Biological Psychology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between biological processes and behavior. This course examines how the brain, nervous system, hormones, and genetics influence thoughts, emotions, and actions. Students will learn about the structure and function of the nervous system, neural communication, brain development, sensory and motor systems, and the biological bases of psychological conditions. Major topics include neuroanatomy, neurotransmission, the effects of drugs on the brain, and the biological underpinnings of learning, memory, emotion, and mental disorders, with an emphasis on research methods and current findings in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Drugs and the Neuroscience of Behavior An Introduction to Psychopharmacology 2nd Edition by
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2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define objective and subjective effects.Provide an example for each.
Answer: Objective effects are pharmacological effects that can be directly observed by others.An example would consist of something that other can measure,such as heart rate,body temperature,or body movement.Subjective effects are pharmacological effects that cannot be directly observed by others.An example would consist of something that others cannot directly observe,such as someone indicating how a drug makes him feel.
Q2) An animal study that causes no pain or distress and produces a major scientific discovery would have low ethical costs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What type of use is defined as using a drug entirely to experience its effects?
A) Recreational drug use
B) Therapeutic drug use
C) Instrumental drug use
D) Drug abuse
Answer: A
Q4) A ________ is a substance harmful to a fetus.
Answer: Teratogen
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Chapter 2: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the density of spines along dendrites,the greater a neuron's:
A) neurotransmitter system.
B) synaptic zone.
C) firing rate.
D) receptive area.
Answer: D
Q2) List the three main divisions of the brain,as presented in the textbook,and note a major structure found in each division.
Answer: The divisions are the forebrain,midbrain,and the hindbrain.The forebrain includes the cerebral cortex,basal ganglia,thalamus,hypothalamus,among many other structures.The midbrain is most noted for the superior and inferior colliculus.The hindbrain includes the cerebellum,pons,medulla,among other structures.
Q3) The point where a motor neuron meets a muscle fiber is called the:
A) neuromuscular junction.
B) dorsal horn
C) end terminus.
D) ventral root.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Neurotransmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposed portions of axons at the nodes of Ranvier contain sodium and potassium channels.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) All of the following describe conditions that facilitate an action potential except:
A) a resting potential precedes an action potential.
B) sodium channels open.
C) sodium-potassium pump activity decreases.
D) the local potential becomes depolarized.
Answer: C
Q3) A drug that inhibited acetylcholinesterase would:
A) reduce levels of dopamine.
B) prevent a decrease in levels of acetylcholine.
C) increase levels of norepinephrine.
D) decrease activation of cholinergic receptors.
Answer: B
Q4) Activating a GABAA postsynaptic receptor will cause a(n)_____________.
Answer: inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
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Chapter 4: Properties of Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Finding that chronic administration of a psychostimulant reduced dopamine receptors in the brain would be an example of:
A) pharmacokinetic tolerance.
B) pharmacodynamic tolerance.
C) sensitization.
D) conditioned tolerance.
Q2) The drug entacapone inhibits the enzyme catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT),which causes:
A) a decreased reuptake of dopamine.
B) an increased concentration of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
C) an increased synthesis of dopamine.
D) an inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO).
Q3) List and describe two approaches for reducing neurotransmission for a receptor.
Q4) __________________ refers to a drug's strength of binding to a receptor .
Q5) The collection of withdrawal symptoms expected from a particular drug is referred to as:
A) dispositional tolerance.
B) a withdrawal syndrome.
C) conditioned tolerance.
D) dependence.
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Chapter 5: Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the opponent-process model,greater effects from opposing processes than effects produced by a drug would likely result in:
A) greater incentive salience of paired stimuli.
B) an increase in the rewarding effects of a drug.
C) withdrawal effects.
D) drug sensitization.
Q2) A model of drug addiction:
A) characterizes and explains compulsive drug use.
B) is used to diagnose a drug addiction.
C) is used to determine a treatment for a substance use disorder.
D) is developed from the opinions of clinicians.
Q3) A stimulus that,when present,signals the availability of reinforcement is called a(n)_________.
Q4) A researcher who found it most useful to think of drug withdrawal as enhancing the rewarding value of a drug would likely be most in favor of which drug addiction model?
