Biological Diversity
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Course Introduction
Biological Diversity explores the variety of life on Earth, encompassing genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity. The course examines the processes of evolution and speciation, the methods scientists use to classify and study organisms, and the ecological importance of biodiversity. Students will investigate patterns of distribution, the role of biodiversity in ecosystem services, threats such as habitat loss and climate change, and strategies for conservation. Through lectures, discussions, and case studies, the course emphasizes the interconnectedness of life forms and the critical importance of preserving biological diversity for the health of the planet.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition by Cleveland Hickman Jr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the chemical energy transformations that occur within a cell constitute
A) evolution.
B) metabolism.
C) adaptation.
D) homeostasis.
Answer: B
Q2) Which best describes a control group in an experiment?
A) A group with the condition that is being tested
B) A non-random sample taken through all experimental steps
C) A variable that is being deliberately varied in the experiment
D) A group that lacks the disturbance experienced by the experimental group
Answer: D
Q3) Which kingdom contains multicellular organisms that ingest their food?
A) Protista
B) Animalia
C) Plantae
D) Fungi
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first eukaryotic cells probably arose about _____ billion years ago.
A) 1.5
B) 2.5
C) 3.5
D) 4.5
Answer: A
Q2) A nucleic acid is a polymer made up of which kind of monomers?
A) Amino acids
B) Nucleotides
C) Glucose or modified glucose molecules
D) Alternating sugar and phosphate groups
Answer: B
Q3) Polysaccharide are polymers made up of which kind of monomers?
A) Simple sugars
B) Amino acids
C) Nucleotides
D) Alternating sugar and phosphate groups
E) Fatty acids and glycerol
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific form of endocytosis wherein small areas of the surface membrane are invaginated to form tiny vesicles containing fluids.
A) Pinocytosis
B) Cotransport
C) Endocytosis
D) Exocytosis
Answer: A
Q2) Dermal stem cells divide,with some cells continuing the stem cell line and others being pushed toward the surface to flatten and die and be sloughed off.In the bone marrow,other stem cells produce cells such as the red blood cells that lose their nucleus and function for a short time before they too die.These cells that reproduce no further
A) leave the cell cycle in a G<sub>0</sub> phase, which immediately follows telophase.
B) leave the cell cycle in a G<sub>3</sub> phase, which immediately follows G<sub>2.</sub>
C) halt in the midst of the S phase.
D) continually cycle but simply fail to go through cytokinesis.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes
A) lower the amount of energy present in the substrate.
B) raise the amount of energy present in the substrate.
C) lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding to the substrate.
D) raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate.
Q2) According to the laws of physics governing energy
A) when a liter of gasoline is burned in a car engine, 100% of its energy moves the car along the road.
B) when you eat a kilogram of food, you will assemble exactly a kilogram of additional body weight on your body.
C) sunlight that is absorbed on the earth eventually returns to space as dispersed heat.
D) a calorie of sunlight becomes a calorie of plant tissue that, when eaten by an animal, becomes a calorie of heat lost in muscle "power."
Q3) The net direction of any chemical reaction depends on the A) relative energy contents of the substances involved.
B) amount of enzyme present.
C) amount of substrate present.
D) amount of ATP present.
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6
Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which RNA molecules carry genetic information away from DNA when it is needed for the construction of a protein?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) Transfer RNA
C) Messenger RNA
D) Primary mrna transcript
Q2) Which type of molecule produces variable lengths of DNA with "sticky ends"?
A) DNA ligase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) Restriction enzymes
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of Mendel's law of segregation?
A) Each individual contains two factors for each trait
B) One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual
C) Each gamete contains one copy of each factor
D) Fertilization restores the presence of the two factors
Q4) _________ _________ are enzymes derived from bacteria; they cleave double-stranded DNA at a particular site determined by the particular base sequences (recognition site)at that point.
Q5) Males are said to be ___________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ants that specialize on harvesting one species of tree leaves can optimally exploit that resource but are in trouble if their food tree declines,whereas generalist ant species can switch to other foods.The rate at which these two lineages speciate and go extinct differs,a phenomenon labeled
A) stabilizing selection.
B) directional selection.
C) catastrophic species selection.
D) effect macroevolution.
Q2) The generation of ecologically diverse species from a common ancestral stock is called ________________.
