Course Introduction
Biological Psychology
Chapter Exam Questions
Biological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between the brain, nervous system, and behavior. This course examines how biological processes such as neural signaling, genetics, neurotransmitters, and hormones influence mental functions and actions. Students will investigate the physiological foundations of perception, learning, memory, emotion, and psychological disorders, with an emphasis on current research methods and findings in neuroscience. By understanding the biological bases of behavior, students will gain insight into the mind-body connection and its implications for mental health and well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J. Pinel
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Page 2
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main difference between human brains and the brains of their mammalian relatives is that human brains tend to be bigger and A) whiter.
B) all gray.
C) have more cortex.
D) have two hemispheres.
E) both C and D
Answer: C
Q2) Which part of the brain is illustrated (the shaded area) in the accompanying drawing?
A) prefrontal cortex
B) occipital cortex
C) corpus callosum
D) caudate
E) hypothalamus
Answer: A
Q3) A __________ -subjects design is an experimental design that involves testing a different group of subjects under each condition of the experiment.
Answer: between
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Chapter 2: Evolution, Genetics, and Experience: Thinking About the Biology of Behavior
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Q1) Maze-bright rats are less __________ than maze-dull rats.
Answer: emotional
Q2) Well preserved 3.6-million-year-old footprints of 1.3-meter tall, small-brained __________ were discovered in African volcanic ash.
A) apes
B) Homo sapiens
C) Neanderthals
D) Australopithecines
E) archaeologists
Answer: D
Q3) Which species has a brain larger than the human brain?
A) whale
B) elephant
C) chimpanzee
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Answer: E
Q4) Proteins are long chains of __________.
Answer: amino acids
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Chapter 3: The Anatomy of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The back of your head is
A) posterior.
B) dorsal.
C) inferior.
D) anterior.
E) ventral.
Answer: A
Q2) The longitudinal fissure separates the two hemispheres. Which lobe does not border it?
A) temporal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) parietal lobe
D) prefrontal lobe
E) occipital lobe
Answer: A
Q3) The cerebral hemispheres are connected by tracts called cerebral __________. Answer: commissures
Q4) The almond-shaped nucleus of the anterior temporal lobe is the __________. Answer: amygdala
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Chapter 4: Neural Conduction and Synaptic Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) With respect to the maximum speed of axonal conduction in motor neurons, cats are to humans as
A) 50 is to 100 meters per second.
B) 80 is to 100 meters per second.
C) 25 is to 100 meters per second.
D) 82 is to 100 meters per second.
E) 100 is to 60 meters per second.
Q2) At rest,
A) a neuron has a membrane potential of about -70 mV.
B) the electrical charge outside the neuron is 70 mV less than inside the neuron.
C) a neuron is polarized.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
Q3) Peptide neurotransmitters are
A) synthesized in the cell body.
B) amino acid chains.
C) large-molecule neurotransmitters.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Research Methods of Biopsychology
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Q1) A technique for disrupting activity of an area of cortex in healthy human volunteers is transcranial __________ stimulation.
Q2) Neuropsychological assessment is useful because it can
A) assist diagnosis.
B) influence treatment.
C) be the basis for effective counseling.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q3) Which of the following is a contrast X-ray technique?
A) angiography
B) magnetoencephalography
C) positron emission tomography
D) structural magnetic resonance imaging
E) functional MRI
Q4) Which gland or glands directly influence the SCL and the SCR?
A) gonads
B) pituitary gland
C) sweat glands
D) pancreas
E) adrenal glands
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Visual System
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Q1) Posterior parietal cortex is considered to be
A) association cortex.
B) secondary visual cortex.
C) primary visual cortex.
D) primary cortex.
E) paleocortex.
Q2) The main function of color constancy is to ensure that
A) lights of the same wavelength appear to be the same color.
B) lights of different wavelengths appear to be different colors.
C) lights of the same wavelength appear to be the same color, regardless of their intensity.
D) an object appears to be the same color despite changes in the wavelengths of light that it is reflecting.
E) complementary colors always look complementary.
Q3) The retinal indentation that mediates high-acuity vision is the __________.
Q4) Dual-opponent color cells are rich in __________.
Q5) The existence of complementary color after images supports the opponent-process theory of __________ vision.
Q6) Depth of focus is usually greater when the pupils are __________.