A) Opponent-process theory of drug addiction
B) Drive theory of drug addiction
C) Incentive-salience theory of drug addiction.
D) Disease model of drug addiction.
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Chapter 6: Psychostimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) High doses of psychostimulants can produce tactile and visual hallucinations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Based on the types of active metabolites normally produced from biotransformation of psychostimulant drugs,active metabolites:
A) are most likely to produce toxic effects to organs.
B) tend to prolong psychostimulant effects.
C) slow down distribution of the drug.
D) inhibit passage of the parent drug through the blood-brain barrier.
Q3) Common routes for using a psychostimulant drug recreationally consist of all of the following except:
A) inhalation.
B) insufflations.
C) intravenous.
D) oral.
Q4) Why might there be a greater risk of cocaine addiction in women?
Q5) Psychostimulant drugs must be classified as Schedule I or Schedule II. A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe three subjective effects produced by psychostimulant administration.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Nicotine and Caffeine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are ammonia-forming compounds added to tobacco blends?
A) To reduce the cost of tobacco production.
B) To improve the flavor of tobacco smoke.
C) To increase nicotine absorption.
D) To aid in the flue-curing process.
Q2) Smokeless tobacco products consist of any tobacco form intended for absorption in the mouth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Taking an antidepressant drug that is catabolized by the same enzyme for caffeine would:
A) diminish the pharmacological effects of caffeine.
B) reduce absorption of caffeine.
C) shorten the elimination rate for caffeine.
D) prolong the effects of caffeine.
Q4) A __________ is a water pipe used for smoking tobacco.
Q5) Direct administration of nicotine in the nucleus accumbens will produce an increase in dopamine concentrations in the __________.
Q6) Flue curing reduces the pH of tobacco smoke to closer to __________.
Q7) Why are the effects of nicotine on memory unclear?
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Chapter 8: Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) By serving as a positive modulator for GABAA receptors,alcohol has all of the following actions except:
A) Binds to a site different from the site that GABA binds to.
B) Increases the length of GABAA receptor activation.
C) Increase the flow of chloride ions into the neuron.
D) Prevents downregulation of GABAA receptors.
Q2) While not the form of alcohol used as a beverage,why might someone unintentionally be exposed methanol?
A) Alcoholic beverage producers are not required to test for methanol, which may be accidentally synthesized during the production process.
B) Methanol is known to contaminate drinking water.
C) He drank poorly distilled alcohol, which contained amounts of methanol.
D) He was having a massage and rubbing alcohol was used.
Q3) Blood alcohol concentration indicates the:
A) number of grams of alcohol per 100 mL of blood.
B) proof of an alcoholic beverage consumed.
C) percentage of alcohol consumed per unit of time.
D) amount of alcohol that has accumulated in a particular organ, such as the liver.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: GHP and Inhalants
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are reasons that adolescents find inhalants a practical way to get high except:
A) many of the products are legally sold.
B) the effects are short lasting.
C) the products are likely already in their home.
D) there is no noticeable change in behavior if they were discovered using an inhalant.
Q2) It is not clear if a withdrawal syndrome occurs for inhalants for the following reasons except:
A) withdrawal symptoms do not occur or are nonclinically significant.
B) headaches and other symptoms subside with fresh air.
C) they may only occur after binge use.
D) they last for a short period of time.
Q3) Gamma-butyrolactone (GBL)is a schedule ____________ controlled substance.
Q4) A GABAA receptor antagonist is immediately administered to those who overdose on an inhalant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In what ways to GHB interact with the GABA neurotransmitter system?
Q6) Laughing gas is more technically known as ____________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Opioids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most heroin users had first used::
A) bath salts.
B) prescription opioid drugs.
C) marijuana.
D) hallucinogens.
Q2) Glutamate ________ receptors may mediate the reinforcing effects of opioids.
Q3) A semi-synthetic opioid is derived from an opioid found in opium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How did the Harrison Narcotics act reduce the use of opioids?
Q5) All of the following are naturally occurring opioids except: A) thebaine.
B) buprenorphine.
C) morphine.
D) codeine.