Q3) If early Native Americans who originated in North Asia had remained the only ancestral settlers in North America,rather than the overwhelming mixture of immigrants from across Europe and other continents,today there would be a much higher incidence of North Asian traits in the U.S.population.Such a scenario would demonstrate A) gene flow from continent to continent.
B) the founder effect.
C) genetic drift among the original Northern Asians.
D) fitness for the North American environment.
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8
Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reptile and bird eggs have
A) no chorion.
B) no amnion.
C) no extra-embryonic membranes because the young are inside an egg.
D) a placental connection since these are advanced animals.
E) a large yolk to support all early development.
Q2) The acrosome functions to
A) Contain enzymes that help a sperm head "digest" its way into an egg
B) Increase the sperm's motility
C) Direct the sperm to the egg
D) Transport the chromosomes into the egg
E) Store energy for swimming to the egg
Q3) Approximately how many mature egg cells are released by a woman during her fertile years?
A) 20.
B) 120.
C) 400.
D) several thousand.
E) several million.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual versus asexual reproduction.
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The internal pouch representing the developing gut in a gastrula is called a
A) blastocoels.
B) pseudocoelom.
C) coelom.
D) archenteron.
Q2) Rotational cleavage is unique to A) amphibians.
B) mammals.
C) sea stars.
D) lophotrochozoa.
Q3) Animals having radial cleavage (echinoderms)also show a type of development,called __________ _________,in which separated blastomeres can develop into complete and normal organisms.
Q4) The concept that an egg or sperm cell contained a very small but fully developed individual was called A) induction.
B) pronuclei.
C) preformation.
D) holoblastism.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Architectural Pattern of an Animal
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two major fluid compartments of the metazoan body are
A) the extracellular space and the interstitial space.
B) the extracellular space and the intracellular space.
C) the extracellular space and the intercellular space.
D) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following cells has multiple nuclei?
A) Smooth muscle
B) Adipose tissue
C) Striated muscle
D) Bone
Q3) Which of the following statements about connective tissue is NOT true?
A) Connective tissues contain cells capable of differentiating into muscle and bone in animals that can regenerate these tissues
B) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, different kinds of fibers, and a nonliving matrix
C) Blood is a connective tissue that contains a fluid matrix
D) Collagen is a fat molecule with little tensile strength but great stretching ability
Q4) The type of body cavity that represents a persistent blastocoel is the
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Q1) A derived character shared by members of a clade is a _______________.
Q2) A taxon is monophyletic if it
A) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants.
B) includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some, but not all, of its descendants.
C) does not include the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
D) excludes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
Q3) If two different taxa share common ancestry with each other more recently than either one does with any other organisms,we call them _______ ______.
Q4) An entomologist discovered that two morphologically identical crickets sang completely different mating songs and this resulted in the two populations never mating.Thus they were
A) sister groups.
B) sibling species.
C) paraphyletic.
D) polyphyletic.
Q5) Species that have very restricted geographic distributions are called ____________________.
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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is found at the base of every flagellum or cilium?
A) a kinetosome
B) a kinetid
C) an axopod
D) a kinetoplast
E) a lobopod
Q2) The early development of a globular colony (with flagella inward)that then turns inside-out (with flagella outward)is
A) called an undulating membrane and is common among ciliates.
B) a pseudoplasmodium and only found in protozoans.
C) called inversion, and it is very common in early development in many animal groups.
D) called inversion, and it is very rare among animals, only occurring in colonial flagellates and sponges.
E) called reverse gastrulation and it is very rare among animals.
Q3) Some species of slime molds form a large,multinucleate body called a/an
Q4) After phagocytosis,a food particle is held in a food vacuole also called a/an
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extracellular matrix found in sponges is
A) spongin.
B) collagen.
C) pinacoderm.
D) mesohyl or mesenchyme.
The gelatinous extracellular matrix, called mesohyle or mesenchyme, contains fibrils, skeletal elements and ameboid cells.
Q2) Calcareous or siliceous elements of the sponge body wall provide support. These elements are called
A) amoebocytes.
B) pinacocytes.
C) choanocytes.
D) spicules.
E) spongin.
Spicules are supportive, calcareous structures in the body wall of many sponges.
Q3) The water outlet in sponges is known as a/an __________________. The osculum is the outlet for water in sponges.
Q4) There are a few marine sponges that are large enough that a small person could crawl inside.Would you have to worry about your tissues being digested?
