Biological Concepts Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an overview of fundamental biological principles, exploring concepts such as the structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, evolution and natural selection, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students will gain an understanding of how living systems interact with each other and their environments and will develop scientific literacy through the examination of current topics in biology. Emphasis will be placed on the scientific method, critical thinking, and the application of biological knowledge to real-world situations.
Recommended Textbook Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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55 Chapters
2275 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pattern component of the cell theory claims that all organisms consist of cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) On an evolutionary tree,any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe").Draw the tree for Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya that we think best represents the current data.According to this tree,are all organisms alive today monophyletic?
A)yes
B)no
Answer: A
Q3) What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars?
A)Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer.
B)The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation.
C)Maggots do not arise spontaneously,but from eggs laid by adult flies.
D)Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is surrounded by air.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Which statement best summarizes the essence of chemical evolution?
A)Energy in the form of sunlight or heat was transformed into chemical energy.
B)Instead of being radiated back to space,energy in the form of sunlight or heat was retained in the oceans and atmosphere because of water's high specific heat.
C)Entropy increased.
D)An increasing number of exothermic reactions occurred.
Answer: A
Q2) When one of the atoms involved in a covalent bond has a much higher electronegativity than the other atom,what type of bond results?
A)a double bond
B)a hydrogen bond
C)a nonpolar covalent bond
D)a polar covalent bond
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) In solution,why do hydrolysis reactions occur more readily than condensation reactions?
A)Hydrolysis increases entropy and is exothermic.
B)Hydrolysis raises G,or Gibbs free energy.
C)Hydrolysis decreases entropy and is exothermic.
D)Hydrolysis increases entropy and is endothermic.
Answer: A
Q2) If you were reading off the sequence of amino acids in Figure 3.1 to a biologist friend,what should the first three letters be?
A)M-N-G
B)A-P-A
C)It doesn't matter,since the protein has no polarity or directionality.
Answer: A
Q3) An isomer of a particular molecule is
A)a molecule that has the same structure as the target molecule,but a different formula.
B)a molecule that is the same except it has an additional side group.
C)another copy of the same molecule.
D)a molecule that has the same formula,but a different structure.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Which of these scientists was not directly involved in the discovery of DNA's structure?
A)James Watson
B)Rosalind Franklin
C)Sidney Altman
D)Francis Crick
E)Maurice Wilkins
Q2) Which of the following chemical bonds do you think Nakano is referring to in his quote?
A)peptide
B)glycosidic
C)phosphodiester
D)ionic
Q3) If a molecule of DNA contains 10% cytosine,it has ________ guanine and ________ adenine respectively.
A)10%;40%
B)10%;45%
C)40%;40%
D)40%;10%
E)10%;80%
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) If you were going to develop a new antibiotic,you would probably need to become an expert on which of these carbohydrates?
A)glycogen
B)chitin
C)peptidoglycan
D)cellulose
E)starch
Q2) Which of the following polysaccharides is made up of parallel strands joined together by peptide bonds?
A)glycogen
B)starch
C)cellulose
D)peptidoglycan
Q3) Which of the following polysaccharides is made up of highly branched helices?
A)glycogen
B)chitin
C)cellulose
D)peptidoglycan
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Under what circumstances does membrane transport always require energy?
A)whenever molecules are moved that are too large to pass through the phospholipid bilayer membrane
B)whenever a solute needs to be moved from low concentration to high concentration through a phospholipid bilayer membrane
C)whenever a solute is charged,such as an ion,and is moved through a phospholipid bilayer membrane
D)whenever a molecule is polar and is moved through a phospholipid bilayer membrane
Q2) Why do lipid bilayers form spontaneously?
A)The process is endergonic.
B)The process is exergonic.
C)The process leads to a huge decrease in entropy and no change in potential energy. D)The process is endothermic.
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Amoeba move by crawling over a surface (amoeboid movement).Which one of the following processes is part of amoeboid movement?
A)polymerization or extension of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane
B)setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of cytoplasm
C)reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments
Q2) You are studying an organism and note that its proteins fail to be glycosylated.A deficiency in which of the following organelles is likely the cause?
A)Golgi apparatus
B)Peroxisomes
C)Mitochondria
D)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q3) What is the site of synthesis of proteins for export (secretion from the cell)?
A)free ribosomes
B)ribosomes that attach to the endoplasmic reticulum
C)ribosomes that attach to the Golgi complex
D)ribosomes that attach to the outer mitochondrial membrane
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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) H.V.Wilson worked with sponges to gain some insight into exactly what was responsible for holding adjacent cells together.He exposed two species of differently pigmented sponges to a chemical that disrupted the cell-cell interaction.The cells of the sponges dissociated.Wilson mixed the cells of the two species and removed the chemical that caused the cells to dissociate.Wilson found the sponges reassembled into two separate species.The cells from one species did not interact or form associations with the cells of the other species.How do you explain the results of Wilson's experiments?
