
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Biological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between biological processes and behavior, examining how the brain and nervous system influence actions, emotions, and thoughts. The course covers fundamental topics such as neural communication, brain structure and function, sensory systems, and the biological basis of mental health and neurological disorders. Students will gain an understanding of how genetics, neurotransmitters, hormones, and the environment interact to shape human behavior, cognition, and emotion, as well as current research methods and applications in this dynamic field.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition by Bryan Kolb
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1844 Verified Questions
1844 Flashcards
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Q1) What is materialism and how has it influenced the study of neuroscience?
Answer: no answer
Q2) What are memes and how do they influence our evolution?
Answer: no answer
Q3) Define common ancestor and how this applies to Darwin's theory of evolution.
Answer: A common ancestor refers to a hypothetical organism from which two or more different species are believed to have evolved. In the context of Darwin's theory of evolution, the concept of a common ancestor is central to the idea that all living organisms are related and share a common ancestry. Darwin proposed that over long periods of time, species have evolved from common ancestors through a process of descent with modification, driven by natural selection. This means that different species share common traits and characteristics because they inherited them from a common ancestor, and as they adapted to different environments, they evolved into distinct species. The concept of a common ancestor provides a framework for understanding the interconnectedness of all life on Earth and the diversity of species that have emerged through the process of evolution.
Q4) What is epigenetics and why is it an important topic to study?
Answer: no answer
Page 3
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Q1) The first humanlike brain evolved:
A) 700 million years ago.
B) 250 million years ago.
C) 6 million years ago.
D) 100,000 to 200,000 years ago.
Answer: C
Q2) The first artistic relics were made by modern humans approximately:
A) 100,000 years ago.
B) 55,000 years ago.
C) 30,000 years ago.
D) 10,000 years ago.
Answer: C
Q3) Homo sapiens coexisted with:
A) Homo erectus.
B) Homo habilis.
C) Neanderthals.
D) Australopithecus.
Answer: C
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Q1) Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Answer: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two branches of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. When activated, it increases heart rate, dilates the airways, and redirects blood flow to the muscles, preparing the body for physical activity. This response is triggered in times of stress or danger.
On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "rest and digest" response. When activated, it slows down heart rate, constricts the airways, and stimulates digestion. This response helps the body to relax and recover after a stressful situation.
In summary, the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action and stress, while the parasympathetic nervous system promotes relaxation and recovery. These two systems work in balance to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Q1) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)is effective for treating:
A) ischemic stroke.
B) hemorrhagic stroke.
C) meningitis.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The term afferent refers to _____ signals.
A) incoming
B) outgoing
C) different
D) similar
Q3) The hippocampus and the cingulate cortex participate in performing _____ functions.
A) digestive
B) problem solving
C) sexual
D) memory
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Q1) List the types of genetic engineering.
Q2) List the internal components of a cell.
Q3) What functions do proteins contribute to cell function?
Q4) What are the major functions of Schwann cells? How do they assist in the recovery from nerve damage?
Q5) What are the differences between knock-in and knockout mice?
Q6) Differentiate between Santiago Ramón y Cajal's and Camillo Golgi's views on brain cell functioning.
Q7) What are the five types of glial cells,and what are their primary functions?
Q8) What are the three types of brain tumors? How do they differ from one another?
Q9) What is Huntington disease,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q10) What is epigenetics? Why is studying it important?
Q11) What are three major types of neurons? How are they functionally different?
Q13) List the functions of the cell nucleus. Page 7
Q12) What is selective breeding,and how can it be used to select for specific traits? Give an example.
Q14) What are the major functions of ependymal cells?
Q15) What is phenotypic plasticity?
Q16) How does genetic engineering help us understand the human condition?
Q17) Differentiate between dominant and recessive genes.
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Q1) When neurons are continuously firing,they need a constant supply of glucose and oxygen to continue operating.This is achieved via _____,which signal blood vessels to expand and increase blood flow.
A) Schwann cells
B) ependymal cells
C) astrocytes
D) microglia
Q2) Ashley,a 36-year-old female,has recently had trouble controlling the movement of her arms.For example,sometimes her arms will flail about as if they are reaching for something even though she does not want them to.She has also started having memory problems and changes in her personality.Her father had similar symptoms in his thirties but died before he turned 40.You tell Ashley to go to the doctor because she MOST likely have:
A) Parkinson disease.