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Chapter 13: Radiate Animals
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Q1) Which association of anthozoan traits is NOT correct?
A) Hexamerous-parts in multiples of six
B) Octomerous-parts in multiples of eight
C) Coupled-septa matched across gastrovascular cavity
D) Hydrostatic skeleton-hard coral secretions
E) Pedal laceration-small pieces break off and regenerate new anemones
Q2) The long thread-like structures that help to overcome prey and provide defense in sea anemones are called ________ ________.
Q3) A living anemone must detect non-living debris that floats by from potential food that also move past it.How does it detect the difference?
A) It responds to anything with DNA as living
B) It has a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine
C) They respond to vibrations that match the frequency of prey
D) There is a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine; additionally they respond to vibrations that match the frequency of prey
E) They merely sample everything that moves and discard the inorganic debris
Q4) The polypoid stage of scyphozoans is called ________________.
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15
Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha,Platyzoa,and Mesozoa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissues that seem to violate the cell theory because the nuclei are not separated by cell membranes are
A) parenchymal.
B) syncytial.
C) tegumental.
D) rhabdites.
E) vitellaria.
Q2) Ribbon worms and flatworms both have
A) a flow-through digestive tract.
B) flame cells.
C) a blood-vascular system.
D) an eversible proboscis.
E) mostly parasitic lifestyles.
Q3) Taenia solium is a dangerous tapeworm because humans can serve as its ______________ host.
Q4) The holdfast of a tapeworm is its _______________.
Q5) Most monogeneans are external parasites of ____________.
Q6) Since flatworms and ribbon worms lack a coelom or a pseudocoel,they are termed _____________ animals.
Q7) Ribbon worms seize their prey with their ________________.
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Q1) The larval stages of all three lophophorate phyla are
A) also sessile, having budded off from the parent.
B) parasitic on other animals.
C) trochophores.
D) bilateral planula larvae.
E) free-swimming.
Q2) The lophophorate phyla are grouped together because
A) they all belong to the deuterostome branch of the bilateral animals.
B) they all possess a specialized crown of tentacles specialized for sedentary filter feeding.
C) they all lack a true coelom.
D) all appear to be derived from the Entoprocta ancestors.
E) they simply do not fit anywhere else.
Q3) The term "trimerous" or "tripartite" refers to
A) the three lophophorate groups.
B) division of the coelom into three parts.
C) the pattern of egg cleavage.
D) the three forms of trochophore larvae.
E) layers in the brachiopod shell.
Q4) The larva of phoronids is called the _____________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Q1) The tongue-like,rasping organ in the head of many molluscs is the
Q2) Snails that lack gills are called "pulmonate" and their mantle cavity functions
A) for propulsion.
B) to produce pearls.
C) as a lung.
D) to store wastes.
E) All of the choices are correct functions
Q3) Scaphopods have a captacula or head with long tentacles; how do they differ from the tentacles of cephalopods? Are these two types of tentacles homologous?
Q4) Where would you locate the coelomic cavity when dissecting a mollusk such as a clam?
A) The coelom is between the mantle and the shell
B) The coelom is all of the area enclosed by the two shells and exposed when you open the shell
C) The cavity around the heart, the kidneys, and the lumen of the gonads forms the limited coelom
D) The cavities inside the siphon are the coelom
E) The coelom is the space inside small tubules that form the gills
Q5) How does torsion differ from coiling? Fully explain your answer.
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Q1) Conventional external fertilization involves both males and females extruding gametes into the environment where they fertilize separate from the parents; internal fertilization involves sperm being transferred to the female with fertilization inside the female.A leech utilizes
A) conventional external fertilization.
B) standard internal fertilization.
C) internal fertilization but by hypodermic impregnation that penetrates the integument.
D) no transfer of sperm at all but regenerates asexually.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) In the earthworm,the typhlosole
A) is the organ of locomotion.
B) increases the absorptive area of the gut.
C) grinds the food.
D) produces secretions during mating.
E) coordinates the contractions of the digestive system.
Q3) The anterior-most and posterior-most portions of the annelid body are the ______________________ and pygidium,respectively.
Q4) Why does the wound from the bite of a leech bleed profusely?
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Copulatory spicules function to
A) attract the female.
B) deliver sperm to the female vagina or gonopore.
C) hold the female vulva open against hydrostatic pressure.
