Biological Psychology Test Questions - 2642 Verified Questions

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Biological Psychology

Test Questions

Course Introduction

Biological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between biological processes and behavior, examining how the brain, nervous system, hormones, and genetics influence cognition, emotions, and actions. The course covers foundational topics such as neural communication, sensory and motor systems, brain structure and function, and the biological bases of psychological disorders. Through an integration of neuroscience principles and psychological theories, students gain insight into how physiological mechanisms underpin mental processes and contribute to individual differences in behavior.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Behavioral Neuroscience An Introduction to Biological Psychology 4th Edition by Laura

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16 Chapters

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Chapter 1: What Is Behavioral Neuroscience?

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ethical standard of doing no harm in medical work originated with the writings of A) Galen.

B) Hippocrates.

C) Descartes.

D) the U.S. Common Rule standards for protecting research participants.

Answer: B

Q2) Although phrenology is mostly wrong, what did phrenologists get right about the nervous system?

A) The ventricles play a major role in the transmission of messages in the brain.

B) Sensation and movement have separate pathways.

C) Neurons communicate using electrical signals.

D) Some functions can be localized in the brain.

Answer: D

Q3) Electroencephalograms (EEGs) were first developed and used by Raymond Damadian in Germany in 1924.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What types of tissue protect the nerve fibers of the peripheral nervous system?

A) pia mater, arachnoid layer, and dura mater

B) pia mater only

C) connective tissue

D) arachnoid layer and dura mater only

Answer: C

Q2) The thalamus and hypothalamus are the central structures in the limbic system.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) The thalamus receives information from all sensory systems except A) olfaction.

B) taste.

C) touch.

D) temperature.

Answer: A

Q4) _____ sections are parallel to the midline, ______ sections divide the brain from front to back, and ______ sections divide the brain from top to bottom.

Answer: Saggital, coronal, horizontal

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Chapter 3: Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions of the

Cells of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Myelinated axons have large numbers of ion channels

A) along the entire length.

B) at the axon hillock and nodes of Ranvier.

C) only at the axon terminals.

D) only at the axon hillock.

Answer: B

Q2) In vertebrates, unipolar cells are common in the

A) cerebral cortex.

B) cerebellum.

C) sensory systems.

D) motor systems.

Answer: C

Q3) The primary function of the neurofilaments is

A) providing structural support for the neuron.

B) the transport of organelles to the end of the axon.

C) the transport of organelles back to the cell body.

D) increasing the permeability of the neuron's cellular membrane.

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Psychopharmacology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Parkinson's disease typically results from degeneration of brain systems using the neurochemical

A) dopamine.

B) norepinephrine.

C) epinephrine.

D) serotonin.

Q2) Glutamate can be toxic to neurons because

A) NMDA receptors allow calcium into a cell, and excess calcium can stimulate harmful levels of enzyme activity.

B) NMDA receptors block the movement of calcium into a cell, preventing the release of other neurochemicals.

C) it blocks receptors for other types of neurochemicals, preventing effective communication between cells.

D) its breakdown in the synaptic gap produces harmful free radicals.

Q3) Which of the following neuropeptides are released by the pituitary gland?

A) Substance P

B) Endorphins

C) Oxytocin

D) Cholecystokinin (CCK)

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Chapter 5: Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Brain weight begins to decline significantly in humans past the age of _________ years.

A) 20

B) 45

C) 65

D) 80

Q2) Completion of myelination in the CNS is one possible reason that A) does not have observable behavioral effects, as the process is completed before birth in humans.

B) might account for the ability of children to learn to read and write.

C) coincides with the onset of puberty and children's ability to think in abstract terms. D) might account for superior decision making in adults compared to teens.

Q3) At the peak of neurogenesis in humans, about how many new neural cells are produced per minute?

A) 10,000

B) 75,000

C) 250,000

D) 500,000

Q4) .Describe the development of the neural tube into bulges or vesicles.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Vision

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Sample Questions

Q1) Blood vessels and axons forming the optic nerve enter and exit the eye at the A) optic disk.

B) macula.

C) fovea.

D) temporal retina.

Q2) Which of the following structures is actually a clear extension of the sclera?

A) the fovea

B) the macula

C) the lens

D) the cornea

Q3) The cornea obtains nutrients from

A) its own blood supply.

B) the aqueous humor.

C) the vitreous humor.

D) the blood supply of the iris.