A)There are enzymes involved in the assembly of the sponge organism,and the two different species had two different enzymes functioning in reassembly.
B)The disassembled cells formed bonds with any of the cells in the mixture.However,once the organism was completely assembled,an enzyme changed all cells to the same pigment.
C)The molecules responsible for cell-cell adhesion were different in the two different species of sponge.
D)One cell functions as the nucleus for each organism,attracting only cells of the same pigment.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) In cellular respiration,electrons are moved along a series of membrane proteins during the electron transport chain.If there was a mutation in the DNA coding for each of the proton pumps of the electron transport chain such that these proteins became non-functional,what would you predict to occur?
A)Protons would not be moved from the matrix to the intermembrane space and so ATP synthase would not be activated.
B)Protons would no longer be moved from the intermembrane space to the matrix and so ATP synthase would not be activated.
C)NADH and FADH would have to donate their electrons directly to ATP synthase in order for ATP synthesis to occur.
D)All electrons would have to be stripped from water instead of NADH and FADH2 to create the proton gradient needed to power ATP synthase.
Q2) Why are fermentation reactions important for cells?
A)They produce alcohol used in alcoholic beverages.
B)They regenerate NAD so that glycolysis can continue.
C)They utilize oxygen.
D)They generate oxygen.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) In photosynthesis,what is the role of water (H O)?
A)It accepts electrons liberated from the reaction centre of photosystem I.
B)It donates electrons to replace lost electrons in the reaction centre of photosystem II.
C)It provides the necessary H+ ions needed to reduce glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P).
D)It provides O2,the terminal electron acceptor for the electron transport chain.
E)It allows cyclic photophosphorylation to occur when ATP levels are low in the stroma.
Q2) The process of photosynthesis probably originated
A)in plants.
B)in prokaryotes.
C)in fungi.
D)three separate times.
Q3) Stomata,openings in the leaf,are important to photosynthesis for
A)entry of carbon dioxide that is used in the Calvin cycle.
B)entry of oxygen that is used in the Calvin cycle.
C)removal of water and carbon dioxide,the end-products of photo-oxidation.
D)removal of nitrogen-containing waste products.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Mitosis is the process of chromosome separation.Cytoplasm is divided between the two daughter cells in a process known as A)karyokinesis.
B)cytokinesis.
C)S phase.
D)G phase.
Q2) In a culture of cells,it is observed that the cell cycle has arrested (stopped)during the G1 phase.The reason for this could be that
A)not all chromosomes have been replicated.
B)not all components needed for mitosis are present.
C)not all components needed for DNA replication are present.
D)not all chromosomes are attached to mitotic spindles.
Q3) What happens when MPF (mitosis-promoting factor)is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G ?
A)Nothing happens.
B)Fertilization occurs.
C)The cells enter mitosis.
D)Cell differentiation is triggered.
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13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) What can you infer from the karyotype shown in Figure 12.1?
A)There is a translocation in one of the chromosome 8 homologues.
B)This individual has a single sex chromosome.
C)This individual has an abnormal number of autosomes.
D)This is a karyotype of a male.
Q2) Grasshoppers have 11 pair of autosomes,and one sex chromosome.Which chromosome in Figure 12.5 is the sex chromosome?
A)e
B)X
C)j
D)k
Q3) Chromosome number of hexaploid wheat,Triticum aestivum,can be represented by which of the following?
A)n
B)2n
C)4n
D)6n
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) The B-globin gene has many alleles.What is the maximum number of different alleles of the B-globin gene that could be carried by 6 children with the same mom and dad given that the parents are heterozygous?
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)12
Q2) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs,what is the probability that the following parents,AABbCc × AaBbCc,will produce an AaBbCc offspring?
A)1/2
B)1/16
C)1/8
D)3/4
E)9/16
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) The fact that within a double-stranded DNA molecule,adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with guanine is known as A)semi-conservative replication.
B)complementary base pairing.
C)secondary structure of a DNA molecule.
D)a double helix.
Q2) Bodnar et al.(1998)used telomerase to extend the life span of normal human cells.Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide.How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?
A)Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.
B)Telomerase ensures that the ends of the chromosomes are accurately replicated and eliminates telomere shortening.
C)Telomerase shortens telomeres and thus delays cellular aging.
D)Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) In the Morse code,a series of dots and dashes code for letters of the alphabet.How is this analogous to the genetic code?
A)There is complementarity in the genetic code (A is complementary to T,and C is complementary to G).
B)The bases that make up DNA are associated by hydrogen bonds.
C)The machinery involved in DNA synthesis is analogous to the telegraph equipment used in sending Morse code.
D)The bases of DNA code for the more complex amino acid sequence of the various proteins found in cells.
Q2) Refer to the figure above.If an organism is given E in their diet,they survive.However,if the same organism is given only substrate A,B,C,or D in their diet,they die.Which of the enzymes is most likely defective?
