Biological Psychology Textbook Exam Questions - 2012 Verified Questions

Biological Psychology

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Biological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between biological processes and behavior, examining how brain structures, neurotransmitters, hormones, genetics, and the nervous system influence thoughts, emotions, and actions. This course provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental concepts such as neural communication, brain plasticity, sensory and motor systems, and the biological underpinnings of psychological phenomena like motivation, emotion, learning, and mental disorders. Through lectures, readings, and laboratory experiences, students will develop a foundational understanding of how the biological basis of behavior informs research and practice in psychology.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Two individuals developed similar theories of evolution at about the same time. Charles Darwin was one; the other was _____.

A) William Osler

B) Pierre Flourens

C) Pierre Marie

D) Alfred Wallace

Answer: D

Q2) Materialism is the philosophical position that all behavior can be explained by the: A) workings of the physical nervous system and body alone.

B) interaction of the physical brain and nonphysical soul.

C) motivated pursuit of material well-being.

D) flow of cerebrospinal fluid between ventricles and muscles.

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following supported a cardiac hypothesis of behavior?

A) Plato

B) Galen

C) Aristotle

D) Hippocrates

Answer: C

Page 3

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) How did Penfield contribute to our historical knowledge regarding brain and behavior?

Answer: During neurosurgery Penfield electrically stimulated the exposed cerebral cortex of his patients and replicated data that had previously only been recorded from lab animals. This facilitated comparisons between invasive neurosurgical studies of the brains of lab animals and human brains.

Q2) Describe the contributions of psychometrics to the field of neuropsychology.

Answer Key

Answer: The standardization of measures of various abilities developed for IQ testing has been employed to objectively evaluate the effects of dysfunction in specific brain regions. These data provided the first details of functional models of the human brain.

Q3) neurosurgery ___

A)positron emission tomography

B)failed in developing a functional atlas of the human brain

C)intelligence quotient

D)stereotaxic device

Answer: D

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Gall and Spurzheim were the first to propose the general theory that _____.

A) different parts of the brain had different functions

B) brains were composed of individual units called neurons

C) people use only a small fraction of their brains

D) head circumference is positively correlated with intelligence

Answer: A

Q2) Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for the transmission of sensory signals from the body to the contralateral side of the brain?

A) the somatic

B) the autonomic

C) the spinal

D) the parasympathetic

Answer: A

Q3) Who coined the term "synapse"?

A) Bernstein

B) Galvani

C) Huxley

D) Sherrington

Answer Key

Answer: D

Page 5

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Phenotypic plasticity is due in part to:

A) changes in a genotype.

B) a genome's capacity to express a large number of phenotypes.

C) the variability of the Y chromosome.

D) errors in chromosome number.

Q2) The fossil evidence suggests that _____ was the first hominid to walk upright.

A) Australopithecus

B) H. habilis

C) H. erectus

D) H. americanus

Q3) Variables that influence whether and how a gene is expressed do NOT include:

A) nutrition.

B) neglect.

C) education.

D) phrenological profile

Q4) The study of nonhuman species is NOT useful in ______.

A) understanding basic mechanisms of brain function

B) producing models of human neurological disorders

C) describing evolutionary adaptations

D) developing treatments for aphasia

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) A.africanus

A)toolmakers

B)appeared in the past 200,000 years

C)larger brain and migrated to Europe and Asia

D)smaller brain but probably used tools

Q2) Describe how protein mutations can be used as "molecular clocks" to compare the evolution of species.

Q3) Distinguish between autosomes and chromosome 23.

Q4) Describe the proposed evolutionary relationship between variations in cortical lobe structural developments and the complexity of behavior.

Q5) What are the main differences between H. erectus and Australopithecus?

Q6) Discuss some of the drawbacks to the idea that a correlation between brain size and intelligence is all one really needs to consider when trying to determine differences in intelligence in different species.

Q7) routinely unexpressed as a trait ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

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Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Which is NOT a type of research that is currently being performed to reconstruct the story of human evolution?

A) qualitative

B) behavioral

C) archaeological

D) epigenetics

Q2) From the fossil record, it seems that monkey - like mammals or primates showed evidence of increasingly _____ that was unmatched.

A) longer tails

B) larger brains

C) more hair

D) longer jaws

Q3) If both parents contribute dysfunctional HexA genes (chromosome 15) to a child, the child is likely to exhibit _____; if only one parent contributes this allele, the child is _____ to exhibit this disorder.

A) Huntington's disease; still going

B) Tay-Sachs disease; unlikely

C) Huntington's disease; unlikely

D) Tay-Sachs disease; still going

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The outermost layer of the brain covering is called the _____.

A) pia mater

B) meningeal layer

C) dura mater

D) arachnoid layer

Q2) An interruption of the blood supply to the brain is called a: A) stroke.

B) seizure.

C) hematoma.

D) thrombus.

Q3) Brain tissue characterized by an intermixing of cell bodies and axons is called _____ matter.

A) reticular

B) gray

C) white

D) nucleoid

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Describe the process by which a stem cell becomes a neuron or glial cell.

Q2) Brodmann ___

A)functional organization of the precentral gyrus

B)cytoarchitectonic map of human cortex

C)functional associations of dorsal and ventral roots r

D)function of the reticular formation

Q3) thalamus ___

A)interhemispheric connections

B)controlling movements and associative learning

C)personal memory formation

D)sensory relay

Q4) Identify four types of glial cells, and indicate their main function in the nervous system.

Q5) basal ganglia ___

A)interhemispheric connections

B)controlling movements and associative learning

C)personal memory formation

D)sensory relay

Q6) Compare and contrast the functions of the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

Q7) Diagram the functional divisions of the human nervous system.

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Clefts in the neocortex are called _____.

A) sulci

B) gyri

C) aqueducts

D) ventricles

Answer Key

Q2) Which type of cell is responsible for axonal insulation within the brain?

A) astrocytes

B) ependymal cells

C) Schwann cells

D) oligodendroglia cells

Q3) Match each of the given terms that is used when mapping the nervous system with the term that is its opposite: ventral-_____; medial-_____; ipsilateral-_____.

