
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Biological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between biological processes and human behavior, focusing on the ways in which the brain, nervous system, hormones, and genetics influence cognition, emotions, and actions. The course examines topics such as neural communication, brain structure and function, sensory and motor systems, and the biological underpinnings of psychological phenomena including memory, motivation, emotion, and mental disorders. Students will gain an understanding of research methods in biopsychology and how advances in neuroscience contribute to our knowledge of psychological processes.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Behavioral Neuroscience 3rd Edition by Laura Freberg
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2682 Verified Questions
2682 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal guidelines for using human participants in research apply to all organizations and individuals receiving federal funding.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The history of biological psychology is in many ways the history of technical advances.Which three technological advances do you think were the most significant and why?
Answer: Answer will vary
Q3) Quantitative analysis of modern electroencephalography (EEG)recordings can be used to
A)construct 3-D maps of brain activity.
B) generate high resolution images of brain structures.
C) assess learning and memory processes.
D) track the utilization of glucose and oxygen by the brain.
Answer: A
Q4) In this illustration,a lesion is being produced in the rat's
Answer: ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
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Q1) The blood supply to the brain is provided by the
A) carotid and vertebral arteries.
B)subclavian and axillary arteries.
C)celiac artery.
D)aorta.
Answer: A
Q2) Factors that may limit human brain size include
A)the brain's requirements for calcium.
B) gender differences in brain size.
C)the brain's need for fatty acids.
D)difficulties in childbirth.
Answer: D
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)may be found in the
A)central and peripheral nervous systems.
B)peripheral nervous system only.
C)lateral and distal ventricles of the brain.
D)ventricles, subarachnoid space, and central canal of the spinal cord.
Answer: C
Q4) What functions are primarily managed by the occipital lobe?
Answer: The occipital lobe is primarily involved with visual processing.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an axo-axonic synapse results in an increase of neurotransmitter released by a target axon,which of the following processes has occurred?
A)temporal summation
B) spatial summation
C)presynaptic facilitation
D)presynaptic inhibition
Answer: C
Q2) The neural cell membrane consists of a(n)
A)outer layer of protein and an inner layer of phospholipid.
B) single layer of phospholipids.
C) double layer of phospholipids.
D) double layer of protein.
Answer: C
Q3) If a membrane potential changes from -70 mV to -65 mV,
A)hyperpolarization has occurred.
B)depolarization has occurred.
C)an action potential has occurred.
D)saltatory conduction has occurred.
Answer: B

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Sample Questions
Q1) In the human brain,about how many neurons use serotonin as their primary neurotransmitter?
A)200,000
B)1 million
C)200 million
D)1 billion
Q2) Emily's physician prescribed a benzodiazepine (Valium)to treat an ongoing problem with anxiety.Before prescribing the new medication,the physician was concerned about possible drug interactions,and asked Emily to be very frank about her use of
A)alcohol and barbiturates.
B)tobacco and St. John's wort.
C)methamphetamines.
D)marijuana and ecstasy (MDMA).
Q3) Use of MDMA (ecstasy)may damage neurons using the neurotransmitter
A)serotonin.
B)dopamine.
C)ACh.
D)glutamate.
Q4) How does cocaine produce its behavioral effects?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process in which chromosomes exchange equivalent sections of genetic material is known as
A)linkage.
B)crossing over.
C)meiosis.
D)gene expression.
Q2) In the third through eighth weeks of a human pregnancy,the developing organism is referred to as a(n)
A)zygote.
B)embryo.
C)blastocyst.
D)fetus.
Q3) Programmed cell death is known as
A)fasciculation.
B)apoptosis.
C)anterograde degeneration.
D)retrograde degeneration.
Q4) What is a "Hebb synapse," and how does this concept help us understand the segregation between input from each eye in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the adult animal?
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Q1) Rods are unable to distinguish color,yet show a peak sensitivity to light in the blue-green range of the visible spectrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sweater looks blue because it has properties that
A)reflect short wavelengths while absorbing longer wavelengths.
B)reflect long wavelengths while absorbing shorter wavelengths.
C)refract short wavelengths while absorbing longer wavelengths.