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Q7) Discuss prosopagnosia, emphasizing theoretical issues and relevant evidence.
Chapter 7: Mechanisms of Perception
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Q1) Bilateral damage to which of the following auditory structures would be most likely to produce complete and permanent hearing loss?
A) primary auditory cortex
B) superior colliculus
C) cochlear nerve
D) secondary auditory cortex
E) association cortex
Q2) The auditory system is organized
A) retinotopically.
B) geographically.
C) tonotopically.
D) somatotopically.
E) volumetrically.
Q3) The perception of both pain and changes in skin temperature are largely mediated by
A) free nerve endings.
B) Pacinian corpuscles.
C) nociceptors.
D) temperoceptors.
E) red corpuscles.
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Chapter 8: The Sensorimotor System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a remarkable demonstration, Belle, the owl monkey, controlled the movements of a robotic arm
A) by pressing buttons.
B) with the activity of neurons in her primary motor cortex.
C) with speech sounds.
D) with monkey calls.
E) by providing visual feedback to the arm.
Q2) In contrast to the ventromedial corticospinal tract, before descending to the spinal cord, the ventromedial cortico-brainstem-spinal tract interacts with the A) tectum.
B) reticular formation.
C) vestibular nuclei.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) The two descending __________ motor pathways control movements of the trunk.
Q4) Theories of sensorimotor learning emphasize two kinds of changes to sensorimotor programs: transfer of control to lower levels of the neural hierarchy and response
Q5) Muscle spindles are receptors that respond to changes in muscle __________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Development of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A zygote divides to form A) a sperm cell and an ovum.
B) two ova.
C) two zygotes.
D) two daughter cells.
E) two sperm cells.
Q2) Most of the cell death associated with early development of the brain is A) necrotic.
B) passive.
C) apoptotic.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Q3) During the formation of the neural tube, a few cells break off from the neural tube and form a structure that lies just dorsal to the tube. This structure is the neural A) groove.
B) canal.
C) crest.
D) zone.
E) layer.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Brain Damage and Neuroplasticity
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Q1) Huntington's disease is associated with A) increased fidgetiness.
B) jerky, writhing movements of entire limbs.
C) severe dementia.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q2) Most neuropsychological diseases of genetic origin are not associated with a dominant gene. Explain why this is so, and describe two situations in which there could be an exception to this general principle. Finally, describe a neuropsychological disease associated with a dominant gene, and explain why it is an exception.
Q3) Multiple sclerosis
A) attacks young adults.
B) is associated with the development of areas of scar tissue in the CNS white matter. C) is a progressive disorder.
D) is a disease of CNS myelin.
E) all of the above
Q4) Compare and contrast Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease.
Q5) An area of dead tissue produced by a stroke is called an __________.
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Chapter 11: Learning, Memory, and Amnesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jennifer Aniston cells are also called
A) concept cells.
B) Lisa Kudrow cells.
C) person cells.
D) hippocampal cells.
E) movie cells.
Q2) Rats have one advantage over monkeys in the study of medial temporal lobe amnesia:
A) In rats, the hippocampus can readily be aspirated without substantial medial temporal cortex damage.
B) Rats live longer.
C) Rats learn object-recognition tasks more readily.
D) Rats have better episodic memories.
E) Rats have a subcortical hippocampus.
Q3) Rats can perform the delayed nonmatching-to-sample task
A) only at chance levels.
B) at levels that are only slightly above chance.
C) at levels that are not significantly above chance.
D) almost as well as monkeys at retention delays up to a minute or so.
E) as well as humans when food is involved.
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Chapter 12: Hunger, Eating, and Health
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Q1) The leaky-barrel is a __________ model, not a set-point model.
Q2) According to the text, anorexic patients - or anybody else who is severely undernourished - should not be fed
A) fats.
B) meals.
C) carbohydrates.
D) sweets.
E) proteins.
Q3) According to the text, many people who live in modern industrialized societies have difficulty eating a diet with enough vitamins and minerals because A) during evolution they lost their ability to associate taste with outcome.
B) conditioned taste aversions inevitably override the effects of positive learning.
C) they eat too many different flavors each day for their systems to learn the relation between the flavor of a food and its effects.
D) humans have lost the ability to taste vitamins and minerals.
E) taste is overpowered by olfaction.
Q4) The pancreatic hormone that is released prior to and during a meal is
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Chapter 13: Hormones and Sex
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes our current understanding of differences in the structure of human female and human male brains?
