
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Biological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between the mind, behavior, and underlying biological processes. This course examines how the brain, nervous system, hormones, and genetics influence actions, emotions, and cognitive functions. Students will investigate topics such as neuronal communication, brain structure and function, the biological basis of perception, motivation, learning, memory, and psychological disorders. Integrating research methods and key theories, the course provides a foundational understanding of how biological mechanisms underpin psychological phenomena.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience 9th Edition by Neil R. Carlson
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16 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of natural selection is the cornerstone of Darwin's theory of evolution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The term "reflex" refers to an automatic movement.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Based on his observation of brain damage and behavioral difficulties in a stroke victim,Paul Broca concluded that
A) the control of speech is a function of the left hemisphere.
B) the right hemisphere controls motor movements on the right side of the body.
C) damage to the right hemisphere impairs speech.
D) different regions of the brain control heart rate and breathing, purposeful movements, and sensory function.
E) muscle atrophy after a stroke results from a loss of fluid pressure within the brain ventricles.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The simplest version of a withdrawal reflex involves a
A) pain receptor synapsing onto a motor neuron in the spinal cord.
B) pain receptor that projects to the thalamus, which then projects to motor cortex and then down to the spinal cord.
C) motor neuron within the spinal cord that is spontaneously active.
D) sensory neuron in visual cortex that synapses onto a motor neuron in the spinal cord.
E) muscle fiber connecting onto an interneuron.
Answer: A
Q2) Autoreceptors
A) are sensitive to the presence of neuropeptides in the synapse.
B) control the release of calcium ions from the axon terminal.
C) mostly facilitate neuron function.
D) are metabotropic in nature.
E) control the formation of new dendritic spines.
Answer: D
Q3) The myelin sheath around an axon in the brain is formed by oligodendrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Sample Questions
Q1) The association regions of the left and right hemispheres are interconnected via the axons of the
A) stria terminalis.
B) cingulate callosum.
C) corpus callosum.
D) medial commissure.
E) fornix.
Answer: C
Q2) The parasympathetic division of the ANS is involved in
A) activities that expend energy.
B) the inhibition of digestive function during a fight.
C) activities that increase levels of stored energy within the body.
D) acceleration of heart rate and increased blood flow to the muscles.
E) the control of the voluntary muscles of the body.
Answer: C
Q3) The spinal nerves are part of the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blockage of _____ would be expected to decrease the levels of transmitters within the vesicles.
A) presynaptic transporters
B) axonal autoreceptors
C) vesicular transporters
D) postsynaptic autoreceptors
E) degradation enzymes
Q2) THC interferes with concentration and memory and can distort our sense of time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Drugs that block or inhibit postsynaptic receptor effects are termed A) agonists.
B) ligands.
C) synergists.
D) antagonists.
E) pheromones.
Q4) Explain what is meant by a therapeutic index (TI).
Q5) Draw a diagram that represents a terminal button and postsynaptic neuron.Indicate in this diagram at least eight ways that drugs can affect synaptic transmission and give an example of each.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the fMRI technique?
A) The fMRI technique has a lower spatial resolution than does the CT scan.
B) The PET scan has a better spatial resolution than does the CT scan.
C) The fMRI technique is based on the rapid acquisition of multiple PET scans.
D) fMRI scans have a better spatial resolution than do PET scans.
E) fMRI scans require days to complete.
Q2) Antigens are proteins produced by white blood cells that destroy invading microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how neuroscientists trace the efferent connections of a brain region.
Q4) Provide an overview of how immunocytochemistry techniques are used for the localization of neurotransmitter receptors in brain.
Q5) Which of the following is true of MRI scans?
A) MRI was the first method used to visualize the living human brain.
B) MRI scans can only view the horizontal plane.
C) MRI scans show greater spatial resolution than do CT scans.
D) MRI scans involve the integration of X-ray beams passed through the head.
E) MRI scans show less detail than do CT scans.