B) Huntington disease.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) a brain tumor.
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Transmit Information? Part A
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Q1) Differentiate between a diffusion and a concentration gradient.
Q2) Differentiate between a negative and a positive pole.
Q3) What is the patch technique?
Q4) What is significant about the giant axon of the squid?
Q5) What is multiple sclerosis (MS)? What are some of the identified risk factors for MS?
Q6) What are the symptoms of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease)? What neural structures are damaged?
Q7) What processes are involved in initiating an action potential?
Q8) Describe the pioneering work of Alan Hodgkin and Andrew Huxley,which earned them a Nobel Prize.
Q9) What are temporal and spatial summation?
Q10) How does the nerve impulse travel from the axon hillock to the end of the axon without degrading in magnitude?
Q11) What is the difference between depolarization and hyperpolarization?
Q12) What processes participate in maintaining the resting potential?
Q13) Describe the work of Luigi Galvani and Roberts Bartholow.How did they contribute to Page 10
our knowledge of how the nervous system operates?
Q14) What is an electroencephalogram (EEG)and how is it recorded?
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Q1) Myelin is important for propagating action potentials (AP)because:
A) it increases the AP's conduction speed.
B) it reduces the need for sodium and potassium.
C) it conserves energy.
D) it both increases the AP's conduction speed and conserves energy.
Q2) A change in the resting potential from -70 mV to -73 mV is called:
A) depolarization.
B) hyperpolarization.
C) graded excitatory potential.
D) nothing,as these changes occur spontaneously.
Q3) Spatial summation is more likely to occur:
A) when the two impulses are far apart on the membrane.
B) when the two impulses are close together on the membrane.
C) without regard to distance on the membrane.
D) when one EPSP follows the second by a short interval.
Q4) The domino effect best describes:
A) the absolute refractory period.
B) the nerve impulse.
C) the relative refractory period.
D) the resting membrane potential.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the amine subtype of small-molecule neurotransmitters?
A) dopamine
B) glycine
C) serotonin
D) norepinephrine
Q2) The notion that the nervous system communicates using chemical messages was first demonstrated by:
A) Santiago Ramón y Cajal.
B) Camillo Golgi.
C) Otto Loewi.
D) Donald Hebb.
Q3) The substance MPTP has been found to be selectively toxic to _____ neurons.
A) serotonin-producing
B) dopamine-producing
C) acetylcholine-producing
D) norepinephrine-producing
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Q1) Describe the synthesis of the amine neurotransmitters.
Q2) How did chemical transmitters originate?
Q3) What behaviors are associated with the serotonergic system?
Q4) What are the differences between excitatory and inhibitory synapses?
Q5) Define sensitization.What is the synaptic basis of sensitization?
Q6) What are transmitter-activated receptors?
Q7) What are the four steps involved in transmitting information across a chemical synapse?
Q8) What are the four major classes of neurotransmitters?
Q9) What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?
Q10) What are the different ways in which a neurotransmitter could become deactivated?
Q11) What is the function of storage granules?
Q13) What are the four main amino acid transmitters and what are their functions? Page 14
Q12) What are the four criteria used to determine whether a substance is a neurotransmitter?
Q14) What are the neurochemical neurons in the sympathetic and parasympathetic system?
Q15) What neurotransmitter system is used in the somatic nervous system (SNS)? How does it activate lead to depolarization?
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Q1) What is drug sensitization and how does it occur?
Q2) What are the five major categories of psychoactive drugs? Give examples for each category.
Q3) List the most efficient routes of drug administration.
Q4) What are the effects on the brain of chronically high cortisol levels?
Q5) What is the organizational hypothesis?
Q6) Differentiate between agonists and antagonists.
Q7) What evidence suggests that changes in cognitive behavior are a result of gonadal hormones?
Q8) What is behavioral myopia?
Q9) What are MAO inhibitors used for?
Q10) What are endorphins?
Q11) List three drugs used for the treatment of depression and describe how they work (i.e. ,what neurotransmitter systems are involved).