A) lateral; coronal; caudal

B) dorsal; lateral; contralateral

C) caudal; dorsal; dorsolateral

D) anterior; rostral; coronal

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The chemical energy used to power a neuron's activities is synthesized by the:

A) Golgi apparatus.

B) nucleus.

C) mitochondria.

D) synaptic vesicles.

Q2) Multiple sclerosis is a neurodegenerative disorder in which:

A) myelin is damaged.

B) dendrites lose their spines.

C) neurotransmitter synthesis is blocked.

D) there is excess electrical activity.

Q3) The closer a synapse is to the _____, the more influential it is going to be in determining the production of action potentials in that neuron.

A) dendrites

B) teleodendria

C) nodes of Ranvier

D) axon hillock

Answer Key

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Discuss the contribution of each of the following ions in the production of an action potential: K⁺, Na⁺, and Cl^-.

Q2) Since ions are so small, why do they need special pores or channels to get through the neuronal membrane?

Q3) Describe the interaction between concentration and voltage gradients in the establishment of the membrane potential.

Q4) Distinguish between transcription and translation in protein synthesis.

Q5) Draw a diagram of an action potential, labeling each phase. Include the resting membrane potential, the threshold potential, and hyperpolarization.

Q6) Distinguish between concentration gradient and voltage gradients.

Q7) DNA ___

A)contains degrading enzymes; stores and moves wastes

B)contains genetic code for proteins

C)protein molecule assembly site

D)builds proteins

Q8) Identify the main function for each of the following: mitochondria, tubules, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and lysosomes.

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The _____ carries the message across the synapse.

A) axon

B) dendrite

C) neurotransmitter

D) mRNA

Q2) A _____ is a segment of a DNA strand that encodes the synthesis of a particular type of protein molecule.

A) chromosome

B) gene

C) double helix

D) ribosome

Q3) _____ embedded in the cell membrane act as gates and transportation systems that allow selected substances to pass through the membrane.

A) Ion channels

B) Proteins

C) Lipids

D) Enzymes

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Neurotransmitter release depends on an influx of _____ ions into the presynaptic terminal.

A) Na⁺

B) Mg²⁺

C) Ca²⁺

D) Cl^-

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a class of neurotransmitter?

A) gases

B) peptides

C) small molecules

D) lipids

Q3) Reuptake of a neurotransmitter is accomplished by _____.

A) the postsynaptic neuron

B) surrounding glial cells

C) nearby capillaries

D) the presynaptic neuron

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) List the key differences between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.

Q2) Draw a representative neuron in the central nervous system, and identify the possible types of synapses that could occur on it.

Q3) What is the role of the serotonin neurotransmitter system in the regulation of bodily function?

Answer Key

Q4) NO ___

A)Viagra

B)Alzheimer's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)opium

Q5) How did Loewi's 1921 experiment demonstrate the existence of a diffusible chemical messenger?

Q6) synaptic vesicles ___

A)vesicle clusters

B)postsynaptic potentials

C)neurotransmitter release

D)neurotransmitter molecule containers

Q7) Describe the organization and function of the Renshaw loop.

Q8) What are the four criteria for identifying a substance as a neurotransmitter?

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between

Neurons

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Q1) The main transmitter found in the locus coeruleus is _____.

A) norepinephrine (NE)

B) dopamine (DA)

C) serotonin (5-HT)

D) acetylcholine (ACh)

Q2) The effects of the opiate drugs are MOST closely matched by _____.

A) acetylcholine

B) met-enkephalin

C) dopamine

D) histamine

Q3) The substance that Otto Loewi found to accelerate the heart was later identified as _____.

A) glutamate

B) acetylcholine

C) epinephrine

D) Vagusstoff

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Diverse drugs of abuse may act through a common neurotransmitter system that releases:

A) endorphin.

B) serotonin.

C) dopamine.

D) GABA.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a stimulant?

A) LSD

B) caffeine

C) cocaine

D) amphetamine

Q3) The blood-brain barrier is established by:

A) neurons and astrocytes.

B) neurons and smooth muscle cells.

C) endothelial cells and neurons.

D) endothelial cells and astrocytes.

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Why must certain chemicals be transported to neurons within the brain? How is this accomplished?

Q2) Explain how activation of the GABA receptor can cause sedation.

Q3) Identify the barriers that an injected drug must cross to reach the brain.

Q4) cocaine ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q5) How do drugs such as Prozac affect serotonin levels at brain synapses?

Q6) What are the stages in the wanting - and - liking theory (incentive - sensitization theory) of drug addiction?

Q7) What brain effects did Robinson see during amphetamine sensitization?

Q8) CB1 and CB2 ___

A)NMDA receptor

B)heroin antagonist

C)anandamide

D)liver enzymes

Q9) What are the mechanisms by which excessive glutamate release is thought to injure Page 19

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Which types of drug passes into the bloodstream from the intestines?

A) drugs that are weak acids

B) drugs that are hydrophilic

C) drugs that are inhaled

D) drugs that are weak bases

Q2) The drug that Sigmund Freud used to fight depression was _____.

A) alcohol

B) heroin

C) Prozac

D) cocaine

Q3) Which neurotoxin blocks glycine?

A) curare

B) rabies virus

C) magnesium

D) strychnine

Q4) Cannabis seems to act on receptors for the neurotransmitter _____.

A) psilocybin

B) serotonin

C) anandamide

D) glycine

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) The imaging technique that provides the greatest contrast between brain tissues of different densities is:

A) electroencephalography.

B) transcranial magnetic stimulation.

C) positron emission tomography.

D) magnetic resonance imaging.

Q2) The signal measured in a PET scan is generated by:

A) blood oxygen levels.

B) magnetic fields.

C) radioactive decay.

D) transmembrane ion flux.

Q3) Your brain is probably producing _____ waves as you read this sentence.

A) delta

B) alpha

C) theta

D) beta

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) MRI ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q2) beta rhythm ___

A)aroused state

B)relaxed state

C)drowsy state

D)deep sleep

Q3) MRS ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q4) electroencephalography ___

A)sum of graded potentials of cortical neurons

B)stimulus-linked brainwave

C)individual action potentials

D)SQUID

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Which is a method of enhancing conventional X - ray radiography by taking advantage of the fact that X - rays are not absorbed by air?