A)Enzyme 1
B)Enzyme 2
C)Enzyme 3
D)Enzyme 4
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Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) What molecule is responsible for the catalytic activity in the spliceosomes that are involved in removal of introns?
A)RNA polymerase
B)ribozymes
C)proteins of the spliceosome
D)autocatalysis by introns
Q2) A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is ________ the functional mRNA,while a primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell is ________ the functional mRNA.
A)the same size as;the same size as
B)larger than;the same size as
C)larger than;smaller than
D)the same size as;larger than
Q3) The TATA box of the eukaryotic promoter is analogous to which structure of the prokaryotic promoter?
A)sigma
B)the -10 box
C)the -35 box
D)the site of initiation
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18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod,what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon?
A)The lac operon would be transcribed constitutively.
B)Only lacZ would be transcribed.
C)Only lacY would be transcribed.
D)Galactosidase permease would be produced,but would be incapable of transporting lactose.
Q2) Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription.If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level,what would be different?
A)The ability to rapidly respond to environmental change would be reduced.
B)Cells would expend significantly more energy.
C)Genes would no longer be transcribed.
D)Translation of mRNA into protein would not occur.
Q3) What is an inducer?
A)A substrate that stimulates gene expression in a reaction.
B)A product that stimulates gene expression in a reaction.
C)A substrate that inhibits gene expression in a reaction.
D)A product that inhibits gene expression in a reaction.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) In the experiment shown in the figure above,Tonegawa and his colleagues were able to express -globin in an antibody-producing cell that normally does not express -globin.They achieved this result by splicing an enhancer from an antibody-producing gene into the protein-coding portion of the -globin gene.They then introduced this recombinant gene into cultured antibody-producing cells.Why was the choice of antibody-producing cells-rather than,say,muscle or skin cells-critical for the success of this experiment?
A)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct regulatory transcription factors to bind to the enhancer.
B)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of enhancers.
C)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of promoter-proximal elements.
D)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of enhancers,promoter-proximal elements,and promoters.
E)Only the antibody-producing cells are capable of expressing recombinant genes.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) You ask your student to transfer a plasmid-free bacterial strain to multiple small tubes for long term storage.A short while later,your student admits that he did not use a clean sterile pipette to transfer the bacteria to the small tubes,but rather grabbed the same pipette he had just used to collect newly transformed bacteria.Why would this pose a problem?
A)Plasmids can be transferred between bacteria via pili.
B)Newly transformed bacteria will actively undergo binary fission.
C)Plasmid can contain genes that confer antibiotic resistance.
D)Plasmids will incorporate into the chromosomal DNA.
Q2) Imagine that you've isolated the complete human growth hormone gene directly from the human genome.After running through all the steps described in Chapter 19 for cloning and gene expression in bacteria,you find that no human growth hormone is expressed.What is the most likely explanation?
A)Human DNA cannot be cloned in a bacterium.
B)Human DNA can be maintained in cloned form only for brief periods in bacteria.
C)Bacteria cannot translate human mRNA coding sequences.
D)Bacteria cannot carry out splicing.
E)Bacteria lack a nucleus for proper transcription of eukaryotic genes.
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21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) In the microarray shown in the figure above,if you were searching for genes whose expression was inhibited by hormone treatment,you would search for sequences spotted on the array that showed ________ fluorescence.
A)no
B)high levels of
C)green
D)red
E)yellow
Q2) Why would any sequence assembly program be written so as to ignore repeated sequences?
A)These sequences are too unreliable to consider.
B)These sequences are too hard to obtain to justify the effort.
C)These sequences are too short to be useful for assembly.
D)These sequences are difficult to place within an assembly.
Q3) The bulk of the sequence data in whole genome sequencing comes from
A)relatively large (~ 160 kb)sequences cloned into BACs.
B)relatively small (~ 1000 base-pair)sequences cloned into plasmids.
C)whole chromosomes obtained without cloning.
D)whole chromosomes cloned into plasmids.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of the head segments.The probable mutation would be found in A)segment-polarity genes.
B)gap genes.
C)pair-rule genes.
D)homeotic genes.
Q2) During development,what a cell differentiates into depends in part on its location along three body axes.Which axis runs towards the organism's belly?
A)dorsal
B)anterior
C)posterior
D)ventral
Q3) For which of the following reasons are adult stem cells said to be multipotent?
A)They can divide and develop into any part of the multicellular organism.
B)They can only divide and develop into a limited number of related cells types.
C)They can divide and develop to form a complete multicellular organism.
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23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) The function of the acrosomal complex during fertilization is A)to block polyspermy.
B)to dissolve the coating of the egg.
C)to nourish the sperm mitochondria.
D)to permit maximum sperm motility.
Q2) Why would an increased level of calcium ions be observed in a newly fertilized sea urchin egg?
A)Calcium facilitates the binding of bindin to the bindin receptor.
B)Increased calcium allows the sperm and egg nuclei to join efficiently,resulting in the formation of a zygote nucleus.