D) store sperm in the male until copulation occurs.
E) store sperm in the female after copulation.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a factor that protects North Americans from many parasitic worm infections?
A) Much of the U.S. has bitter cold winters.
B) Most of the population wears shoes.
C) We usually cook our meat and there are few raw meat dishes.
D) We have superior drugs and surgeons.
E) We do not use human excreta ("night soil") to directly fertilize crops.
Q3) The outer body covering of a nematode is a relatively thick,noncellular cuticle,which is constructed primarily of a protein known as _______.
Q4) The infective stage of Ascaris is the _____________,which is resistant to adverse conditions.
Q5) Explain why the Tardigrada and Onychophora are lumped with Arthropoda in the clade Panarthropoda.
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Q1) You would be most likely to find a pauropod if you examined
A) the fur of a mammal, since they are parasites.
B) under a rock in a stream.
C) moist soil, leaf litter, or decaying debris.
D) inside the juicy tissues of a host plant.
E) an intertidal pool.
Q2) Discuss the ecological position of the spiders as a group.
Q3) Trilobites exist today as
A) freshwater dwellers.
B) terrestrial crustaceans.
C) aquatic insects.
D) horseshoe crabs.
E) fossils only; they are all extinct.
Q4) The excretory system of insects and spiders works by
A) excreting wastes across the digestive system membrane.
B) active transport of just the waste molecules across the tubules.
C) transport of all ions and solutes across the tubule and retrieval of water and useful ions in the rectum.
D) excretion of only ions and wastes in the rectum.
E) packaging and sealing off toxic wastes until the organism dies.
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Q1) Which is a correct association of pigment and function in an arthropod compound eye?
A) Strong light-distal retinal pigment disappears
B) Strong light-each ommatidium is shielded from the others and sees only a limited area
C) Strong light-distal and proximal pigments separate
D) Dim light-each ommatidium is shielded from the others and sees only a limited area
E) Dim light-distal and proximal pigments fuse
Q2) The two joints of the protopod are the ______ ______ and medial endopod.
Q3) Position sensors in the base of the first antennae of crayfishes are called
Q4) Androgenic glands in the amphipod function to A) regulate ion balance.
B) stimulate expression of male characteristics.
C) control pigmentation for camouflage.
D) secrete digestive fluids.
E) control ecdysis.
Q5) The individual units of compound eyes in crustaceans are called
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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) What adaptations do insects have that make the use of respiratory pigments unnecessary or of less value?
Q2) Provide a biologically reasonable explanation for why insects never exploited the marine environment.
Q3) Termites transfer inhibiting pheromones to suppress female offspring from becoming fertile through a mutual feeding process called A) mimicry.
B) trophallaxis.
C) biological control.
D) diapause.
E) saprophagous behavior.
Q4) Thin and threadlike tubes extend into the hemolymph from where they join the digestive tract between the midgut and hindgut.These are A) tracheal gills.
B) sensilla.
C) segmental ganglia.
D) accessory pulsatile organs.
E) malpighian tubules.
Q5) Each stage of an insect between molts is called a(n)_____________.
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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, Echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) The pores leading to both the protocoel and paired coelomic cavities of the enteropneust hemichordates allow
A) fertilization of eggs by sperm.
B) exchange of fluids for a low efficiency respiratory system.
C) water to be drawn in to stiffen the chambers to aid in burrowing.
D) excretion of wastes.
E) movement of ions and water to keep an osmotic balance.
Q2) Echinoderms are
A) mostly pelagic or free-swimming in open ocean.
B) benthic.
C) parasitic.
D) mostly particle feeders.
E) fish predators.
Q3) The oral tentacles of the sea cucumber are
A) modified tube feet.
B) actually primitive lophophores.
C) elaborated pedicellariae.
D) also part of its respiratory tree.
E) completely new structures evolved in this group.
Q4) Chaetognaths are also known as ______ ______.
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Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) In both tunicates and cephalochordates,the ventral side of the branchial sac contains a ciliated,mucus-secreting groove,the ____________.
Q2) In the chordates,the __________ forms in the vicinity of the embryological blastopore.
Q3) The ammocoete larvae is important in zoology since it
A) is the "missing link" between chordates and vertebrates.
B) represents the features of the most advanced chordate that is not a vertebrate.
C) represents the features of the first vertebrates that are not obscured by advanced vertebrate development.