A) pneumoencephalography

B) computerized tomography

C) positron emission tomography

D) magnetic resonance imaging

Q2) The generators for the EEG are pyramidal neurons in layers _____ of the cerebral cortex.

A) I and II

B) III and IV

C) V and VI

D) I and VI.

Q3) Which is a major advantage of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

A) It provides the highest resolution of all the imaging techniques.

B) It can image the biochemical status of the brain.

C) It provides great clarity in distinguishing between different types of brain tissue and cerebrospinal fluid.

D) It can detect relative amounts of a given neural transmitter.

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Groups of intervening synapses between a sensory receptor and sensory cortex are known as:

A) sensory ganglia.

B) neural relays.

C) sensory switches.

D) relay ganglia.

Q2) The subjective experience that results from sensory processing is referred to as:

A) sensation.

B) perception.

C) introspection.

D) intellection.

Q3) Which of the following relays in the auditory system is the MOST peripheral (closest to the ear)?

A) the primary auditory cortex

B) the inferior colliculus

C) the medial geniculate

D) the cochlear nucleus

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) frontal eye fields ___

A)orientation of head

B)voluntary eye movements

C)pupil size

D)pattern perception

Q2) taste ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

Q3) How might synesthesia occur? (Hint: there is no definitive answer to this one.)

Q4) otolith organs ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Q5) Why doesn't complete destruction of the geniculostriate pathway in humans leave the person completely blind?

Q6) Compare stimulus frequency and intensity as used by the visual and auditory systems to create perceptions. Page 26

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) To communicate with the brain, the sensory systems use:

A) different codes depending on the type of receptors.

B) different codes depending on the target in the brain.

C) different codes depending on the reflexes and movements made in relation to the stimulation.

D) a common code to communicate, sending information to the brain with action potentials.

Q2) Voluntary eye movements are largely regulated by neural circuits centered in the _____.

A) pretectum

B) frontal eye fields

C) visual cortex

D) superior colliculus

Q3) Brodmann's area 41 is associated with which sense?

A) taste

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) audition

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) The basal ganglia receive neural inputs from two main sources. These sources are the:

A) cerebellum and thalamus.

B) neocortex and substantia nigra.

C) neocortex and cerebellum.

D) limbic cortex and thalamus.

Q2) Evidence suggests that the primary motor cortex is organized on the basis of:

A) intelligent design.

B) environmental experience.

C) specific movements.

D) movement goals.

Q3) Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons.

A) Renshaw

B) bipolar

C) mirror

D) copycat

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) anterior corticospinal tract ___

A)synapse directly on muscles

B)control of body midline muscles

C)control of facial muscles

D)control of limbs and digits

Q2) From medial to lateral locations in the cerebellar hemispheres, how do cerebellar neurons encode movements for different body regions?

Q3) What is meant by the term "movement lexicon"?

Q4) Keele and Ivry ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q5) Describe the feedback circuit that allows the cerebellum to correct movements.

Q6) Describe the homunculus as mapped by Penfield. What changes have been made subsequently?

Q7) Differentiate between the "direct" and "indirect" pathways in the basal ganglia.

Q8) Compare and contrast Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease.

Page 30

Q9) What conclusions can be drawn from Hess's research on electrical stimulation of the brain?

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Axons of the _____ motor pathway cross over to the opposite side of the spinal cord at the level of the pyramids of the brainstem.

A) corticobulbar

B) ventral corticospinal

C) lateral corticospinal

D) anterior spinothalamic

Q2) Which of the following appears to be a part of the role of the cerebellum?

A) planning movements

B) timing movements

C) stopping movements

D) controlling the force of movements

Q3) The planning of motor movements seems to be the primary responsibility of neural circuits in the _____.

A) premotor cortex

B) primary motor cortex

C) posterior cortex

D) prefrontal cortex

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Based upon his studies of myelin development in the cortex, Paul Flechsig suggested that myelin forms earliest in _____ cortical zones and latest in _____ cortical zones.

A) secondary; primary

B) tertiary; secondary

C) tertiary; primary

D) primary; tertiary

Q2) Which of the following is beyond the capacity of a decorticate rat?

A) regulating temperature

B) finding food and water in simple environments

C) showing normal sleep-wake cycles

D) hoarding food

Q3) Jerison has suggested that there exists a positive correlation between the number of cortical maps and:

A) an organism's ability to navigate new spatial environments.

B) an animal's capacity for voluntary movements.

C) the complexity of emotional perception.

D) the complexity of sensorimotor perception.

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) What are cortical blobs? What are cortical barrels?

Q2) Brodmann ___

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q3) ventral premotor cortex ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

Q4) Compare the behavioral capacities of high - and low - decerebrate animals.

Q5) Luria

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q6) Distinguish between specific and nonspecific cortical afferents.

Q7) What is meant by the binding problem? What is a proposed solution?

Q8) What evidence suggests that the basic neural circuitry for walking includes spinal cord reflexes? Page 34

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) The deepest layer of the cerebral cortex is given the Roman numeral _____.

A) I

B) III

C) IV

D) VI

Q2) "Blobs" in the cerebral cortex have a role in _____.

A) color perception

B) visual tracking

C) the location of visual objects

D) achromatic contrast processing

Q3) Comparing Felleman and van Essen's distributed hierarchical model to Luria's simple serial hierarchical model of cortical processing, Luria's model suggests:

A) areas at each level are interconnected with one another.

B) the pattern of forward and backward connections determines hierarchical position.

C) some connections skip levels.

D) connectivity in sensory cortex is only from primary to secondary to tertiary.

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Kimura and others, production and analysis of rapidly occurring sequences of stimuli is believed to be a(n):

A) specialized function of the right hemisphere.

B) ability equally distributed between both hemispheres.

C) specialized function of the left hemisphere.

D) ability relying primarily on subcortical structures.

Q2) In intact individuals, hemispheric differences in cognitive ability can be detected by measuring:

A) differences in processing efficiency.

B) self-reports of cognitive strategies.

C) galvanic skin response.

D) differences in processing efficiency, self-reports of cognitive strategies, and galvanic skin response.