C)Calcium promotes release of proteases from the egg,which digest the egg-cell receptor and prevent polyspermy.
D)Calcium promotes an influx of water that results in a fertilization envelope.
E)Answers C and D
Q3) In mammals,the zona pellucida is digested during the process of fertilization.This structure is probably similar to
A)the cortical granules of the sea urchin egg.
B)the jelly layer of the sea urchin egg.
C)the vitelline envelope of the sea urchin egg.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Why is it advantageous for plants to have more than one shoot apical meristem (SAM)and more than one root apical meristem (RAM)?
A)Multiple SAMs and RAMs provide plants with the ability to deal with environmental changes in terms of resource availability.
B)Multiple SAMs and RAMs allow plants to decide where and when they should grow.
C)If one SAM or RAM doesn't function properly/got eaten,another SAM or RAM can take over.
D)All of A,B,and C
E)Both A and C.
Q2) Interactions between proteins on the surface of the pollen grain and on the surface of the stigma are necessary for fertilization to proceed.What is the correct sequence of events that follow this interaction?
A)growth of pollen tube,double fertilization,formation of sperm
B)formation of sperm,growth of pollen tube,double fertilization
C)double fertilization,growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm
D)formation of sperm,double fertilization,growth of pollen tube
E)growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm,double fertilization
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) A population of rabbits grows explosively because resources are high.However,now that numbers have increased substantially,there is not enough food for all individuals and the population is threatened.What will happen under such circumstances?
A)The rabbits will share the food with each other;if everyone gets a little bit of food,the population will survive.
B)A random group of the rabbits will survive and reproduce to form the next generation.
C)There will be competition for the food and some rabbits will not survive to reproduce.
D)Some rabbits will move away to find another food source so that individuals remaining in the population will survive.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of acclimation?
A)Some hemoglobins have a higher affinity for oxygen than others.
B)Some animals grow thicker coats when exposed to low temperatures.
C)Some bacteria can use the energy from sunlight to make sugars.
D)Some plant species can absorb nitrogen better than others can.
E)Some fungi are larger than others are.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Dark-eyed junco birds have white outer tail feathers that the males display during aggressive interactions and also during courtship displays.Males with more white in their tail are more likely to win aggressive interactions with other males,and females prefer to mate with males with more white in their tails.In the case of juncos,aggression (fighting)by males is a type of ________ selection;thus,we would expect that variation in reproductive success to be higher in ________ and this species should exhibit ________ sexual dimorphism.
A)intrasexual;males;greater
B)intersexual;males;less
C)intrasexual;males;less
D)intersexual;females;greater
E)intrasexual;females;greater
Q2) Genetic drift occurs in a population.Which of the following statements might be true?
A)Genetic drift increased the population's fitness.
B)Genetic drift decreased the population's fitness.
C)The population was relatively small.
D)Two of the above statements might be true.
E)Any of the above statements might be true.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) How are two different species most likely to evolve from one ancestral species?
A)sympatrically,by a point mutation affecting morphology or behavior
B)allopatrically,after the ancestral species has split into two populations
C)phylogenetically,due to heterozygote advantage in hybrids
Q2) You are studying two populations of spiders of the Dolomedes genus,characterized by a light stripe down each side of the body.One population lives in a pond,while another nearby population lives in the trees.Which of the following species concept would you be using if you determined that these were two different species?
A)biological
B)morphospecies
C)phylogenetic
D)ecological
Q3) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the morphological species concept?
A)It cannot be used to evaluate fossils.
B)It is subjective in nature,with differences of opinion that cannot be resolved by data.
C)Two groups may use very similar resources,but be evolutionarily independent.
D)Reliable information exists only for a small number of organisms.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Deletions in mice in the Hoxa3 gene,on the A cluster,result in abnormal formation of glands in the neck.Deletions in the homologous Hoxd3 gene,on the D cluster,result in abnormal formation of the neck skeleton.The protein-coding sequences of Hoxa3 and Hoxd3 are about 50% the same.Researchers inserted a functional copy of the coding sequence of Hoxd3 in place of the coding sequence of a nonfunctional Hoxa3.They left all promoters,enhancers,splicing signals,and processing signals of Hoxa3 in place.Normal neck gland development was restored.What can you conclude?
(J.M.Greer,J.Puetz,K.R.Thomas,and M.R.Capecchi.2000.Maintenance of functional equivalence during paralogous Hox gene evolution.Nature 403:661-65.)
A)The protein-coding sequence is most important in producing different functions.
B)Regulation of the genes is most important in producing different functions.
C)Either A or B could be true.
Q2) Which of the following would be useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a taxon?
A)morphological data from fossil species
B)genetic sequences from living species
C)gehavioral data from living species
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) While examining a rock surface,you have discovered an interesting new organism.Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria,but not Archaea or Eukarya?
A)It is unicellular.
B)Its cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
C)The organism does not have nucleus.