D) is identical to the earliest Burgess shale fossil vertebrate.
E) possesses all features found in derived vertebrates, and evolution from this point forward was a matter of losing different features.
Q4) The oldest jawed fishes are extinct and are called ____________.
Q5) The characteristics of the chordates and the characteristics of the vertebrates are not the same.List the features that distinguish these two groups.
Q6) Lancelets belong to the subphylum __________.
Q7) The skeletal rod found in all chordates is called a _________.
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) Representatives of the most primitive non-teleost neopterygians are the
A) gar and bowfin.
B) sturgeon and paddle-fish.
C) coelacanths.
D) minnows and suckers.
E) carp and buffalo fish.
Q2) How does a shark detect potential prey or distinguish it from floating non-living debris?
Q3) Eel-like,jawless fishes with both marine and freshwater species belong to the class
Q4) Technically a teleost fish has a four-chambered heart.Yet this is not the same as the four-chambered heart of a bird or mammal.Compare and contrast these two "four chambered" hearts.
Q5) Experiments have shown that homing salmon are guided upstream by the characteristic _________ of the parent stream.
Q6) Describe the life cycle of the eel.Contrast this migration with the Pacific salmon.
Q7) Explain why the discovery of a complete conodont animal was so important to understanding the evolutionary history of fishes.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) Some salamanders retain larval features (e.g.,gills)throughout life,a condition called
Q2) Which of the following regulates amphibian metamorphosis?
A) Calcitonin hormone from the adrenals
B) Thyroxine, a hormone secreted by the thyroid gland
C) Estrogen and testosterone from the gonads
D) Growth hormone by the thyroid gland
E) Salt levels from the environment
Q3) Frogs and toads belong to the order _________,a name that means "without a tail."
Q4) ______ glands in amphibians secrete defensive compounds.
Q5) Which is true regarding frog skin?
A) The dermis contains chromatophores, which provide skin color.
B) The dermis contains large serous glands derived from the inner epidermis that produce a skin poison.
C) The epidermis contains soft keratin.
D) The epidermis has mucous glands that secrete mucus to waterproof the skin.
E) All of these choices are correct.
Q6) In addition to the sinus venosus and the conus arteriosus the heart of a frog has two __________ and one __________.
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) The evolution of joints between the skull and jaw,as well as new joints allowing the jaws to separate and manipulate food,has resulted in a ________ jaw.
A) anaspid
B) mandibular
C) laterally independent
D) diaspid
E) kinetic
Q2) Discuss the probable parental care of the dinosaurs.What kinds of evidence are used to support this claim?
Q3) Snakes that have special heat-sensitive pits on their heads are called ______ ______.
Q4) Which association of lineages and eventual derived groups is NOT correct?
A) Anaspids-turtles
B) Diapsids-all "reptilian" groups except turtles
C) Lepidosaurs-only extinct ichthyosaurs and pterodons
D) Synapsids-mammals
E) Archosaurs-dinosaurs, crocodilians, and birds
Q5) The nonavian reptilian kidney is of the advanced ___________ type with their passageways (ureters)to the exterior.
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) A unique feature of the bird respiratory system is the extensive system of nine interconnecting _____ _____.
Q2) If it is an advantage to be a food specialist and thereby avoid the extra competition that generalists face from other generalists,then why aren't all birds specialists?
Q3) More than 90% of all birds follow a type of mating system in which an individual mates with only one partner each breeding season,called ___________.
Q4) Archaeopteryx resembled modern birds in having A) a large keel or breastbone for pectoral muscle insertion.
B) pneumatic bones.
C) fused clavicles or "wishbone."
D) a beak.
E) All of the choices were Archaeopteryx features
Q5) The enlargement at the lower end of the esophagus that serves as a food storage chamber in birds is called the ____________.
Q6) The ____________ muscle elevates the bird's wing by means of a tendon running over a pulley-like arrangement in the shoulder.
Q7) Give some examples of birds with high-lift wings.
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) The smaller the mammal
A) the less oxygen it uses per gram of body weight.
B) the lower its metabolic rate.
C) the less food it needs to consume per gram of its body weight.
D) the more food it needs to consume per gram of its body weight.
E) the less it needs lungs.
Q2) Explain why the mammalian lineage,alive and well during the "reign of the dinosaurs," may have been evolutionarily "depressed" in the ecological sense of the word.