Q3) If the right carotid artery is injected with an anesthetic drug, within a few seconds

A) the ipsilateral arm will exhibit flaccid paralysis

B) speech will probably be interrupted

C) speech will always be interrupted

D) the contralateral arm will exhibit flaccid paralysis

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Page 37

Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Your patient has a left temporal lobectomy as a result of an operation for cancer. On what IQ and other tests do you expect to see a deterioration in postoperative scores?

Q2) understanding backward speech ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q3) Norman Geschwind ___

A)planum temporale asymmetry

B)behavior of commissurotomy patients

C)brain stimulation of conscious patients

D)auditory system asymmetry

Q4) What is the basis for Robert Efron's skepticism on the usefulness of laterality research?

Q5) extends farther anteriorly ___

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

Q6) Why has it been so difficult for neuropsychologists to discover the functions of the right hemisphere?

Q7) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."

Page 38

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is an example of a double dissociation for two areas of the cortex?

A) Patient A can read but not write after an injury to one region, while patient B can write but not read after an injury to the other region.

B) Patient A can read but not write after an injury to one region, while patient B can read but not write after an injury to the other region.

C) Patient A can read but not write after an injury to one region, but he can neither read nor write after an injury to the other region.

D) Patient A can neither read nor write after injuries to both regions, while patient B can write but not read after injuries to both regions.

Q2) A modern version of the left - for - language theory of cortical organization was developed by _____.

A) Kinsbourne and Moscovitch

B) Lenneberg and Kimura

C) Webster and Thurber

D) Kolb and Whishaw

Answer Key

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) According to Waber, relative to late - maturing adolescents, early - maturing adolescents perform better on:

A) tests of verbal abilities than on tests of spatial abilities.

B) tests of spatial abilities than on tests of verbal abilities.

C) the Rey complex figure test.

D) all tests administered.

Q2) One theory on the origin of handedness suggests that _____ inhibits the development of the _____ hemisphere in males.

A) fetal testosterone; left

B) early experience; left

C) fetal testosterone; right

D) early brain damage; right

Q3) If Sugishita is correct, left - hemisphere injury affects:

A) kanji more than kana.

B) kana more than kanji.

C) both types of letters equally.

D) the system learned earliest in life.

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) What factors may account for the greater incidence of left - handedness in mentally disabled children?

Q2) Describe the laterality of nonhearing people.

Q3) At least five cognitive abilities show sex - related differences. Name four.

Q4) greater verbal fluency ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q5) How may hormonal effects during the fetal period contribute to the later development of male-female differences in cognitive performance?

Q6) Describe the proposed developmental progression of cerebral asymmetry from the embryonic state through adulthood.

Q7) verbal impairment following left - hemisphere lesions ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q8) What are some male-female differences in human brain asymmetries?

Q9) Identify three environmental theories of hand preference. Discuss one in detail.

41

Q10) Explain how Annett's theory of handedness predicts that the population consists of 12.5% left - handed people.

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) In general, which is true of women when compared with men?

A) more left-handedness

B) larger splenium of the corpus callosum

C) larger isthmus of the corpus callosum

D) larger absolute cross-sectional area of the corpus callosum

Q2) Which is true for right - handers?

A) The parietal operculum is larger in the left hemisphere.

B) The corpus callosum is larger in the cross-sectional area.

C) There is a larger blood volume in the left hemisphere.

D) The frontal lobe is wider in the left hemisphere

Q3) Which variables have been related to the size of the corpus callosum?

A) handedness and sex

B) IQ and foot size

C) height and head circumference

D) education level and culture

Q4) According to McBurney and colleagues, women outperform men at _____.

A) mathematical reasoning

B) spatial memory

C) mental rotation

D) spatial navigation

Page 42

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) A patient who reports no conscious awareness of a visual stimulus, and yet can accurately report its location, is likely exhibiting:

A) macular sparing.

B) anosognosia.

C) apperceptive agnosia.

D) blindsight.

Q2) Blindness of one entire binocular visual field is termed _____.

A) homonymous hemianopia

B) bitemporal hemianopia

C) quadratic anopia

D) monocular blindness

Q3) The primary visual cortex is associated with which of the following anatomical landmarks?

A) the lingual gyrus

B) the central sulcus

C) the calcarine sulcus

D) the occipital fissure

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43

Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe how the behavioral deficits particular to subjects V.K. and D.F. exemplify a double dissociation of visual system function.

Q2) monocular blindness ___

A)one optic nerve

B)medial visual cortex

C)one optic tract

D)optic chiasm

Q3) lingual gyrus ___

A)includes V2, VP

B)divides upper and lower halves of visual world

C)first cortical relay for visual input

D)contains V4

Q4) simultagnosia ___

A)inability to recognize faces

B)inability to recognize objects

C)inability to see more than one object at a time

D)inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors

Q5) What is a scotoma? What do such phenomena tell us about the organization of the visual system?

Q6) Distinguish between allocentric space and egocentric space.

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) The area of the visual cortex that receives the largest direct input from the lateral geniculate nucleus is _____.

A) V1

B) V2

C) V3

D) V4

Q2) The regions of cytochrome - rich areas in the occipital lobe are referred to as _____.

A) lamina

B) striations

C) blobs or stripes

D) layers

Q3) Individuals who lose their ability to see color because of brain damage have selective damage to area _____.

A) V2

B) V3

C) V4

D) V5

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ability to perform complex mental transformations such as object rotation, at least in males, varies with the:

A) organization of gray matter in the anterior parietal cortex.

B) organization of white matter in the posterior parietal cortex.

C) organization of gray matter in the posterior parietal cortex.

D) capacity of working memory.

Q2) A person who, after a parietal lobe stroke, reports being touched on the right arm even though the touch was to the left arm is exhibiting:

A) allesthesia.

B) amorphosynthesis.

C) simultaneous extinction.

D) contralateral neglect.

Q3) The first stage in recovery from contralateral neglect is termed _____.

A) extinction

B) reintegration

C) morphosynthesis

D) allesthesia

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) apraxia ___

A)areas PF and PG of the left hemisphere

B)area PG of the right hemisphere

C)area PE

D)contralateral areas 1, 2, and 3

Q2) Areas PE and PF ___

A)greatly expanded in the human brain

B)anterior zone of parietal lobe

C)secondary somatosensory cortex

D)ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe

Q3) What evidence exists that suggests that individual differences in spatial cognition are associated with differences in brain anatomy?