D)It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.
Q2) You might be interested to know how many different types of bacteria live on the shower curtain in your bathroom.What is the most efficient method for answering this question?
A)enrichment culture
B)direct sequencing
C)Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.
Q3) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?
A)pathogenic,omnipresent,morphologically diverse
B)extremophiles,tiny,abundant
C)small,harmful,fast-growing
D)tiny,ubiquitous,metabolically diverse
E)all of the above
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) You discover a new lineage of protists.You examine several species of this lineage under the microscope and find a distinctive feature that sets them apart from other protists.Following the nomenclature style used to name the lineage Discicristata,you decide to name this new lineage Spherocristata.What is the distinctive feature that is reflected in the name?
A)a perfectly round nucleus
B)spherical cristae within their mitochondria
C)flagella that beat in a circle
D)spherical thylakoids within their chloroplasts
E)perfectly round lysosomes
Q2) Consider the following data: (a)Most ancient eukaryotes are unicellular.(b)All eukaryotes alive today have a nucleus and cytoskeleton.(c)Most ancient eukaryotes lack a cell wall.Which of the following conclusions could reasonably follow the data presented?
A)The first eukaryote may have been very similar to a plant cell.
B)The first eukaryote may have been anaerobic.
C)The first eukaryote may have been capable of phagocytosis.
D)The first eukaryote may have been photosynthetic.
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) Most moss leaves do not have a cuticle,are one to two cells thick,and have no veins.What does this imply about moss leaves and their structure?
A)They do not have stomata for gas exchange regulation.
B)They can easily lose water to,and absorb water from,the atmosphere.
C)They do not have vascular tissue.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) What is true about the genus Sphagnum?
A)It is an economically important liverwort.
B)It grows in extensive mats in grassland areas.
C)It is used by gardeners as a fertilizer.
D)It accumulates to form coal and is burned as a fuel.
E)It is an important carbon sink,reducing atmospheric CO .
Q3) Some plants changed their flowers to lighter colors,and some retained the same darker color all season.Which plants do you expect produced more fruit?
A)those that changed their color to a lighter shade
B)those that stayed darker
C)They probably produced the same numbers of fruit.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use.What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis?
A)Fungi survive better when they are associated with plants.
B)Radioactively labeled sugars produced by plants eventually show up in the fungi they are associated with.
C)Fungi associated with plants have the ability to undergo photosynthesis and produce their own sugars,while those not associated with plants do not produce their own sugars.
D)Radioactive label experiments show that plants pass crucial raw materials to the fungus for manufacturing sugars.
Q2) Fungi are most closely related to which of these groups?
A)plants
B)green algae
C)animals
D)red algae
Q3) Looking at Figure 31.1,draw a new graph that plots the percentage of plant species in the fossil pollen and spore record,and write a figure legend comparing it to the original figure.
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is not a feature of the tube-within-a-tube body plan in most animals?
A)Typically,the outer tube consists of a hard exoskeleton.
B)The inner tube consists of digestive organs.
C)Typically,the mouth and anus form the ends of the inner tube.
D)The two "tubes" are separated by mesoderm tissue.
Q2) Due to its unusual habitat (inside the digestive tracts of other animals),the tapeworm lacks
A)a head
B)a mouth
C)a digestive tract
D)B and C
E)A,B,and C
Q3) Which of the following combinations of embryonic features is common in the deuterostomes?
A)spiral cleavage and the gastrulation pore (or gastropore)becomes the anus
B)radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the mouth
C)absence of cleavage and gastropore becomes the anus
D)spiral cleavage and the absence of gastropore formation
E)radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the anus
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Here is a statement from the text: "The ability to live in terrestrial environments evolved independently in arthropods (at least twice),molluscs,roundworms,and annelids." What logical conclusion would you make from this statement?
A)All these groups have a coelom.
B)The common ancestor of all these groups was probably aquatic.
C)All these groups have the same type of body plan.
D)All these groups lost their coelom after moving to land.
Q2) Which of the following do Nematoda and Arthropoda not have in common?
A)The initial pore formed in the gastrula stage becomes the mouth.
B)They are suspension feeders.
C)They grow by shedding their outer covering.
D)They are both ecdysozoans.
Q3) If you wanted to identify an unfamiliar protostome with a limbless,wormlike body,which characteristic would not be helpful in differentiating one species from another?
A)what kind of mouthparts the organism had
B)whether the organism metamorphosed into a different form
C)whether the organism moved using a hydrostatic skeleton
D)whether the organism's body was divided into segments
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following statements about human races is correct?
A)Africans are genetically much closer to Asians than to Caucasians.
B)Humans are one of only a few mammal species with clearly defined genetic races.
C)Very little genetic divergence occurs among different human populations.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Suppose,while out camping in a forest,you found a chordate with a long,slender,limbless body slithering across the ground near your tent.To which of the following lineages could it belong?