Q4) A sweater looks blue because it has properties that

A) reflect short wavelengths while absorbing longer wavelengths.

B) reflect long wavelengths while absorbing shorter wavelengths.

C) refract short wavelengths while absorbing longer wavelengths.

D) refract long wavelengths while absorbing shorter wavelengths.

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Chapter 7: Nonvisual Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Benjamin is studying for a quiz on the sense of smell and was surprised to read in his book that receptor cells responsible for smell differ from most other neural cells in that they

A) die and are replaced frequently.

B) have no soma.

C) have no dendrites.

D) use gaseous neurotransmitters exclusively.

Q2) Fiber pathways carrying information about touch cross the midline in the A) spinal cord.

B) medulla.

C) midbrain.

D) forebrain.

Q3) Michelle is conducting a research study that is attempting to reduce the sensation of pain in rats by stimulating their A) substantia gelatinosa.

B) intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus.

C) periaqueductal gray (PAG).

D) dorsal column nuclei.

Q4) Describe the types of mechanoreceptors that provide information about touch.

Q5) Discuss some variations in sensitivity to smell that have been shown in humans.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mellie is studying for a quiz and writes in her notes that a Z line is

A) a segment of myofibril.

B) a measurement used to determine muscle mass.

C) the boundary of a sarcomere.

D) a reflex pathway in the nervous system.

Q2) Philip was bitten by a black widow spider. It is possible that if exposed to enough, the venom will

A) cause paralysis by preventing GABA release.

B) cause paralysis by blocking postsynaptic receptors.

C) interfere with glutamate synthesis.

D) produce convulsions by overstimulating ACh release.

Q3) A single motor unit usually contains a motor neuron and A) one muscle fiber.

B) both fast- and slow-twitch fibers.

C) either fast-twitch or slow-twitch fibers but not a mixture of the two types.

D) a muscle spindle.

Q4) Recently there was a terrorist attack and sarin gas was released into a crowd. Given your knowledge of how sarin affects the nervous system, why was this such a horrific attack?

Q5) Describe the three types of muscles in the human body.

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Chapter 9: Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward

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Sample Questions

Q1) Similar to ICSS, electrode implants have also been used with human participants. When the electrode was in the septal area, participants reported

A) pleasurable sexual feelings.

B) pleasurable feelings as if they were high on drugs.

C) feelings of extreme happiness.

D) feelings of sleepiness.

Q2) ________ involves a cyclical pattern of binge eating followed by purging through compensatory methods, such as inducing vomiting or the use of laxatives.

A) Anorexia nervosa

B) Binge-eating disorder

C) Orthorexia nervosa

D) Bulimia nervosa

Q3) Although it may not have been the initial reason she became anorexic, describe two changes in the nervous system that LeeAnne might experience as a result of being anorexic.

Q4) Samuel works outside. Last summer, he experienced a heat stroke. What occurred and how is this different from a fever?

Q5) Why does hyponatremia occur, and what are its consequences?

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Chapter 10: Sexual Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Both males and females release the hormones LH and FSH, but these hormones impact fertility only in females.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Many women with Turner syndrome experience

A) unusually good verbal abilities.

B) deficits in verbal abilities.

C) unusually good spatial relations.

D) deficits in the processing of spatial relations.

Q3) Kimberly, a genetics counselor, was working with a young couple whose unborn child has been diagnosed with a sex chromosome abnormality. Kimberly is likely to inform the couple that their child

A) has a significant risk of a mental disorder.

B) will experience severe physical disability.

C) is very likely to be mentally retarded.

D) may have fertility problems but is unlikely to have other serious mental or physical problems.

Q4) Discuss how the internal sexual organs develop differently from the gonads.

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Chapter 11: Sleep and Waking

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Sample Questions

Q1) During sleep, Gilberto is most likely to experience muscle paralysis during A) stage 1 NREM sleep.

B) stage 2 NREM sleep.

C) stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep.

D) REM sleep.

Q2) Which of the following theorists believed that dreams were an evolutionary advance that allowed animals to process information during REM instead of while awake?

A) Calvin Hall

B) Hobson and McCarley

C) Crick and Mitchison

D) Winson

Q3) A sleep-wake disorder characterized by frequent interruption of sleep or early waking is known as

A) onset insomnia.

B) maintenance insomnia.

C) SIDS.

D) REM behavior disorder.

Q4) Explain the role of a zeitgeber and give some examples including the most potent for humans.