Q4) afferent paresis ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch

C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q5) What is the difference between astereognosis and simultaneous extinction?

Q6) Describe the two stages of recovery of contralateral neglect.

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The _____ is used to test for apraxia.

A) Kimura Box Test

B) two-point discrimination test

C) Seguin-Goddard Form Board test

D) Token Test

Answer Key

Q2) The ability to point to a touched area of the body without actually being able to feel the touch at a conscious level is called _____.

A) afferent paresis

B) blind touch

C) spooky

D) autopagnosia

Q3) The inability to recognize objects by touch is called _____.

A) afferent paresis

B) simultaneous extinction

C) blind touch

D) astereognosis

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) When performing a visual object recognition task, increased neural activity would be expected, particularly in the:

A) superior temporal gyrus.

B) middle temporal gyrus.

C) superior temporal sulcus.

D) inferior temporal gyrus.

Q2) Analyses of the Thatcher illusion suggest that when recognizing faces we pay particular attention to the:

A) upright configuration of the eyes and nose.

B) chin and hairline.

C) inverted configuration of the eyes and mouth.

D) upright configuration of the eyes and mouth.

Q3) Medial temporal lobe structures are BEST associated with:

A) visual attention.

B) long-term memory storage.

C) long-term memory formation.

D) pitch perception.

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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) insula ___

A)fearful states

B)visual input

C)social cognition

D)taste perception

Q2) What are three basic functions of the temporal lobe?

Q3) impaired pitch perception ___

A)hippocampus, both hemispheres

B)Brodmann's area 41, right hemisphere

C)Brodmann's area 42, left hemisphere

D)Brodmann's area 37, both hemispheres

Q4) Wechsler Memory Scale ___

A)verbal memory

B)language comprehension

C)nonverbal memory

D)auditory processing

Q5) Identify the five projection pathways of neuronal connections in the temporal lobe of the monkey.

Q6) Distinguish between spectral pitch and fundamental pitch, functionally and anatomically.

Page 50

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Difficulty in understanding words is a common symptom of damage to _____.

A) the hippocampus

B) areas 41 and 42

C) area 22 on the left side

D) the insula on the left side

Q2) The "temporal - lobe personality" is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT:

A) egocentricity.

B) pedantic speech.

C) perseveration in talking.

D) conscientiousness.

Q3) Projections from the temporal lobe to the _____ are thought to be primarily involved in movement control, short - term memory, and affect.

A) frontal lobe

B) amygdala

C) occipital lobe

D) hypothalamus

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tests measuring finger - tapping speed and grip strength BEST measure the function of the:

A) superior frontal gyrus.

B) premotor gyrus.

C) postcentral gyrus.

D) precentral gyrus.

Q2) Following damage to the left supplementary speech area and medial frontal cortex, subjects would have great problems:

A) producing grammatically correct speech.

B) speaking with normal prosody.

C) speaking spontaneously.

D) speaking when prompted.

Q3) Patients with damage to the prefrontal cortex are likely to:

A) be distracted by external cues.

B) have impaired declarative memory.

C) have difficulty sequencing finger movements.

D) depend on internal cues to guide behavior.

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52

Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) poor voluntary control of gaze ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q2) temporal memory ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q3) What are the effects of left or right unilateral frontal lesions on verbal fluency, design copying, and understanding the meaning of proverbs?

Q4) Discuss the relationship between the prefrontal cortex anatomy, performance on the gambling task, and addictive behaviors.

Q5) Describe the neural networks that support successful performance of Bechara and Damasio's gambling task.

Q6) Differentiate between the roles of premotor and supplementary motor cortices in the sequencing of motor movements.

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Damage to _____ is associated with altered sexual behavior.

A) areas 8 and 9

B) the dorsolateral prefrontal area

C) the orbital prefrontal area

D) area 44

Q2) The dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus projects to the region of the frontal lobe called the _____.

A) Broca's area

B) frontal eye field

C) prefrontal cortex

D) premotor cortex

Q3) Poor working memory as a result of frontal - lobe damage is usually because of damage in _____.

A) the orbital cortex

B) the frontal eye fields

C) left area 44

D) the dorsolateral cortex

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and

Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) If Downer had sectioned all commissures but left the optic chiasm intact:

A) he would have found exactly the same results as if the optic chiasm had also been sectioned.

B) the animal would have appeared wild regardless of which side the stimulus was presented on.

C) the animal would have appeared tame regardless of which side the stimulus was presented on.

D) the animal would have reacted with aggression but not appeared wild.

Q2) The surgical severing of interhemispheric fiber pathways is called:

A) hemispherectomy.

B) commissurotomy.

C) leukotomy.

D) colostomy.

Q3) Hub disconnection provides a possible explanation for severe chronic deficits exhibited by which patient population?

A) contralateral neglect

B) Huntington's disease

C) epilepsy

D) traumatic brain injury

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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization?

Q2) What is the proposed relationship between disconnection syndromes and the phenomenon of contralateral neglect?

Q3) Speculate in an informed manner as to why the corpus callosum evolved. (Not all mammals have one, by the way-marsupials do not have a corpus callosum.)

Q4) apraxia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q5) What is the "zipper hypothesis"?

Q6) Compare the verbal naming responses of commissurotomy patients with visual stimuli flashed to the left - and right - visual fields.

Q7) Mishkin ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q8) Identify the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex. Page 56

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Downer's experiment with monkeys involved lesions to the _____.

A) amygdala

B) visual cortex

C) hippocampal commissure

D) prefrontal cortex

Q2) Which of the following fiber pathways is considered a commissural pathway?

A) corpus callosum

B) amygdalar commissure

C) fornix

D) internal capsule

Q3) Your patient can name odors presented to the left nostril but not to the right. You suspect damage to the _____.

A) corpus callosum

B) hippocampal commissure

C) anterior commissure

D) amygdalar commissure

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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Your memory of how to ride a bicycle is an example of:

A) retrograde memory.

B) explicit memory.

C) implicit memory.

D) episodic memory.

Q2) The efferents from the hippocampus that appear to be involved in temporal lobe amnesia are to be found in the:

A) fimbria fornix.