A)Myxinoidea
B)Dipnoi
C)Mammalia
D)Amphibia
E)Chondrichthyes
Q3) How are hemichordates,urochordates,and cephalochordates similar?
A)All have motile larvae that become sessile adults.
B)All have pharyngeal gill slits at some point during development.
C)All produce amniotic eggs.
D)All have an endoskeleton of either bone or cartilage.
E)All have a notochord at some point during development.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) You have isolated the genome from a novel virus and would like to determine its composition.You have three tubes,each containing one of these substances: 1. a protein that degrades dsDNA (DNase,tube 1)
2) a protein that degrades ssRNA (RNase,tube 2)
3) a protein that degrades other proteins (protease,tube 3)
You add some of your novel genome to tubes 1,2,and 3.The genome is not degraded in tube 1,2,or 3.Based on your knowledge of genome types that have been found in viruses,what could the genome's composition be?
A)dsRNA
B)dsDNA that is resistant to DNase
C)ssDNA
D)It could be any of the above.
Q2) What is a significant difference between lytic and lysogenic viral growth?
A)In lytic growth,there are no mature viruses produced.
B)In lysogenic growth,the viral genome gets incorporated into the host genome.
C)In lytic growth,the host cells are not destroyed.
D)In lysogenic growth,there is a continuous release of mature viral particles throughout the infection.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Growth and development of plant parts involves
A)cell division to produce new cells.
B)enlargement and elongation of cells.
C)specialization of cells into tissues.
D)all of the above.
Q2) What is true about plant meristematic cells?
A)They are distributed evenly in all tissues throughout the plant.
B)They are undifferentiated cells that produce new cells.
C)They produce outgrowths called root hairs.
D)They subdivided into three distinct cell types named parenchyma,collenchyma,or sclerenchyma.
E)They are the main cells involved with transpiration.
Q3) Wood is an accumulation of
A)primary xylem.
B)secondary xylem.
C)vascular bundles.
D)primary phloem.
E)secondary phloem.
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) The pressure-flow mechanism for sugar translocation you have learned about in this class is based on research on angiosperms,and thus might not occur in other vascular plants.Which of the following real or hypothetical observations on gymnosperms would suggest they possess a different mechanism?
A)Pores in the sieve areas of their sieve-tube members are filled with numerous membranes.
B)Gymnosperms do not possess vessels.
C)Bidirectional phloem transport occurs in gymnosperms.
D)Asymmetric annual growth rings occur in gymnosperms.
E)Formation of buds is supported by products of photosynthesis primarily from leaves on the same branch.
Q2) Cell-to-cell water movement always occurs from
A)higher to lower pressure potential.
B)higher to lower solute potential.
C)lower to higher solute potential.
D)higher to lower water potential.
E)lower to higher water potential.
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following is the most energy-demanding process?
A)reduction of N to NH
B)reduction of NO to NH
C)nitrification of NH to NO
D)nitrification of NO to NO
E)denitrification of NO to N
Q2) Which of the following binds to clay particles?
A)potassium ions
B)nitrate ions
C)phosphoric acid
D)carbon dioxide
E)potassium and nitrate ions
Q3) Which of the following leads to soil erosion?
A)deforestation
B)farming
C)urban sprawl
D)natural causes
E)all of the above
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) You have discovered a previously unidentified plant,and you cultivate it in your lab.You notice that its flowers close when people are talking,yet are open when the lab is relatively quiet.You suspect that this plant may have the ability to hear! Based on what you know about plant sensation,which of the following hypotheses is the most reasonable to explain this phenomenon?
A)There is a cell-surface protein on the epidermal cells that becomes phosphorylated in response to vibration by sound waves.
B)There are tiny hairs on epidermal cells that bend in response to the vibration of sound waves,triggering an action potential in epidermal cells.
C)There is a cell-surface receptor on root cells that becomes phosphorylated when the soil vibrates in response to sound waves.
D)All of the above answers are correct.
Q2) If a Venus flytrap were treated with a drug that inhibited the H -ATPase,which of the following would likely happen?
A)Its cells would become depolarized.
B)It would not be able to close its flytraps.
C)It would not be able to reopen its flytraps once closed.
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) It is possible to make seedless tomatoes by removing the anthers of the flower and putting a hormone (auxin)on the stigma of the tomato flower.Weekly applications are required.Over the course of development,the stigma and style fall off,and the ovary develops into a normal-looking tomato with no seeds.Normally,seed and fruit formation are coordinated using hormone signaling.What does the application of auxin indicate?
A)The stigma of a tomato flower produces auxin that is necessary for pollination.
B)Pollen is not usually required to make fruits.
C)Applied auxin must substitute for an auxin source in a developing seed.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?
A)Cell division occurs in the embryo,and growth starts.
B)Mitochondria multiply and provide energy for growth processes.
C)Water is taken up.
D)Oxygen is produced and proteins are synthesized.
E)New mRNAs and proteins are produced.
Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon?