Q6) Explain what is meant by the term "excitotoxin."
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 25% of human cerebral cortex is dedicated to the analysis of visual information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prosopagnosia is
A) an inability to distinguish colors.
B) the inability to recognize a particular face.
C) usually accompanied by achromatopsia.
D) a difficulty in recognizing objects by texture cues.
E) a problem in linking remote memories with new memories.
Q3) A disease that attacks the photoreceptors of the fovea would be expected to A) impair night vision.
B) disrupt color vision.
C) impair eye movements.
D) impair vision for detection of movement.
E) produce blurry images.
Q4) The determination of the "what" of an object is a key function of the dorsal visual stream.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is a hollow region just beyond the tympanic membrane that contains the ossicles.
A) outer ear
B) inner ear
C) organ of Corti
D) pinna
E) middle ear
Q2) Olfactory receptors are located in the
A) turbinate bones.
B) olfactory epithelium.
C) cribiform plate.
D) chorda tympani.
E) olfactory operculum.
Q3) In the human auditory system,the analysis of "what" corresponds to ________ ,whereas the analysis of "where" corresponds to ________.
A) complex sounds ; location of a sound
B) loudness; pitch
C) location of a sound; loudness
D) object form; object location
E) loudness; timbre
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to the ______ suppresses penile erections during REM sleep.
A) central nucleus of the amygdala
B) nucleus accumbens
C) lateral preoptic area.
D) hippocampus
E) lateral hypothalamus
Q2) Antagonism of adenosine receptors by caffeine produces arousal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The metabolism of glycogen increases the brain levels of ________,which in turn promotes ________.
A) GABA; slow-wave sleep
B) GABA; REM sleep
C) adenosine; slow-wave sleep
D) a benzodiazepine ligand; slow-wave sleep
E) adenosine; wakefulness
Q4) Activation of lateral preoptic neurons may mediate the genital arousal noted during REM sleep.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why it is thought that pheromones play an important role in modulating the rodent estrous cycle.
Q2) Twin studies indicate that
A) there is a genetic basis for homosexuality in males as well as in females.
B) early family environment is more important than genes for the development of homosexuality.
C) a male child whose older twin sisters are heterosexual is more likely to be homosexual.
D) homosexual women are likely to have homosexual male relatives.
E) identical male twins are less likely to be concordant for homosexuality than are fraternal male twins.
Q3) Provide an overview of the hormonal events that form the human menstrual cycle (include in your answer a diagram showing hormone fluctuations across time).
Q4) The ________ plays an essential role in male sexual behavior.
A) central nucleus of the amygdala
B) periaqueductal gray matter
C) medial preoptic area
D) rostral medulla
E) sexually dimorphic nucleus of the supraoptic area
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Q1) Which statement best illustrates the James-Lange theory of emotion?
A) Laugh and you will be happy.
B) Feeling happy causes you to laugh.
C) Happiness is the result of excessive release of endorphins.
D) Your frontal lobe causes you to feel happy, whereas your motor cortex causes you to laugh.
E) Feeling happy induces the species-typical reaction we call laughter.
Q2) A key function of the autonomic component of an emotional response is to
A) mobilize energy for vigorous movement.
B) promote digestion of nutrients.
C) turn off the stress axis.
D) restore physiological balance after an emotional experience.
E) control the absorption of nutrients from the gut.
Q3) The ________ nucleus of the ________ is important for the expression of emotional responses to aversive stimuli.
A) postero-lateral; hypothalamus
B) medial; thalamus
C) lateral; amygdala
D) central; amygdala
E) medial; hypothalamus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experiments by Deutsch and colleagues allowed rats to eat until they were satiated and then withdrew a few milliliters of diet from their stomach using an implanted catheter.After the withdrawal,the rats
A) ate until they became obese.
B) reported no hunger pangs.
C) showed evidence of continued short-term satiety.
D) experienced periodic feelings of hunger.
E) ate enough food to replace that withdrawn from the stomach.