A) Male and female brains are identical.
B) Some suggestions of differences have been reported, but none of the differences has proven to be replicable.
C) Many structural differences have been documented.
D) The female frontal cortex is substantially larger than the male counterpart.
E) The male frontal cortex has an extra layer.
Q2) Gonadotropin releasing hormone stimulates the release of __________ from the anterior pituitary.
A) follicle stimulating hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) thyrotropin
D) testosterone
E) both A and B
Q3) Describe the symptoms and mechanism of the androgenic insensitivity syndrome. Explain the hormonal mechanism underlying the development of these symptoms.
Q4) __________ hormones are short chains of amino acids.
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Chapter 14: Sleep, Dreaming, and Circadian Rhythms
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Q1) According to the text,
A) Freud viewed dreams as symbolic representations of repressed sexual conflict.
B) there is no convincing evidence for Freud's theory of dreams.
C) Freud's view of dreams is widely accepted by the general public.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Each cycle of sleep during a typical night tends to be about
A) 5 minutes long.
B) 20 minutes long.
C) 35 minutes long.
D) 90 minutes long.
E) 140 minutes long.
Q3) The most influential circadian zeitgeber is the A) hippocampus.
B) light-dark cycle.
C) amygdala.
D) free-running period.
E) hyrax.
Q4) REMs are associated with __________ stage 1 EEG.
Q5) __________ circadian cycles are those without zeitgebers.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Drug Addiction and the Brains Reward Circuits
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Q1) Drug tolerance is a shift in the dose-response curve
A) upward.
B) to the right.
C) to the left.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q2) Although __________ is classified as a depressant, it has stimulant effects at low doses.
A) alcohol
B) tobacco
C) cocaine
D) amphetamine
E) morphine
Q3) Cocaine hydrochloride
A) is a dopamine agonist.
B) reduces the reuptake of dopamine from synapses by blocking dopamine transporters.
C) is a dopamine antagonist.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
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Chapter 16: Lateralization, Language, and the Split Brain
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Q1) Dyslexics in whom the phonetic procedure is disrupted while the lexical procedure remains normal are said to have __________ dyslexia.
A) surface
B) semantic
C) phonological
D) grammatical
E) deep
Q2) Cognitive neuroscientists interested in the brain mechanisms of language search for the specific parts of the brain that mediate
A) phonemes.
B) language production.
C) language comprehension.
D) language's constituent cognitive processes.
E) both B and C
Q3) According to the Wernicke-Geschwind model, the visual form of a read word is translated into a meaningful auditory code by the left __________.
Q4) According to the Wernicke-Geschwind model, __________ area is the center of speech production.
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Chapter 17: Biopsychology of Emotion, Stress, and Health
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Q1) Ekman and Friesen (1975) analyzed hundreds of films and photographs of people experiencing various emotions. On the basis of their analysis, they concluded that
A) there are six primary facial expressions of emotion.
B) many facial expressions of emotion are mixtures of the six primary expressions.
C) facial expressions of emotion are too numerous and varied to categorize.
D) shame, desire, and excitement are three of the primary emotions.
E) both A and B
Q2) Sham rage is displayed by A) decorticate cats.
B) cats whose entire cerebral hemispheres, including the hypothalamus, have been removed.
C) cats whose cerebral hemispheres, excluding the hypothalamus, have been removed.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q3) Describe the circuit that is thought to control auditory fear conditioning in rats. Draw a diagram of the circuit. Explain the evidence on which this theory is based.
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Chapter 18: Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders
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Q1) The first antidepressant drug was developed for the treatment of tuberculosis. This drug, __________, was found not to be effective against tuberculosis, but it left patients with tuberculosis less depressed about their condition.
Q2) Benzodiazepines
A) are GABAA agonists.
B) are monoamine agonists.
C) are catecholamine antagonists.
D) are monoamine antagonists.
E) bind to serotonin receptors.
Q3) The __________ individual typically leaves behind a trail of unfinished projects, unpaid bills, and broken relationships.
A) schizophrenic
B) neuroleptic
C) chronically depressed
D) manic
E) catatonic
Q4) Lena sat for hours in the middle of the floor staring into space; she was totally unresponsive and displayed waxy flexibility. She was diagnosed with stuporous __________ schizophrenia.
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