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Gills serve multiple functions in fish in addition to gas exchange.Given the large surface area of gills with lamellae,what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal?
A)to prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water
B)to prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water
C)to prevent protein loss to the surrounding water
D)to prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water
Q2) In a species of bird,some males help the females care for the eggs and young,while other males do not.Young that are cared for by both the male and female are more likely to survive.Which of the following activities by males that do not provide parental care would represent the most beneficial trade-off for the reduced survival of their offspring?
A)attacking the nests of neighboring males
B)mating with additional females and fathering more eggs
C)eating to build up energy stores for migration
D)grooming to eliminate parasites from their feathers
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) Insects maintain water and electrolyte balance through which anatomical structures?
A)kidneys
B)Malpighian tubules
C)rectal gland
D)chloride cells
Q2) Through studies on the Malpighian tubules,researchers found that K accumulated on the inner face of the tubule,against its concentration gradient.What can you infer about the mechanism of transport?
A)Potassium transport is a passive process.
B)Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an energy-requiring process.
C)Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the lumen of the tubules.
D)Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.
Q3) The force driving simple diffusion is A)ATP.
B)a concentration gradient.
C)transmembrane pumps.
D)phosphorylated protein carriers.
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) What is the function of goblet cells of the stomach epithelium?
A)release of acid
B)synthesis and release of pepsinogen
C)absorption of end-products of digestion
D)secretion of mucus to protect the stomach lining from the acidic environment
Q2) Villi and microvilli that are associated with the luminal surface of the intestinal epithelium are important in that they
A)increase the surface area available for absorption.
B)contain stratified (layered)epithelial cells for protection against pathogens entering with food.
C)transport substances from the epithelial cells into the circulatory system.
D)contain cilia that facilitate movement of the contents of the alimentary canal toward the anus.
Q3) Cholecystokinin (CCK)stimulates the release of numerous digestive enzymes.Which of the following digestive enzymes is NOT released by CCK?
A)chymotrypsin
B)pancreatic amylase
C)elastase
D)pepsin
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) An animal has a cardiac output of 40 mL/min and a stroke volume of 5 mL.What is its heart rate?
A)8 beats/minute
B)200 beats/minute
C)12.5 beats/minute
D)Heart rate cannot be determined with only these two variables.
Q2) Many organs have adaptations to increase the rate of diffusion of a gas or solute.How are fish gills adapted to optimize oxygen absorption?
A)Bidirectional flow of water across the gills
B)Co-current flow of water across the gills and blood within the gill capillaries
C)Continual flow of water across the gills
D)Countercurrent flow of water across the gills and blood within the gill capillaries
Q3) Which of the following is a function of the insect tracheal system?
A)transport of hormones
B)transport of wastes
C)transport of carbon dioxide
D)transport of cells involved in the immune response
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) The autonomic nervous system does NOT control
A)airway diameter.
B)contraction of skeletal muscle.
C)heart rate.
D)pupil dilation and constriction.
E)stomach activity.
Q2) Where are the sodium channels that trigger an action potential located?
A)axon hillock
B)axon dendrite
C)axon terminal
D)axon cell body
Q3) The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell due to A)osmosis.
B)diffusion.
C)sodium-potassium pumps.
D)symports and antiports.
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) How would the absence of the enzyme photodiesterase (PDE)affect vision in the vertebrate eye?
A)The opsins found in cones would not be differentiated into the red,blue,and green proteins,causing the animals to be color blind.
B)The cGMP-gated sodium channels would remain open,glutamate would be continuously discharged at the synapses,and the brain would not detect light absorbed by the rod cells.
C)The lens could not be appropriately adjusted to focus light on the retina,resulting in either nearsightedness or farsightedness.
D)All of the above answers are correct.
Q2) How does the ear allow humans to distinguish the volume of different sounds?
A)Louder sounds cause larger action potentials than softer sounds.
B)Louder sounds cause smaller action potentials than softer sounds.
C)Louder sounds induce a higher frequency of action potentials than softer sounds.
D)Louder sounds induce a lower frequency of action potentials than softer sounds.
E)Answers A and C are both correct.
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) You are dissecting a fish in your biology laboratory section.Your teaching assistant points out a long oval structure and tells you it is an endocrine gland.Which of the following is true about this structure?
A)It secretes a product that is carried in the bloodstream or other fluids to target cells.
B)The gland's product will interact with receptors on the cell membrane or inside target cells.
C)The gland's product is secreted into the cavity of some organ,outside of the circulatory system.
D)Only answers A and B apply.
E)Only answers B and C apply.
Q2) When an ant locates a food source,it leaves a trail that other ants can follow to locate the same food source.What type of chemical signalling is this an example of?
A)neural
B)paracrine
C)pheromones
D)autocrine
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) You are studying two species of birds,both of which form monogamous pairs (one male and one female).In species 1,you find that the eggs in a pair's nest are in fact almost always the offspring of that pair.In species 2,you are surprised to find that many of the eggs in a nest were actually fathered by males of neighboring pairs.Apparently,mating outside of monogamous pairings is widespread in species 2.Given this information,what would be the logical prediction to make before comparing testis size of males of the two species?