Q3) Mammals began a dramatic expansion in the
A) Pleistocene.
B) Paleocene.
C) Oligocene.
D) Triassic.
E) Eocene.
Q4) Compare the horns of the pronghorn antelope with the true horns of bovids and the horns of the giraffe.
Q5) Explain the changes in morphology of the lower jaw,and its joint with the rest of the skull,that occurred during the evolution of mammals.
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Chapter 29: Support, protection, and Movement
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Q1) Which skeletal features comprise the axial skeleton? The appendicular skeleton? Why are these skeletal features separated into two distinct categories? Is there any difference in the way they are formed?
Q2) Hyaline cartilage contains
A) collagenous fibers surrounding numerous blood vessels.
B) osteocytes surrounded by a calcium gel and a meshwork of collagenous fibers.
C) chondrocytes surrounded by a protein gel complex and a meshwork of collagenous fibers.
D) lacunae containing osteocytes and a meshwork of collagenous fibers.
E) a highly variable mixture of protein gel and carbohydrate crystals.
Q3) Which best describes muscle action?
A) a nerve stimulus causes the muscle to jerk as a reflex response.
B) a nerve stimulus releases ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction.
C) the release of acetylcholine from the nerve junction flows across the muscle cell and the calcium released causes the actin and myosin molecules to spread apart.
D) myosin and actin molecules will use ATP and catch-pull-release as long as nerve stimuli prevent troponin from blocking the action.
E) none of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Hummingbirds may reduce the energetic cost of homeothermy by allowing their body temperature to drop at night,an adaptation called ____________.
Q2) Animals maintaining a constant and elevated body temperature independent of ambient conditions are
A) homeothermic.
B) poikilothermic.
C) ectothermic.
D) mesothermic.
E) None of the choices are correct
Q3) Why does the excretion of wastes present a special problem in water conservation?
Q4) The effect of renin release will
A) lower the number of red blood cells.
B) lower blood volume by reducing angiotensin.
C) result in production of angiotensin.
D) inhibit aldosterone secretion.
E) eliminate sodium and water.
Q5) In the metanephridium,the tubule is open at both ends and fluids are swept in through a funnel-like _____________.
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Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) The heartbeat originates in specialized muscle tissue called the _______ _______ in the sinoatrial node
Q2) What are the inherent problems involved in aquatic and aerial breathing?
Q3) Outline the structures and functions of the mammalian respiratory system (describe how breathing is coordinated).
Q4) The blood vessel that delivers oxygen and nutrients to the heart is the ________ ________.
Q5) Is the separate "double circulation" of a mammal really superior to that of the incomplete circulation of a frog? Explain your reasoning.
Q6) Which of the following can NOT serve as a respiratory pigment?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Hemocyanin
C) Chlorocruorin
D) Hemerythrin
E) All of the choices are correct
Q7) In very small organisms,or those with a large surface area relative to mass,substantial exchange of respiratory gases can take place by ____________ directly between the organism and its environment.
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) The earthworm increases the surface area of its intestine by this dorsal fold called a _____________.
Q2) Digestive enzymes
A) are hydrolases.
B) break chemical bonds by adding water across them.
C) break specific bonds.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices are correct
Q3) The small plants and animals that drift in the ocean's current and provide food for many filter feeders are collectively called ____________.
Q4) Secretin functions to stimulate the
A) release of bile to hydrolyze proteins.
B) release of alkaline pancreatic juices to neutralize stomach acid in the small intestine.
C) release of gastrin.
D) release of CCK.
E) pituitary to control the pancreas.
Q5) Canine teeth are adapted for seizing and piercing prey and then _________ meat.
Q6) Distinguish between the following: herbivory,carnivory,omnivory.
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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) The arthropod compound eye is composed of numerous independent visual units called _________.
Q2) What is the difference between a reflex arc and a reflex act? List the components and functions of each.
Q3) In a chemical synapse,when the wave of depolarization reaches the presynaptic membrane,it triggers the release of
A) sodium ions.
B) neurotransmitter molecules.
C) electricity.
D) nerve action potentials.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) The fovea centralis is
A) part of the choroid coat of the eye that is attached to the lens and the iris.
B) the internal part of the cochlea with hair cells that are stimulated by sound waves.
C) any part of the eye that contains rods, cones, and bipolar cells.