Q12) What negative effects on the nervous system have been associated with monosodium glutamate (MSG)? Page 16
Q13) What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia? What evidence supports the dopamine hypothesis?
Q14) What is fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD),and what are its major symptoms?
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Q1) The _____ is especially important for catabolizing drugs in the body.
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) kidneys
D) gallbladder
Q2) The incidence of schizophrenia is:
A) one in 100.
B) one in 1000.
C) one in 10,000.
D) one in 100,000.
Q3) Botulin toxin is found in:
A) bee and wasp stings.
B) the crocus plant.
C) tainted food.
D) plant berries.
Q4) The blood-brain barrier does NOT allow _____ to pass through.
A) glucose
B) amino acids
C) neurochemicals
D) oxygen
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Q1) How are ERPs different from an EEG? How can ERPs be used to examine the link between the brain and behavior?
Q2) How does an MRI work?
Q3) What is a stereotaxic apparatus? What is it used for?
Q4) Describe epigenetics.
Q5) How does cerebral voltammetry work?
Q6) What is a magnetoencephalogram (MEG)? How is it similar to an electroencephalogram and event-related potentials?
Q7) What are event-related potentials?
Q8) What is microdialysis? What does it study?
Q9) Differentiate extracellular from intracellular recording.
Q10) What is near-infrared spectroscopy? Why is it useful?
Q11) List three examples of neuropsychological tests.What are they used to examine?
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Q12) Give an example of an animal model for a human neurological disease.How are animal models useful for understanding neurological diseases?
Q13) What is diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)? What is it used to study?
Q14) Describe the differences in patterns of EEG activity when a person is in an awake or excited state compared to a relaxed state with eyes closed.
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Q1) The main advantage of MEG over event-related potentials (ERP)is:
A) MEG is better at more precisely identifying the source of the activity being recorded.
B) MEG is cheaper than EEG.
C) MEG is better at detecting electrical activity than EEG.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) In rats,place learning is measured using:
A) the Corsi test.
B) a hidden escape platform in a swimming pool.
C) the recency memory task.
D) the block span task.
Q3) _____ was the first to use electrical stimulation in humans during neurosurgery.
A) Hebb
B) Wishaw
C) Penfield
D) Broca
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Q1) How are the brains of individuals who have schizophrenia different from the brains of individuals who do not have schizophrenia?
Q2) What is SIDS? What role does serotonin play in SIDS?
Q3) Differentiate between a zygote,an embryo,and a fetus.
Q4) Why are neural stem cells so important?
Q5) What effects might caffeine and nicotine have on the developing brain?
Q6) Define masculinization.What hormones are responsible for masculinization and on what brain areas do they have the greatest influence?
Q7) Explain how language develops over the first 6 years of life.Which brain regions demonstrate the greatest changes?
Q8) What is the chemoaffinity hypothesis?
Q9) List the seven stages of brain development.
Q10) Define the term critical period and its relation to development.
Q11) Compare and contrast the symptoms of autism spectrum disorder and Asperger syndrome.
Q12) At what age do planning abilities become fully developed? Page 22
Q13) Differentiate between cell adhesion molecules and tropic molecules.
Q14) What is imprinting? What brain structures are related to imprinting?
Q15) Describe the process of myelination and its relationship to neural development.
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Q1) In an experiment examining the ability of children to discriminate speech sounds of various languages,Werker and Tees found:
A) that children younger than 2 years had no discrimination ability.
B) that children could discriminate,but the ability declines over the first year of life.
C) that children begin to discriminate during the first year and this ability continues to grow until they begin to speak at around age 2.
D) that children are better at discriminating sounds than adults.
Q2) The dendritic field in _____ starts off very simply,but becomes increasingly complex until about 2 years of age.
A) the visual cortex
B) Broca's area
C) the auditory cortex
D) the somatosensory cortex
Q3) _____ is the process that works to suppress gene expression during development.
A) Methylation
B) Mutation
C) Translation
D) Transcription
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Q1) To what stimulus does a complex cortical cell respond?
Q2) What is color constancy and why is it important? What brain region is responsible for coding color constancy?
Q3) Why is there a blind spot in each eye?
Q4) What are the main properties that differentiate rods and cones? How are they distributed in the retina?