B) hippocampal-amygdala bundle.

C) uncinate fasciculus.

D) corpus callosum.

Q3) The Gollin Incomplete - Figures Test is used to assess:

A) motor skills, a category of implicit memory.

B) priming, a category of explicit memory.

C) priming, a category of implicit memory.

D) avoidance, a category of emotional memory.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) perirhinal cortex ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q2) Within the proposed anatomical model for explicit memory, different components may have different roles. Comment on the possible roles in explicit memory for each of the following: the amygdala, hippocampus, and perirhinal cortex.

Q3) Ammon's horn ___

A)location of granule cells

B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway

C)location of pyramidal cells

D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway

Q4) recurring nonsense syllables ___

A) if it is more disrupted by left hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more disrupted by right hemisphere lesions

C) if there is no discernible difference between left and right hemisphere lesions on performance of the task.

Q5) Distinguish between episodic and semantic memory, and give an example of each.

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Both Ammon's horn and the dentate gyrus are components of which brain structure that is crucial to learning and memory?

A) the amygdala

B) the hypothalamus

C) the cerebellum

D) the hippocampus

Q2) According to Tulving, autonoetic awareness-which is compromised with some types of frontal lobe damage-is best described as consciousness of:

A) one's own spatial location.

B) the functioning of one's sympathetic nervous system.

C) oneself as a continuous entity through time.

D) each of the distinct sensory experiences that are part of somatosensation.

Q3) According to Petri and Mishkin, the _____ is NOT part of the proposed implicit memory system.

A) ventral thalamus

B) premotor cortex

C) hippocampus

D) basal ganglia

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) The most appropriate diagnosis for a 10 - year - old child who continually makes mistakes in reading aloud, such that semantically related words are substituted for the printed word (e.g., "puppy" is read as "dog" and "woman" is read as "mother"), would be:

A) attentional dyslexia.

B) word aphasia.

C) phonological dyslexia.

D) deep dyslexia.

Q2) Results from electrical stimulation and imaging studies of conscious patients suggest that:

A) localizationist theories that posit strict separation of speech comprehension and production are incorrect.

B) localizationist theories that posit strict separation of speech comprehension and production are largely correct.

C) speech areas occupy a smaller proportion of cortical areas than originally thought on the basis of lesion studies.

D) there is surprisingly little variation in the organization of cortical language areas among subjects.

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) anarthria ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q2) passive viewing of words ___

A)left inferofrontal cortex

B)left inferotemporal cortex

C)Broca's area

D)left visual cortex

Q3) Identify three examples of phonemes and three examples of morphemes in this sentence.

Q4) How do PET scan studies on word generation differ from the Wernicke-Geschwind model of language production?

Q5) With regards to the dual language model, compare and contrast the roles of the dorsal and ventral language pathways

Q6) Describe how the evolution of the vocal tract has resulted in a much greater ability on the part of humans, compared with apes, to produce speech sounds.

Q7) What is "Yerkish"? Is it really a language? If so, why? If not, why not?

Page 63

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) The conclusion that the same brain areas are involved in both speech and signing is based primarily on:

A) observations that signers are usually right-handed too.

B) fMRI data on signing and speech.

C) observations that aphasia in signers usually involves the right hemisphere.

D) EEG data of brain activity.

Q2) The ability to _____ is least important for language formation.

A) categorize

B) form sounds

C) sequence behaviors

D) label categories

Q3) Syntax is more generally referred to as _____.

A) word flow

B) grammar

C) prosody

D) articulation

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) The first major theory in the neurology of emotions was that of:

A) Klüver and Bucy.

B) Hess.

C) Papez.

D) Olds.

Q2) Damage to Broca's area in the right hemisphere has been proposed by Ross to produce:

A) sensory aprosodia.

B) global aprosodia.

C) conduction aprosodia.

D) motor aprosodia.

Q3) A normal subject would show a left - ear advantage when listening to:

A) the sounds of a crying baby.

B) a narrated fairy tale.

C) Morse code.

D) the sounds of a crying baby, a narrated fairy tale, and Morse code.

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65

Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) If you were a neuropsychologist studying emotion in rats, what behaviors or responses would you measure? (Or answer the same question using monkeys, humans, or any other plausible species.)

Q2) Support or attack the following statement: The emotional complexity of mammals is due to evolutionary changes in the frontal lobes.

Q3) Goltz ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q4) Identify five (or more) characteristics of the temporal - lobe personality.

Q5) Damasio ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D) behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q6) Discuss the evidence for and against the idea that emotion enhances the ability to think rationally or logically rather than impairs it.

Q7) What are the major symptoms of the Klüver-Bucy syndrome?

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Ross, which type of aprosodia is marked by deficits in interpreting the emotional components of language?

A) sensory

B) conduction

C) mixed transcortical

D) anomic

Q2) With respect to cognitive control of emotions either up or down regulation, which of the following brain regions have been implicated?

A) the prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate

B) the hypothalamus and amygdala

C) the medial thalamus and anterior cingulate

D) the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex

Answer Key

Q3) Hypergraphia, hypermoralism, and sense of personal destiny are all characteristics of _____.

A) frontal lobe lesions

B) the "temporal lobe" personality

C) the catastrophic reaction of left-hemisphere damage

D) paranoid schizophrenia

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Page 67

Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) When the brain activity of London taxi drivers was recorded using PET while they described driving specific routes, a selective activation was observed in the:

A) right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

B) left and right hippocampi.

C) left hippocampus.

D) right hippocampus.

Q2) Which of the following characteristics is true of head - direction cells but not of place cells?

A) Head-direction cells cease their activity when the animal ceases moving.

B) Head-direction cells continue to be active even when the animal is restrained.

C) The activity of head-direction cells is sensitive to changes in environmental cues.

D) The activity of head-direction cells is insensitive to changes in environmental cues.

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) Distinguish between place cells and head - direction cells.

Q2) What is the relationship between hippocampal size and food storing in birds?

Q3) Why is the Morris water maze so useful in studying spatial behavior?

Q4) What is landmark agnosia?

Q5) How do Turner's syndrome individuals perform on spatial tasks (on average)? What may account for their performance?

Answer Key

Q6) landmark agnosia ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q7) Discuss the role of temporal lobe structures in spatial behavior.