Q2) Which of the following is not considered to be a key factor that contributes to obesity?
A) the generous portions provided by fast-food restaurants
B) learning to eat all that is placed on your plate
C) the fact that we require more calories as we get older
D) innate aberrations of metabolism
E) the fact that we require fewer calories as we get older
Q3) A craving for sodium chloride is called a salt appetite.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the stimuli and receptors that induce volumetric thirst.
Q5) Describe the role of ghrelin in the control of eating.
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Q1) We would expect that ________ would block the induction of LTP in the hippocampus.
A) a drug that blocks NMDA receptors
B) using high-frequency electrical pulses
C) a drug that inactivates NMDA receptors
D) injection into the presynaptic cell of a drug that induces calcium release
E) a drug that blocks GABA receptors
Q2) Motor learning is an example of a declarative memory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An action potential that occurs in a dendritic branch after an action potential in a pyramidal cell is termed
A) an axon potential.
B) the dendritic spike.
C) a population postsynaptic potential.
D) the perforant potential.
E) a presynaptic potential.
Q4) Describe learning tasks that assess the capacity for perceptual learning,motor learning,and stimulus-response learning.
Q5) Provide a definition of learning and memory.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The information conveyed in a spoken word resides in its A) timing.
B) pitch.
C) emphasis.
D) tempo.
E) prosody.
Q2) The left hemisphere is better than the right hemisphere at
A) recognizing the emotional tone in a voice.
B) assembling a narrative of what we want to say.
C) perceiving spatial relationships.
D) production and analysis of speech.
E) controlling speech sounds that comprise prosody.
Q3) The ability to use prosody in perceiving the emotional state of another speaker is a talent of the right hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person with pure alexia can write but not read.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain why verbal behavior is considered to be lateralized within the brain.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tumors is most dangerous?
A) benign
B) gliomas
C) angiomas
D) blastocytes
E) neningioma
Q2) The impact of ________ within the internal carotid artery is serious because this artery ________.
A) tPa; supplies blood to the gut
B) neurofibrillary tangles; supplies blood to the heart
C) atherosclerotic plaque; supplies blood to the brain
D) tPa; absorbs CSF from the brain
E) atherosclerotic plaque; supplies blood to the gut
Q3) A tumor of the ________ type was removed from the brain of Mrs.R.
A) malignant
B) glioma
C) angioma
D) blastocyte
E) meningioma
Q4) Explain the significance of prions for neurological disorders.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concordance rate for affective disorder for monozygotic twins
A) is identical to that of dizygotic twins.
B) is the same whether or not the twins were raised in the same household.
C) proves that affective disorder is mostly an effect of the environment.
D) is higher than that for dizygotic twins.
E) is less than that noted for close relatives suffering from affective disorder.
Q2) Fluoxetine (Prozac)is an effective treatment for ________ that works by
A) schizophrenia; blocking dopamine receptors
B) depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder; blocking serotonin reuptake
C) anxiety disorders; inhibition of MAO
D) delusions and hallucinations; blocking serotonin reuptake
E) obsessive-compulsive disorder; releasing glycine
Q3) ________ refers to a fear of being away from home or other protected places.
A) Anticipatory panic disorder
B) Acrophobia
C) Refractory anxiety
D) Agoraphobia
E) Claustrophobia

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Sample Questions
Q1) The secretion of glucocorticoids is controlled by neurons localized within the A) posterior pituitary.
B) preoptic hypothalamus.
C) central nucleus of the amygdala.
D) reticular activating system.
E) PVN.
Q2) A known biological cause of autism is
A) prenatal lithium.
B) prenatal depression. .
C) encephalitis caused by herpes virus.
D) multiple sclerosis.
E) being born in the winter months.
Q3) Decreased sensitivity to a drug after repeated use is termed A) euphoria.
B) drug depression.
C) tolerance.
D) inverse mania.
E) addiction.
Q4) Describe the types of approaches that are being taken today to treat drug addiction.
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