Q5) Differentiate between the functions of blob and interblob regions of visual cortex?
Q6) What parts of the eye make up the left and right visual fields?
Q7) To what stimulus does a hypercomplex cell respond?
Q8) Compare and contrast the symptoms of visual-form agnosia and optic ataxia.What do these two disorders tell us about how the visual system is organized?
Q9) What is an on-center off-surround cell?
Q10) What are ocular dominance columns?
Q11) To what types of visual features do neurons in the temporal cortex respond?
Q12) What is optic ataxia?
Q13) What are the symptoms of visual-form agnosia? Page 25
Q14) Describe how on-center and off-center cells enable us to see edges and shapes in our visual world.
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C
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Q1) Someone who lacks green cones and is red-green color blind has:
A) tritanopia.
B) protanopia.
C) deuteranopia.
D) rhodanopsia.
Q2) _____ is caused by weakening of the elasticity of the lens in people older than 50 years.
A) Hyperopia
B) Myopia
C) Presbyopia
D) Macular degeneration
Q3) Swelling of the optic disc is known clinically as:
A) macular degeneration.
B) presbyopia.
C) retinopathy.
D) papilledema.
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Q1) What speech area did Penfield map in the human brain? How are these regions influenced by electrical stimulation?
Q2) Compare and contrast the deficits that arise in Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia.Which brain regions are affected?
Q3) List the structures in the auditory pathway in the correct order from cochlea to cortex.
Q4) What is a complex tone? How are complex tones analyzed?
Q5) What is a cochlear implant and how does it work?
Q6) What is the difference between the tectorial membrane and the basilar membrane?
Q7) How do bats use echolocation to navigate?
Q8) Define perfect pitch.What is its probable origin?
Q9) List the variables that affect birdsong.
Q10) Which brain regions are involved in music perception?
Q11) Differentiate between the roles of the outer and inner hair cells in the ear.
Q12) How do humans localize the source of high-frequency and low-frequency sounds in the environment? Which brain regions are involved? Page 28
Q13) Frequency and amplitude are equivalent to what properties in sound perception?
Q14) What decibel (dB)levels are safe for human hearing? What decibel levels can cause hearing damage?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The range for the perception of sound in humans is:
A) 10 to 15,000 Hz.
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
C) 30 to 25,000 Hz.
D) 20 to 30,000 Hz.
Q2) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the organ of Corti?
A) inner hair cells
B) outer hair cells
C) eardrum
D) basilar membrane
Q3) Twenty-five cycles per second is equivalent to:
A) 5 Hz.
B) 25 Hz.
C) 50 Hz.
D) 100 Hz.
Q4) Overtones are:
A) high-frequency tones.
B) half increments of the fundamental frequency.
C) multiples of the fundamental frequency.
D) restricted only to speech sounds.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part A
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Q1) Compare and contrast the roles of the posterior and anterior spinothalamic tracts.
Q2) What role does the brainstem play in movement?
Q3) Compare and contrast the aspects of movement that are thought to be stored in the motor cortex from the perspectives of Penfield and Graziano.
Q4) What is a homunculus as it relates to the brain?
Q5) Describe the effects of caudate-putamen damage.
Q6) What are the effects of deafferentation?
Q7) What are the symptoms of Tourette syndrome?
Q8) Describe the gate theory of pain.What is a pain gate?
Q9) Describe the role of the cerebellum in motor learning based on sensory feedback.
Q10) What are the three major classes of somatosensory receptors? What role does each of these classes of receptors play in somatosensation?
Q11) Differentiate between rapidly adapting and slowly adapting receptors.
Q13) What are the roles of the direct and indirect pathways in the basal ganglia? Page 31
Q12) What are the symptoms of apraxia? What brain regions are typically damaged in apraxia?
Q14) How does the motor cortex change in response to damage?
Q15) List the components of the posterior spinothalamic tract.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part C
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Q1) If a patient with cerebellar damage is asked to throw darts while wearing a pair of glasses that shift the vision to the right,the patient will most likely:
A) learn to adjust movements leftward to compensate for the visual shift.
B) begin throwing farther and farther to the right on successive throws.
C) fail to show any adaptation to compensate for the visual shift.
D) learn to adjust movements rightward to compensate for the visual shift.