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Chapter 12: Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Spatial learning shares many characteristics with LTP. Explain the relationship between LTP and spatial learning.

Q2) A puff of air to the eye of a rabbit is the _______ in the classical conditioning of the nictitating membrane.

A) unconditioned stimulus

B) conditioned stimulus

C) unconditioned response

D) conditioned response

Q3) Samantha's grandfather has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Samantha knows that Parkinson's disease affects the basal ganglia, so she is able to tell her grandfather that he is likely to experience

A) little if any memory impairment.

B) problems with procedural memories but not declarative memories.

C) problems with declarative memories but not procedural memories.

D) problems with both declarative and procedural memories.

Q4) Explain the difference between associative and non-associative types of learning and give an example of each.

Q5) Distinguish between declarative and nondeclarative memory.

Q6) What is a Hebb (or Hebbian) synapse, and how is this concept related to LTP?

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Cognition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The language model by Dronkers, Pinker, and Damasio proposes

A) slight changes in the Wernicke-Geschwind model.

B) a one-way pathway between Broca's and Wernicke's areas.

C) implementation, mediational, and conceptual levels of processing.

D) a role for Broca's area in the management of semantic knowledge.

Q2) Ryan's school recently tested his IQ as part of an evaluation for a possible learning disability, and discovered that he had an IQ of 95. How should the school describe this result to Ryan's parents?

A) Ryan has a mild intellectual disability.

B) Ryan is gifted.

C) Ryan is average.

D) Ryan's score is unlikely to be valid.

Q3) An aphasia is best defined as a

A) total loss of the ability to produce language.

B) total or partial loss of the ability to produce or comprehend language.

C) partial loss of the ability to comprehend language.

D) total or partial loss of the ability to read or write.

Q4) Lateralization and connectivity of the hemispheres of the human brain are believed to be affected by a number of factors. Which factors impact development of lateralization?

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Emotion, Aggression, and Stress

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients with frontal lobe damage

A) respond to most stimuli with normal emotional responses.

B) are unable to describe emotional images they have seen in words, but respond to them with typical emotional behaviors.

C) do not show typical emotional responses to emotional images, although they are able to describe them in words.

D) can neither describe emotional images in words, nor do they show typical emotional responses.

Q2) Which of the following behaviors on the part of mother rats lead to an increased resistance to stress later in life in the pups?

A) increased licking and grooming of the pups by the mothers

B) more access to nursing time for the pups

C) nudging the rat pups to play with their siblings

D) providing more solid food at an earlier age

Q3) Human twin studies suggest that aggressiveness is

A) heritable, and impulsive aggression is particularly so.

B) heritable, and premeditated aggression is particularly so.

C) almost entirely the result of learning.

D) heritable in males but not in females.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The aura associated with migraine headaches

A) occurs in all patients who experience migraines.

B) usually takes the form of a visual distortion.

C) consists of a vague premonition that a headache is about to occur.

D) can produce muscular contractions.

Q2) The herpes simplex virus responsible for cold sores and genital herpes can produce a type of secondary encephalitis.

A)True

B)False

Q3) While TIAs often do not have long-term effects, they are

A) rarely predictive of later strokes.

B) strong predictors of later strokes.

C) predictive of further TIAs but not full strokes.

D) negatively correlated with the occurrence of later strokes.

Q4) Summarize the symptoms and treatment of HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND).

Q5) Partial seizures are frequently accompanied by an aura, but generalized seizures typically occur without an aura.

A)True

B)False

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Psychopathology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Schizophrenia is far more likely to occur in people who are over 25 years of age.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If your identical twin has schizophrenia, what does that mean for you?

A) If you inherited the gene for schizophrenia, you will be diagnosed with schizophrenia too.

B) Your chances of being diagnosed with schizophrenia are not increased as long as you were not raised by the same parents.

C) Your chances of being diagnosed with schizophrenia are the same as the rest of the population-about 1 percent.

D) You have about a 50 percent chance of also being diagnosed with schizophrenia.

Q3) Autism spectrum disorder may be associated with structural abnormalities in the A) basal ganglia, raphe nucleus, and hippocampus.

B) cerebellum, amygdala, and hippocampus.

C) orbitofrontal cortex, corpus callosum, and cingulate cortex.

D) locus coeruleus, red nucleus and hippocampus.

Q4) Lala has been diagnosed with MDD. What treatments options are available to her?

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