Q6) You are a pharmacologist working for a pharmaceutical company and you have been asked to develop two strategies to counteract the pleasuable effects of opioid agonists.What strategies did you develop?
Q7) Opioids produce ________ effects by inhibiting GABA neurons in the ventral tegmental area.
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Chapter 11: Cannabinoids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sativex is a one-to-one ratio of delta-9-THC and A) nabilone.
B) cannabidiol.
C) anandamide.
D) WIN52212-2.
Q2) An amotivational syndrome reduces the interest in using cannabis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cannabinoids derived from cannabis plants are called
A) phytocannabinoids.
B) endocannabinoids.
C) trichobinoids.
D) ethnocannabinoids.
Q4) Tolerance to the following effects occurs from regular cannabis use except A) memory impairment.
B) motor coordination.
C) increased heart rate.
D) accelerate time passage.
Q5) Name and describe three medical uses for cannabis.
Q6) Describe the difference between marijuana,hashish,and synthetic marijuana.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Psychedelic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following are reasons that the effects of MDMA may be different in a party setting than a laboratory setting except
A) an Ecstasy tablet may not contain MDMA.
B) users often take other substances in addition to Ecstasy.
C) a user may be on psychoactive medications.
D) the chemical structure of MDMA will be different for clandestinely synthesized MDMA.
Q2) Psychologist ________ became well known for his studies at Harvard using psilocybin in human participants.
Q3) Why did therapists find the use of LSD appealing for psychotherapy?
Q4) An atypical antipsychotic drug,which among many other receptor mechanisms serves as antagonist for serotonin and dopamine receptors,would likely
A) only reduce MDMA's hallucinogenic effects.
B) only reduce MDMA's stimulant effects.
C) reduce both MDMA's hallucinogenic and stimulant effects.
D) cause no change to MDMA's effects.
Q5) Why do mostly psychedelic effects of MDMA occur at low doses whereas psychostimulant effects also occur at high doses?
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Treatments for Depression and Bipolar Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The manic features of bipolar disorder are called euthymia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Feelings of emotional detachment along with reduced positive and negative emotions from using an antidepressant drug is called
A) emotional blunting.
B) serotonin discontinuation syndrome.
C) emotional defluctuation.
D) serotonin affective disorder.
Q3) For a patient with major depressive disorder,having a short variant of the serotonin transporter gene-linked polymorphic region would likely mean a
A) greater likelihood for adverse effects from antidepressant medications.
B) more rapid response to antidepressant medications.
C) reduced responsiveness to antidepressant medications.
D) greater likelihood of having manic symptoms when taking antidepressant drugs.
Q4) Enhanced monoamine levels in the peripheral nervous system can cause hypertension.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Treatments for Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug specifically used for the treatment of anxiety is called a(n)
A) tranquilizer.
B) bromide.
C) anti-anxiety drug.
D) anxiolytic.
Q2) A person who engages in a ritual of checking the locks on his doors multiple times before going to bed could have
A) a specific phobia.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) obsessive compulsive disorder.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.
Q3) For the treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder,antidepressant drugs
A) are effective only when combined with an antipsychotic drug.
B) worsen OCD symptoms.
C) do not adequately reduce its symptoms.
D) require a longer treatment time than for other anxiety disorders.
Q4) During the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome,the pituitary gland releases adrenocorticotropic hormone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Antipsychotic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Poor functional outcomes are associated with poor cognitive functioning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An individual who has an immediate relative with schizophrenia and has recently begun having poor grades in school,declined short-term memory,and is having paranoid thinking is likely in the A) pre-cognitive dysmetric stage of schizophrenia. B) prodromal phase of schizophrenia.
C) early development phase of schizophrenia.
D) dopamine hyperactivity phase of schizophrenia.
Q3) While anticholinergic drugs reduce extrapyramidal side effects,they do not prevent the development of A) cardiovascular dementia. B) tardive dyskinesia.
C) acute dystonia.
D) extrapyramidal dyskinesia.
Q4) Name and describe three different types of schizophrenia.
Q5) Extrapyramidal side effects occur from antagonism of D receptors.
A)True
B)False
17
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