Q8) Explain how head - direction, place, and grid cells might work together as a rat forages for food in the environment near its burrow.

Q9) Describe how you could use the Morris water task to test both cue and place responses in rats.

Q11) What are the main symptoms of Bálint's syndrome? Page 69

Q10) Discuss the role of the parietal lobe in spatial discriminations.

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) You see a patient in clinic who exhibits an inability to represent the location of objects with respect to herself. This deficit would be termed:

A) heading disorientation.

B) landmark agnosia.

C) spatial amnesia.

D) egocentric disorientation.

Q2) The studies conducted on food caching in birds demonstrates that:

A) birds with frontal lobe lesions show no difficulty in finding the seeds that they have cached.

B) African and Asian birds are more likely to use dead reckoning to find their cache sites.

C) birds who cache seeds have a larger hippocampus.

D) testosterone is crucial to producing birdsong and also to remembering cache sites.

Q3) Moving toward a cue or object (route following) is also called:

A) head direction.

B) cue learning.

C) GPS navigation.

D) topographic learning.

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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Posner and Raichle suggest that _____ provides the "glue" that integrates features into a unitary object.

A) memory

B) the amygdala

C) attention

D) consciousness

Q2) Stimuli that "pop out" in a visual array illustrate the concept of:

A) top-down processing.

B) attention-dependent processing.

C) bottom-up processing.

D) stereotopographic insolence.

Q3) Work by Corbetta and colleagues suggests that the _____ is activated during attention shift studies, regardless of which visual field contains the stimulus.

A) left parietal cortex

B) left hippocampus

C) right parietal cortex

D) cortical area V4

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) dual executive systems ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q2) Distinguish between frontal lobe neglect and parietal lobe neglect.

Q3) What evidence did Jeannerod and colleagues find regarding the dissociation between behavior and awareness?

Q4) Why does finding a target with an extra feature take less time than finding one that lacks a common feature?

Q5) feature maps ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q6) Define "bottom - up" processing and "top - down" processing. Give an example of each.

Q7) What is the evidence that the response characteristics of neurons in the monkey brain change with task demands?

73

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) When subjects fail to detect a second visual target if it is presented within half a second of the first one, this is called _____.

A) inattentional blindness

B) attentional blink

C) change blindness

D) retrograde amnesia

Q2) The _____ works with the executive attentional network to keep unattended stimuli outside of conscious awareness.

A) amygdala

B) superior temporal gyrus

C) posterior parietal cortex

D) fusiform face area

Q3) According to an imaging study conducted by Liston and colleagues, stress has what effect on brain regions subserving attentional performance?

A) decreased activation in DLPFC

B) increased activation in posterior parietal cortex

C) increased activation in Broca's area

D) decreased cerebellar activity

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Kolb and colleagues demonstrated that tactile stimulation following lesions of the frontal cortex resulted in which of the following?

A) increased synaptogenesis

B) decreased synaptogenesis

C) increased synaptic pruning

D) decreased synaptic pruning

Q2) The number of synapses in the human cerebral cortex is approximately:

A) 10⁸.

B) 10¹⁰.

C) 10¹².

D) 10¹⁴.

Q3) Exposure to an enriched environment increases brain size. This size increase is related to each of these EXCEPT:

A) the density of glial cells.

B) the density of dendritic spines.

C) the size of synapses.

D) decreases in the length of pyramidal-cell dendrites.

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Rasmussen and Milner ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Q2) What are the effects on visual cortical neurons of monocular deprivation during the early life of kittens?

Q3) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with ADHD?

Q4) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

Q5) What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

Q6) What are the three critical age divisions related to the effects of brain lesions on cognitive abilities, and how do they differ?

Q7) What is one proposal about why some kinds of visuospatial orientation are impaired following early left - hemisphere injury?

Q8) How is the adolescent brain different from that of a child and that of an adult?

Q9) Why is cell death such an important part of the development of the brain?

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Why do the authors think that a fifth stage of cognitive development not identified by Piaget occurs in later adolescence?

A) the emergence of increased sexual activity at that time

B) the importance of modern forms of education

C) the presence of a brain-growth spurt at that time

D) the increased ability to learn a foreign language at that time

Q2) Which is the last to occur in the development of the brain?

A) cell maturation

B) cell migration

C) synaptogenesis

D) myelogenesis

Q3) Which is NOT a potential way in which the brain's plasticity might support recovery after early injury?

A) generating neurons and glia to replace some lost neurons

B) changing the organization of intact circuits in the brain

C) migrating existing neurons to injured regions of the cortex

D) generating new neural circuits

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) The ACID profile is characteristic of which learning disorder?

A) hyperactive-child syndrome

B) cerebral palsy

C) fragile-X syndrome

D) dyslexia

Q2) Females with fragile - X syndrome have _____ severe symptoms than males because they have _____ X chromosome(s).

A) less; one

B) less; two

C) more; one

D) more; two

Q3) CSF is made by the:

A) choroid plexus.

B) foramina of Magendie.

C) fourth ventricle.

D) ventral hypothalamus.

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) dyslexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q2) What is the ACID profile? What does it show regarding learning - disabled children?

Q3) Little ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q4) Why do stimulants such as amphetamines sometimes improve the performance of cognitive skills in learning - disabled children?

Q5) savant ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q6) Distinguish between cerebral palsy and hydrocephalus.

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) _____ is the most common behavioral disturbance in children; it is characterized in part by impulsive behavior.

A) Hyperactivity

B) Autism

C) Fetal alcohol syndrome

D) Cerebral palsy

Q2) Research indicates children with autism spectrum disorder have some associated neuroanatomical changes that can be mapped to specific behavioral deficits. Children who exhibit impaired implicit memory may have an abnormal:

A) temporal lobe.

B) hippocampus.

C) cerebellum.

D) prefrontal cortex.

Q3) _____ could account for why people with autism report that the sound of traffic is frighteningly loud and noxious.

A) Habituation failure

B) Explicit memory deficits

C) Hyperlexia

D) Emotional reactivity

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of

the Adult Brain

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Q1) In the amnesic H.M., his basic IQ scores _____ with long - term follow - up exams, and his amnesia _____.