Q2) Pain in blood vessels and internal organs that is felt as pain at the body surface is known as:
A) transferred pain.
B) relocated pain.
C) referred pain.
D) transposed pain.
Q3) Damage to the primary somatosensory motor cortex results in:
A) impaired sensory discrimination on the ipsilateral side.
B) impaired sensory discrimination on the contralateral side.
C) impaired sensory discrimination on both sides.
D) no impairment of sensory discrimination.
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Q1) The dorsolateral region of the prefrontal cortex projects to the: A) eating deficits.
B) dependency on environmental cues.
C) dependency on internal cues.
D) eating deficits and dependency on internal cues.
Q2) A brain imaging study by Kross and colleagues (2011)examined the regions that were important for processing both physical and emotional pain.The results of this study demonstrated that:
A) physical pain activated the somatosensory cortex,whereas emotional pain activated the amygdala.
B) physical pain activated the somatosensory cortex,whereas emotional pain activated the anterior cingulate cortex.
C) physical pain activated the frontal lobes,whereas emotional pain activated the somatosensory cortex.
D) the same brain areas responded to both physical and emotional pain.
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Q1) What are the effects of dorsolateral frontal-cortex lesions on motivated behavior in humans?
Q2) What is a frontal lobotomy? What effects did this surgical procedure have on behavior?
Q3) Differentiate between osmotic and hypovolemic thirst.
Q4) How does the hypothalamus influence sexual behavior?
Q5) List the hormones (and their functions)that are produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
Q6) Compare and contrast regulatory and nonregulatory behaviors.List some specific examples of each.
Q7) What are the effects of hypothalamic stimulation on behavior? Is the behavior context dependent?
Q8) Describe the structure of the olfactory system.Which types of neurons are involved in smell perception and what roles do they play? To which brain regions to these signals get relayed?
Page 35
Q9) What is the concept of preparedness? Give a specific example of preparedness.
Q10) List the symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome.
Q11) What neural structures are part of the circuit of Papez? What roles do these structures play in emotion?
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Q1) A free-running rhythm is:
A) determined by temperature.
B) determined by light.
C) determined from within the body.
D) determined by temperature and light and from within the body.
Q2) Loss of REM sleep can result from damage to the:
A) lower brainstem.
B) hippocampus.
C) upper brainstem.
D) cerebellum.
Q3) Research into the neural basis of cataplexy has shown that during episodes of cataplexy:
A) neurons in the subcoerulear nucleus become inactive.
B) neurons in the magnocellular nucleus of the medulla become active.
C) neurons in the peribrachial area become active.
D) neurons in the subcoerulear nucleus become inactive and neurons in the magnocellular nucleus of the medulla become active.
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Q1) What health risks are associated with shift work?
Q2) What are the symptoms of seasonal affective disorder? What is the main treatment?
Q3) What are the main causes of insomnia?
Q4) What is a free-running rhythm? Give an example.
Q5) What are Zeitgebers,and how do they affect biological rhythms? Give an example.
Q6) What evidence supports the notion that memories are consolidated during sleep?
Q7) What are the effects of sleep deprivation?
Q8) Describe the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreaming.
Q9) Why does jet lag occur? Why is jet lag worse flying east than west?
Q10) What activities occur during NREM sleep?
Q11) What is the genetic contribution to rhythmicity?
Q12) What is restless legs syndrome?
Q13) Differentiate between alpha,beta,and delta brain rhythms.
Q14) Describe the coping hypothesis of dreams.
Page 38
Q15) What happens if you remove the suprachiasmatic nucleus and keep it alive in a dish? What does this tell us about the origin of its rhythmic activity?
Q16) What are the symptoms of sleep apnea? What are its main causes?
Q17) What are the symptoms of cataplexy?
Q18) What is a circadian rhythm? Give an example.
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Q1) Which of the following areas is most likely to play a role in visual object memory?
A) parahippocampal region
B) limbic lobe
C) perirhinal region
D) basal ganglia
Q2) Research suggests that LTP increases synaptic effectiveness by:
A) increasing the size of axons.
B) increasing the firing rate of presynaptic neurons.
C) increasing the number of synapses on postsynaptic dendrites.
D) decreasing the amount of glutamate released by presynaptic neurons.