D)refract long wavelengths while absorbing shorter wavelengths.
Q3) The human eye contains approximately _________ million rods.
A)6
B)45
C)90
D)120
Q4) What is the main effect of lateral inhibition in the bipolar cells of the retina?
A)Color contrast is produced.
B)Edges or boundaries can be identified.
C)Movement is sensed.
D)The blood vessels of the eye are not perceived.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Periaqueductal gray contains large numbers of _________ receptors.
A)glutamate
B)Substance P
C)endorphin
D)serotonin
Q2) What is the typical outcome of losing one's sense of smell due to damage to the olfactory tracts?
Q3) Pain is typically experienced when people are exposed to sounds above _________ dB.
A)60
B)90
C)110
D)130
Q4) Stimulation of which of the following structures reduces the sensation of pain?
A)substantia gelatinosa
B)intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus
C)periaqueductal gray (PAG)
D)dorsal column nuclei
Q5) What is a "supertaster?"
Q6) What is a dermatome?

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Q1) Ventromedial pathways provide
A)automatic control of the hands, feet, and parts of limbs farther from the body.
B)automatic control of the neck, torso, and parts of limbs close to the body.
C)voluntary control of the hands, feet, and the medial sections of limbs.
D)voluntary control of the neck and torso.
Q2) ________ is a protein that makes up the thin filaments of myofibril.
A)Pectin
B)Myosin
C)Actin
D)Sarcomere
Q3) Describe the physical symptoms of myasthenia gravis.
Q4) Describe the three types of muscle found in the human body.
Q5) Action potentials in muscle fibers
A)do not occur.
B)spread out in two directions on either side of a receptor site.
C)travel in only one direction, from one end of a muscle fiber to the other.
D)lead to multiple twitches in that fiber.
Q6) What is a mirror neuron?
Q7) Describe the routes taken by the lateral pathways.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of renin is to
A)trigger the release of ADH.
B)trigger the release of aldosterone.
C)convert angiotensinogen into angiotensin II.
D)convert aldosterone into angiotensin II.
Q2) Animals stop eating on their own and must be force-fed following lesions of the
A)zona incerta.
B)median prefrontal nucleus.
C)lateral hypothalamus.
D)ventromedial hypothalamus.
Q3) An emergency room staff has been alerted by an ambulance of the imminent arrival of a patient who nearly drowned at a nearby beach.The ER staff should expect that the patient will have inhaled a large amount of water,and consequently will need to treat the patient for the effects of highly:
A)hypotonic extracellular fluid, including possible cell rupture.
B)hypotonic extracellular fluid, including possible cell dehydration.
C)hypertonic extracellular fluid, including possible cell dehydration.
D)hypertonic intracellular fluid, including possible cell rupture.
Q4) Why does hyponatremia occur,and what are its consequences?
Q5) Describe the role of ghrelin in appetite.

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Q1) In cases of 5-alpha-reductase deficiency,internal organs
A)fail to develop in either the male or female pattern.
B)develop in the normal female pattern.
C)develop in the normal male pattern.
D)develop both the normal female and male patterns.
Q2) Skeletal growth is slowed by
A)testosterone in males and estradiol in females.
B)estradiol in males and testosterone in females.
C)testosterone in both males and females.
D)estradiol in both males and females.
Q3) About three months after conception,anti- Müllerian hormone
A)promotes the development of the Wolffian system.
B)initiates the degeneration of the Wolffian system.
C)promotes the development of the Müllerian system.
D)initiates the degeneration of the Müllerian system.
Q4) Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome are
A)phenotypically male.
B)phenotypically female.
C)raised as females, but may switch to male identity at puberty.
D)raised as males, but may switch to female identity at puberty.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleep terrors usually occur during
A)Stages 1 or 2 NREM sleep.
B)Stages 3 or 4 NREM sleep
C)REM sleep.
D)the time immediately after awakening.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a circadian rhythm?
A)sleep-waking cycles
B)menstrual cycles
C)seasonal migration
D)mating seasons
Q3) A traveler flying from California to New York is likely to experience more jet lag than a traveler flying from New York to California.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During adolescence,most people
A)continue their previous patterns of sleep and waking.