D) the point of the eye at which color vision is most acute.
E) the part of the inner ear which recognizes dynamic equilibrium and movement
Q5) The light-sensitive layer inside the vertebrate eye is the ____________.
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) Many hormones are controlled by negative feedback mechanisms that operate between the endocrine gland and the ______ ______.
Q2) What hormone stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor or somatomedin by the liver in humans?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Thyroid stimulating hormone
C) Gonadotropic hormones
D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
E) Growth hormone (somatotropin)
Q3) A neurosecretory hormone stored and released from the posterior pituitary,and that has important specialized reproductive functions,is ____________.
Q4) The preparation of the mammary glands for secretion of milk requires the action of A) progesterone.
B) prolactin.
C) estrogen.
D) human chorionic gonadotropin.
Q5) The pituitary gonadotropins are _______ _______ ________ and luteinizing hormone (LH).
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) Discuss the following terms: susceptible,resistant,infective,noninfective,immunity.
Q2) The blood typing test relies on ________ of red blood cells.
A) agglutination
B) staining
C) microscopic inspection
D) culturing
E) nuclear identification
Q3) What type(s)of cell(s)conduct(s)phagocytosis?
A) Macrophages in lymph nodes
B) Kupffer cells in sinusoids
C) Microglial cells in the brain
D) Neutrophils
E) All of the choices are able to phagocytize
Q4) Cells bear substances on their surfaces that are the basis of nonself recognition.These substances are _______ ________ _______.
Q5) The ________________ recognize antigen on the surface of macrophages and activate B cells.
Q6) Identify the following: tumor necrosis factor,complement,phagocytosis,leukocytes.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) One kind of learning behavior,illustrated by goslings that will follow the first moving object they see (usually their mother)is called ____________.
Q2) If a male white-crowned sparrow is hatched and reared in isolation but allowed during a critical period of imprinting (10 to 50 days after hatching)to hear the song of a male from another species,the bird most likely will
A) Only learn the appropriate song of its own species
B) Sing the appropriate song of the other species
C) Try to modify the crude song it was "born with" with the other-species song and produce a unique song
D) Not sing at all
E) develop an abnormal song.
Q3) What is a stimulus that triggers a stereotypical behavior called?
A) A goal or accomplishment
B) A release or sign stimulus
C) Imprinting
D) A drive or innate stimulus
E) A reflex arc
Q4) Why territoriality is considered an alternative to dominance behavior?
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Chapter 37: Animal Distributions
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Q1) Contrast dispersal with seasonal migration.Why would the annual migration of monarch butterflies from Canada to Mexico not constitute dispersal? Why would its return to the summer breeding grounds more accurately be called a dispersal than a migration?
Q2) Discuss the contributions of Alfred Russel Wallace to modern historical biogeography.
Q3) Deep sea communities on the abyssal plain are centered around ________
Q4) The terrestrial environments of the earth that are divided into large units based on their distinctive vegetation are called ____________.
Q5) How do the various physical features of the lithosphere,the hydrosphere,and the atmosphere interact to produce a viable biosphere?
Q6) The vast open ocean is known as the ____________ zone.
Q7) Lotic refers to running-water habitats,and standing-water habitats are called
Q8) Explain the salient features of the Continental Drift Theory.Why did it take so long for it to be accepted?
Q9) Discuss what is meant by the "Great American Interchange."
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Q10) ____________ are rocky subtidal zone habitats dominated by brown seaweeds.
Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) The deep-sea rift communities in the Pacific depend on the action of chemoautotrophic ____________ to derive energy from the oxidation of hydrogen sulfide.
Q2) When pioneers settled the Midwest and Plains states,they killed or drove off the American bison,cougar,wolf,etc.Why does the elimination of such natural predators cause ecological problems?
Q3) What prevents all species from evolving toward a survivorship curve where most individuals live to old age?
Q4) Discuss how the extinction of a keystone species can affect an ecosystem.
Q5) The term "ecology" was first introduced by whom?
A) George Gaylord Simpson
B) Charles Elton
C) Ernst Haeckel
D) Lawrence J.Henderson
E) E.O.Wilson
Q6) How does mutualism differ from commensalism? How would you experimentally determine if two species are living in a commensal or mutualistic relationship?
Q7) Discuss how ecosystems are based on energy transfer at different trophic levels.
Q8) Almost all life depends on the energy from the _______.
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