Q3) In recent studies,the hippocampus has been implicated in:
A) memory for faces.
B) visual object memory.
C) memory for places.
D) verbal memory.
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78864
Sample Questions
Q1) What evidence supports the idea that the hippocampus is critical for spatial memory?
Q2) What brain circuits participate in generating implicit memories?
Q3) What happens to a motor map after the amputation of a limb?
Q4) Outline a purported neural circuit for explicit memory.
Q5) Differentiate between explicit and implicit memory.Give an example of each.
Q6) Define drug-induced behavioral sensitization.Give an example.
Q7) How do the brains of people and other animals with superior spatial memory abilities differ from those with normal spatial memory abilities? Give examples.
Q8) What role do NMDA and AMPA receptors play in long-term potentiation (LTP)?
Q9) What memory systems and brain regions are affected in Alzheimer disease?
Q10) What are neurotrophic factors? What role do they play in the recovery from brain injury?
Q11) How do fluctuating estrogen levels affect cognition?
Q12) List the three primary methods to enhance recovery of function after brain damage.
Q13) Which brain circuits are critical for forming emotional memories?
Q14) What are autobiographical memories? What brain regions are thought to underlie Page 41
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78866
Sample Questions
Q1) Kimura observed that participants who were asked to remember melodies tended to do better when:
A) the music was presented to the right ear.
B) the music was presented to the left ear.
C) the music was presented to both ears at the same time.
D) participants listened to classical music.
Q2) Research in neuroeconomics has linked activity in the _____ with a reflexive decision system and activity in the _____ with reflective decision system.
A) nucleus accumbens and ventromedial prefrontal cortex;medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex
B) medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex;nucleus accumbens and ventromedial prefrontal cortex
C) amygdala;ventromedial prefrontal cortex
D) medial temporal cortex and lateral prefrontal cortex;nucleus accumbens
Q3) Syntax is the same as:
A) grammar.
B) the stringing together of phonemes to make a word.
C) literal language.
D) oral language.
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78867
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the tasks that the left side of the brain does better than the right.
Q2) Why is language presumed to give humans a cognitive advantage over other species?
Q3) What have studies in split-brain patients taught us about language?
Q4) What is the neural basis of consciousness? Why is consciousness so hard to study?
Q5) What is neuroeconomics? What has neuroeconomics taught us about decision making?
Q6) What is synesthesia? Give examples of some documented types of synesthesia.
Q7) Describe the symptoms that follow left and right parietal injury.
Q8) What is a psychological construct? Why is it difficult to study psychological constructs in the brain?
Q9) What is extinction? How is it related to contralateral neglect?
Q10) What is important about syntax in regard to thought processes? What happens if a person never learns to develop syntax?
Q11) Differentiate between divergent and convergent intelligence.What brain regions are associated with each of them?
Page 44
Q12) What is functional connectivity MRI (fcMRI)? What does it allow researchers to study?
Q13) Describe the anatomical asymmetries in the human brain.
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78868
Sample Questions
Q1) What two kinds of behavioral effects result from traumatic brain injuries?
Q2) What are the anatomical correlates of Alzheimer disease?
Q3) What is the MOST common form of brain damage in people under 40?
Q4) What effects do antidepressant drugs like SSRIs have on the brain?
Q5) What can happen if a person has multiple concussions throughout life?
Q6) What is magnetic resonance spectroscopy? How is it used to diagnose traumatic brain injury?
Q7) Explain the Freudian terms id,ego,and superego.What brain structures might these concepts be related to?
Q8) What is tardive dyskinesia? Why is it sometimes observed in psychiatric patients?
Q9) What are neuroprotectants? Why are they used?
Q10) What neurotransmitter system(s)are involved in anxiety? What types of drugs are used to treat anxiety disorders?
Q11) Give examples of positive and negative symptoms of Parkinson disease.
Q12) What are the symptoms and causes of phenylketonuria?
Q13) What are the proposed causes of multiple sclerosis?
Q14) What neural changes do Parkinson and Alzheimer disease have in common? Page 46
Q15) What treatments are available to reduce epileptic seizures?
Q16) What is electroconvulsive therapy? Why is it used? How does it affect the brain?
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