A)Testes of species 1 are larger than testes of species 2.
B)Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1.
C)There is no relationship between this observation and the size of testes.
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE regarding bird reproduction?
A)The female can still lay eggs even when fertilization has not taken place.
B)After they are laid,bird eggs have the same amount of nutrients as a human egg.
C)Birds lay eggs and thus are oviparous.
D)Female birds only have one ovary.
Q3) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) A boy falls while riding his bike.A scrape on his hand almost immediately begins to bleed and becomes red,warm,and swollen.What response is occurring?
A)innate immune response
B)acquired immune response
C)inflammation
D)both A and C
E)both B and C
Q2) Lymphocytes are formed in what organ(s)?
A)spleen
B)thymus
C)bone marrow
D)both A and C
E)both B and C
Q3) Which of the following is true of the allergic response?
A)Sufferers produce the IgE class of gamma globulins in response to allergens.
B)Upon the very first exposure to an allergen,an allergy sufferer will probably experience a runny nose,watery eyes,and mild wheezing.
C)It is a normal,healthy,adaptive response to an allergen.
D)All of the above answers are true.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Looking at the figure above,which number would designate the tropical wet forest biome?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) Which of the following is not a biotic component of a burrow community?
A)the different species living in the burrow
B)the population of each species in the burrow
C)the air quality of the burrow
D)the food sources in the burrow
Q3) Besides sunlight,which would be the next most important climatic factors for plants?
A)wind and fire
B)moisture and wind
C)temperature and wind
D)temperature and moisture
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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) Any process in which a signal from one individual modifies the behavior of a recipient individual is termed A)cognition.
B)communication.
C)reflex.
D)perception.
Q2) Which of the following conclusions is most logical based on the data above?
A)Females produce more eggs more quickly when exposed to breeding males.
B)Females produce eggs more quickly when exposed to many males.
C)All non-isolated females do just as well as isolated females.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) A lizard's bobbing dewlap (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis lizard's throat)is an example of a A)stimulus.
B)reflex.
C)signal.
D)communication.
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Questions
Q1) Looking at the data in the figure above,what can be said about survival and clutch size?
A)Animals with low survival tend to have low clutch sizes.
B)High clutch sizes tend to produce animals with low survival.
C)Animals with high fecundity tend to live longer.
D)Animals with high fecundity tend not to live as long as animals with low fecundity.
Q2) Which of the two graphs in the figure above shows a population of organisms that has a strong population cycle?
A)(a)
B)(b)
C)both show identical cycles
Q3) In the figure above,which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries?
A)curve A
B)curve B
C)curve C
D)none of the above
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) Bouchard and Brooks (2004)studied the effect of insect flight on dispersal and speciation in rain-forest insects.They sampled all of the insects in the study area and found that 60 insect species are flightless and 19 are macropterous (able to fly).After analyzing the results of the Bouchard and Brooks study,you conclude that macropterous and flightless insects in the rain forests of northeastern Australia have dispersed and speciated in similar manners.What does this say about flight in these insects?
A)Flight,although used for locomotion,is not increasing the species dispersal efficiency in this community.
B)Flight is not important in these insects for success.
C)Flight is important only for mating.
D)Flight is the only factor involved in speciation in those insects with flight,and thus it is not important for dispersal of these species.
E)Nothing further can be said about flight.
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of consumption?
A)predation
B)mutualism
C)herbivory
D)parasitism
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following most often controls the rate of nutrient cycling in ecosystems?
A)rate of decomposition of detritus
B)primary productivity
C)secondary productivity
D)Both B and C
Q2) Plants never use 100% of the incoming solar radiation for photosynthesis on a yearly basis.What is a reasonable explanation for this?
A)Plants cannot photosynthesize during winter (in cold winter climates).
B)Plants cannot photosynthesize during dry periods.
C)The pigments that drive photosynthesis respond to only a fraction of the wavelengths available.
D)Both A and C
E)Both B and C
Q3) Which habitat type in the figure above covers the largest area on Earth?
A)tropical wet forest
B)open ocean
C)algal beds and reefs
D)wetlands
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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38 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) By knowing the interrelatedness of various snake species,the type of antivenom can be chosen depending on the species involved in the bite.Based on Figure 55.2,which snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by an Australian copperhead?
A)taipan
B)common brown snake
C)red-bellied black snake
D)death adder
E)tiger snake
Q2) Based on Figure 55.9,what can you conclude about land-use legacy in New England?
A)Population growth has increasingly devastated the forests.
B)A spike in lake sediments caused massive deforestation due to loss of soil nutrients.
C)Sediment spikes correlate with massive population growth.
D)Lake sediments reflect deforestation and despite reforestation,do not recover.
E)All of the above answers apply.
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