B)require less sleep than at other points in the lifespan.
C)temporarily act like "larks."
D)temporarily act like "owls."
Q5) What is "sleep debt" and how is it managed by the brain?
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Q1) Lesions in the striatum interfere with _________ memories.
A)procedural, but not declarative
B)declarative, but not procedural
C)both declarative and procedural
D)short-term, but not long-term
Q2) Tom is on the telephone trying to help his girlfriend reinstall her operating system after her computer crashed.In order to provide his girlfriend with the right instructions,Tom must access his _________ memory.
A)procedural
B)episodic
C)autobiographical
D)explicit
Q3) Stimuli that produce long-term potentiation are applied at rates that are _________ firing rates typically found in natural neural communication.
A)greater than
B)less than
C)about the same as
D)more irregular than
Q4) How does long-term depression occur in the cerebellum?
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Q1) During a visuospatial task,
A)males and females showed very similar patterns of right hemisphere activation.
B)males were more likely to activate both hemispheres than females.
C)females were more likely to activate both hemispheres than males.
D)males and females showed very similar patterns of left hemisphere activation.
Q2) Anomia refers to
A)poor comprehension.
B)poor production of speech.
C)difficulty reading and writing.
D)difficulty finding the correct word to express an idea.
Q3) An analysis of Albert Einstein's brain showed that Einstein's brain
A)was not different from the brains of people with average intelligence.
B)was different in the hippocampus and parietal lobe compared with the brains of people with average intelligence.
C)had unusual asymmetry in the planum temporale.
D)had larger than average amounts of gray matter in the frontal lobes and language areas.
Q4) What factors influence the development of lateralization in the human brain?
Q5) How can we reconcile theories of general and multiple intelligence?
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Q1) The systematic hunting and killing of other members of the same species is found in
A)all mammals.
B)animals that live socially, like dogs and humans.
C)humans only.
D)humans and chimpanzees.
Q2) Describe the lateralization of emotion in the cerebral cortex.
Q3) Which of the following structures has the greatest direct control over the autonomic nervous system?
A)the thalamus
B)the hippocampus
C)the amygdala
D)the hypothalamus
Q4) Chewing and speaking are controlled by the_________ nerve.
A)facial
B)hypoglossal
C)trigeminal
D)abducens
Q5) Describe the role of the frontal lobes in decision-making.
Q6) Compare and contrast the three classic theories of emotion.
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Q1) Having the E4 variant of the APOE gene increases a boxer's risk for A)stroke.
B)brain tumors.
C)aneurysms.
D)dementia pugilistica.
Q2) Most medications that are effective in treating epilepsy are
A)dopamine agonists.
B)cholinergic antagonists.
C)GABA antagonists.
D)GABA agonists.
Q3) Symptoms that occur following a concussion
A)occur only in cases in which unconsciousness lasts for more than a day.
B)occur only in cases in which bleeding has required surgery.
C)can produce lack of concentration and memory loss.
D)are usually so mild that the patient does not notice any changes.
Q4) What lines of evidence support a role for serotonin in the development of migraine headaches?
Q5) Distinguish between viral and bacterial meningitis.
Q6) How does the World Health Organization (WHO)classify brain tumors?
Q7) Discuss the features of the seizure illustrated in this image.
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Q1) Behavioral treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
A)is not effective.
B)has weaker effects than medication alone.
C)is as effective as medication alone, but does not last as long.
D)may be as effective as medication alone, and has longer lasting results.
Q2) Prenatal events,such as the mother's stress or near starvation,
A)increase the likelihood a child will later develop schizophrenia and mood disorders.
B)increase the likelihood that the mother will later develop schizophrenia or mood disorders.
C)increase the likelihood that a child will later develop schizophrenia, but decrease the likelihood that the child will develop a mood disorder.
D)have no measurable impact on the child's risk for developing mood disorders.
Q3) Some patients given L-dopa to control the symptoms of Parkinson's disease reportedly
A)develop Tourette's syndrome.
B)become euphoric.
C)experience panic attacks.
D)develop symptoms similar to schizophrenia.
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