) None of these cell types play a role in adaptive immunity.
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Chapter 27: The Control Systems
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Q1) A nerve impulse travels down a myelinated axon by A) repolarization.
B) saltatory conduction.
C) simple diffusion.
D) integration.
E) summation.
Q2) _________ inhibits osteoclasts,and __________ stimulates them.
A) Parathyroid hormone (PTH); calcitonin
B) Growth hormone (GH); calcitonin
C) Epinephrine; norepinephrine
D) Calcitonin; parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E) Glucagon; growth hormone (GH)
Q3) Which is not an anterior pituitary hormone?
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
B) prolactin (PRL)
C) growth hormone (GH)
D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
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Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) Which is the more slender bone of the lower leg?
A) radius
B) tibia
C) ulna
D) fibula
E) femur
Q2) The spaces in the ends of a long bone such as the femur contain
A) yellow bone marrow.
B) plasma.
C) osteocytes.
D) osteons.
E) red bone marrow.
Q3) A(n)_____ eye has a single lens.
A) simple
B) compound
C) static
D) camera-type
E) eyespot
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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Q1) Which of these correctly traces the path of a sperm from its origin to the point at which it leaves the male reproductive tract?
A) testis\(\rarr\)epididymis\(\rarr\)vas deferens\(\rarr\)ejaculatory duct\(\rarr\)urethra
B) epididymis\(\rarr\)vas deferens\(\rarr\)testis\(\rarr\)urethra\(\rarr\)ejaculatory duct
C) testis\(\rarr\)epididymis\(\rarr\)vas deferens\(\rarr\)urethra\(\rarr\)ejaculatory duct
D) vas deferens\(\rarr\)epididymis\(\rarr\)testis\(\rarr\)ejaculatory duct\(\rarr\)urethra
E) testis\(\rarr\)vas deferens\(\rarr\)epididymis\(\rarr\)ejaculatory duct\(\rarr\)urethra
Q2) Which list contains the correct sequence of structures a sperm nucleus must penetrate in order to fertilize an egg?
A) egg plasma membrane\(\rarr\)follicle cells\(\rarr\)zona pellucida
B) follicle cells\(\rarr\)egg plasma membrane\(\rarr\)zona pellucida
C) follicle cells\(\rarr\)zona pellucida\(\rarr\)egg plasma membrane
D) egg plasma membrane\(\rarr\)zona pellucida\(\rarr\)follicle cells
E) zona pellucida\(\rarr\)follicle cells\(\rarr\)egg plasma membrane
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meghan is studying interactions between caribou and their wolf predators.This is an example of ___________ ecology.
A) population
B) community
C) ecosystem
D) biosphere
E) demographic
Q2) Which of the following is true about the majority of LDCs?
A) They consume the most fossil fuels.
B) They support the highest populations.
C) They produce the most hazardous wastes.
D) They have the largest environmental impact.
E) They exhibit the highest per capita resource consumption.
Q3) When a population reaches the stable equilibrium phase,this is considered
A) the carrying capacity of the environment.
B) logarithmic growth.
C) exponential growth.
D) the minimum number of individuals that the environment can sustain.
E) the slow growth stage.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in energy flow through an ecosystem?
A) Producers absorb solar energy.
B) Producers are eaten by the herbivores.
C) Decomposers breakdown the organic matter and make it available for the producers.
D) Top level carnivores eat the herbivores or omnivores within the ecosystem.
E) Producers absorb nutrients from the soil.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of species richness?
A) vultures feeding on the remains of a carcass
B) herd of 60 elk, 6 bald eagles and 90 white pine trees
C) prairie chickens at a lake competing for access to mates
D) diving beetles, blue gill, lilies, water mites, crayfish
E) 100 kg of vegetation, 10 kg of grasshoppers, 1 kg of spiders
Q3) What is the source of carbon for most aquatic organisms?
A) carbon dioxide
B) calcium carbonate
C) biocarbonate ions
D) carbon monoxide
E) fossil fuels Carbon dioxide in the air combines with water to produce biocarbonate.
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a way in which rural areas may be sustainable?
A) planting of native grasses to rebuild the soil
B) planting of trees next to land used for agriculture to break the wind and protect the soil from erosion
C) use of cover crops to stabilize the soil between growing seasons
D) restoration and maintenance of wetlands to lessen runoff and alleviate flooding
E) increasing use of extensive irrigation techniques to nurture demanding crops
Q2) Synthetic organic compounds such are chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)are damaging to the world's fresh water supply.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a consequence of removing water from aquifers?
A) land subsidence including sinkhole formation
B) loss of habitat for aquatic organisms
C) lowering of sea levels
D) water seepage into underground rock beds
E) sediment buildup
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