A) remained constant; also remained constant

B) improved; also improved

C) improved; remained unchanged

D) deteriorated; remained unchanged

Q2) Which of the following factors increase(s) cell survival of hippocampal granule neurons?

A) aging

B) stress

C) adrenal steroids

D) Prozac

Q3) Based on the predictions from the work of Jacobs et al., which of the following occupations would you NOT expect to correlate with an increase in the size of the associated brain region?

A) typist; finger representation

B) tap dancer; foot representation

C) clarinet player; musical scale representation

D) singer; language representation

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) Nudo et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q2) Jacobs et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q3) Your patient is a well - educated woman of forty - five. She experienced a lefthemisphere stroke three weeks ago that has caused moderate aphasia. What is your counsel for your patient and her family?

Q4) Why did a brain - injured motorcycle racer show drastic improvement in both attitude and recovery after he was given a large tricycle on which to ride around?

Q5) What is the relationship between age at time of brain injury and recovery? What is disheartening about Teuber's analysis of this relationship?

Q6) What is LTP?

Page 82

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) The type of therapeutic intervention that is directed toward improving a patient's daily difficulty in finding their way home would be?

A) cognitive rehabilitation

B) behavioral remediation

C) movement therapy

D) social interaction

Q2) _____ is a progressive degenerative disease that is found in individuals with a history of multiple concussions and other closed - head injuries that is characterized by neurofibrillary tangles, plaques, and cerebral atrophy and expanded ventricles due to cell loss.

A) Caenorhabditis elegans

B) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy

C) Focal hand dystonia

D) Kindling

Q3) Which factor decreases cell proliferation in hippocampal granule cells?

A) dentate gyrus lesions

B) Prozac

C) adrenalectomy

D) aging

83

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) What is a general term for about 45 percent of brain tumors that result from glial cells and infiltrate the brain substance?

A) meningioma

B) metastatic tumor

C) automatism

D) glioma

Q2) The corpus callosum is particularly vulnerable to damage following:

A) migraine stroke.

B) open-head trauma.

C) closed-head trauma.

D) embolism

Q3) Multiple sclerosis has its MOST devastating effects on:

A) cholinergic synapses.

B) myelin.

C) immature neurons.

D) the substantia nigra.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) What is the difference, in terms of both causes and symptoms, between paraplegia and Brown - Séquard syndrome?

Q2) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

Q3) Brown - Séquard syndrome ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q4) How much time can pass after a vascular emergency before supportive therapies are no longer effective? Why do you think time is of the essence in these cases?

Q5) How is the length of posttraumatic amnesia used to measure the severity of brain injury? What method might be used if the patient remained unconscious?

Q6) Describe multiple sclerosis in terms of symptoms, course of the disease, and causes (if known).

Q7) What is myasthenia gravis? What causes it, and what can be done about it?

Q8) What does the term "contrecoup" mean?

Q9) Identify the types of secondary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) An infarct is _____.

A) a ballooning blood vessel

B) a region of dead tissue

C) a blood clot that blocks a major blood vessel

D) a blood clot that obstructs circulation

Q2) A(n) _____ is a massive bleeding into the substance of the brain that is most often caused by hypertension.

A) migraine stroke

B) angioma

C) cerebral hemorrhage

D) aneurysm

Q3) Identify the sleep disorder that is characterized by various unpleasant sensations in the legs, including pain, crawling, tingling, and pulling.

A) central sleep apnea

B) Willis-Ekbom disease

C) cataplexy

D) sleep paralysis

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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) On a variety of grounds, it is suspected that the memory loss that marks the earlier stages of Alzheimer's disease is associated with degenerative changes in the:

A) entorhinal cortex.

B) frontal lobes.

C) pyramidal cells of the neocortex.

D) substantia nigra.

Q2) If you were giving a series of neuropsychological tests to a person suffering from Alzheimer's disease, on which of the following would you expect to see particularly severe effects?

A) object assembly

B) digit span

C) backward digits

D) digit symbol

Answer Key

Q3) Prozac acts rather specifically on the _____ neurotransmitter system.

A) serotonin

B) dopamine

C) norepinephrine

D) glutamate

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) autosomal dominant allele ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q2) amyloid plaques ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q3) festination ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q4) Morrison ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Which region shows a decrease in blood flow and metabolism in depressed patients?

A) the amygdala

B) the medial thalamus

C) the ventromedial prefrontal area

D) the orbital prefrontal area

Q2) Neuritic plaques are one of the brain entities found in _____ disease.

A) Alzheimer's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Wilson's disease

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q3) Post and Weiss hypothesized that in bipolar patients, mood - disorder episodes are initially _____.

A) spontaneous and unrelated to external events

B) precipitated by psychosocial stressors

C) very rapid, cycling daily

D) not effectively treated by medication

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Page 89

Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) Which is NOT a goal of assessment in clinical neuropsychology?

A) diagnosing the presence or absence of brain damage

B) facilitating patient care

C) identifying unusual brain organization

D) classifying disorders.

Q2) Which of the following is a computerized neuropsychological test battery?

A) Boston Process

B) Halstead-Reitan

C) CANTAB

D) Luria-Nebraska

Q3) The development of neuropsychological test batteries was reinvigorated with the advent of:

A) managed care.

B) cognitive neuroscience.

C) the Rey Complex-Figure Test.

D) the WAIS-III.

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) conceptual functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q2) motor functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q3) academic skills ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q4) Identify four of the tests for memory functions in the Boston Process Approach.

Q5) Identify some factors that can make interpretation of neuropsychological tests difficult.

Q6) Why is neuropsychological testing particularly useful in cases of closed - head injuries?

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) Warrington and her colleagues found that lesions of the _____ hemisphere depress verbal IQs.

A) left

B) right

Q2) The MOST sensitive measure of malingering is the _____.

A) Forced Choice Digit Memory Test

B) Wechsler Memory Scale III

C) Stroop Test

D) Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q3) The FSIQ has a mean of _____ and a standard deviation of _____.

A) 100; 5

B) 110; 15

C) 100; 20

D) 100; 15

Q4) Which is NOT part of the Boston Process Approach?

A) the Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

B) the Consonant trigrams test

C) the Proteus Maze Test

D) the Luria-Nebraska Battery

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