Biological Chemistry
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biological Chemistry explores the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. The course examines the structure, function, and interactions of biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids, and how these molecules contribute to cellular processes and overall biological function. Topics include enzyme mechanisms, metabolic pathways, bioenergetics, and the regulation of biochemical reactions. Through a combination of theoretical learning and practical laboratory experience, students gain a deep understanding of the molecular basis of life and the chemical foundations underlying biological systems.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Q1) Prior to 1926, the source of biological catalysis was postulated to be possessed by "ferments" which today are called _______.
A)proteins
B)nucleic acids
C)enzymes
D)polysaccharides
E)membranes
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following elements is considered a second tier biochemical element meaning that it is less abundant than first tier elements but still required for life in all organisms?
A)H
B)N
C)P
D)C
E)O
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Q1) Which of the following atoms could interact through a hydrogen bond?
A)the oxygen of a ketone and the hydrogen of an aldehyde
B)the oxygen of methanol and a hydrogen on the methyl carbon of methanol
C)the hydrogen of an amine and the oxygen of an alcohol
D)the hydrogen on an aromatic ring and the oxygen of carbon dioxide
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would likely form micelles in an aqueous solution?
A)hexane
B)glucose
C)glutamic acid
D)dodecanoic acid
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs. With a pK<sub>a</sub> of 7.0, what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?
Answer: 2.5 11ea7cd4_c4a8_33b6_a2ab_b9ca760947d7_TB2679_00
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Q1) Which of the following best describes biochemical systems with respect to the first law of thermodynamics?
A)most biochemical systems operate at constant volume
B)most biochemical systems operate at constant temperature
C)most biochemical systems operate at constant pressure
D)most biochemical systems operate with a constant number of molecules
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is a result of living cells not being at equilibrium?
A)the \(\Delta\)G for all reactions will always be negative
B)all reactions proceed in only one direction
C)if the concentration of products is greater than the concentration of reactants, the reaction will always proceed in the reverse direction
D)the entropy of cells is always increasing
E)the direction in which most reactions will proceed depends upon concentrations of reactants and products
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following, when paired with its complementary strand, would have the highest T<sub>m</sub>?
A)AAGTTCCAGT
B)GCAGCAGCAT
C)ATTACGAGCT
D)GCGAAATCAA
E)TGACCTTGAA
Q2) Which of the following describes the directionality seen in nucleic acids?
A)most polynucleotides have an unreacted 5' hydroxyl group
B)all polynucleotides have an unreacted 2' hydroxyl group
C)most polynucleotides have a phosphate group on the 5'end D)sequences of polynucleotides are generally written from 3' on the left to 5' on the right E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following bases is found only in DNA?
A)adenine
B)thymine
C)uracil
D)cytosine
E)guanine
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of
Protein Structure
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids is derived from another amino acid by the addition of an amine group?
A)lysine
B)asparagine
C)arginine
D)histidine
E)none of the above
Q2) Hydrolysis of a peptide bond produces:
A)an alcohol and an amine
B)an amine and a carboxylic acid
C)a carboxylic acid and an anhydride
D)an amide and a carboxylic acid
E)an alcohol and an amide
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the \(\alpha\)-carbon of an amino acid?
A)there are always four different functional groups attached
B)the most commonly occurring form of amino acids are the D-amino acids
C)when assigning the R-S stereochemistry, the carboxylic acid is always the highest priority functional group
D)for all amino acids except glycine, the \(\alpha\)-carbon is a stereocenter
E)none of the above
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following is a highly compact structure that is very commonly used to transition from one region of secondary structure to another in a globular protein?
A)\(\alpha\) bend
B)\(\beta\) turn
C)\(\alpha\)/\(\beta\) hairpin
D)high-glycine loop
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following would contribute to tertiary structure?
A)charge-charge interaction between lysine and aspartic acid
B)disulfide bond
C)hydrogen bond between serine hydroxyl group and amide of glutamine
D)hydrophobic interaction between leucine and valine
E)all of the above
Q3) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.
Q4) Draw a section of antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet showing two sheets with three residues in each sheet. Clearly show the hydrogen bond pattern between the two sheets.
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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following mutations in the coding strand of DNA would be the most likely to cause a serious mutation?
A)AGA \(\rarr\) CGA
B)ATA \(\rarr\) TTA
C)GAA \(\rarr\) AAA
D)TAA \(\rarr\) TGA
E)ACT \(\rarr\) AGT
Q2) Recent studies have shown that the H-bond between the distal histidine and oxygen molecule in myoglobin has a strength of ~ 15 kJ/mol, but in hemoglobin, the strength of the bond is only ~8 kJ/mol. What does this suggest about the differences between myoglobin and hemoglobin?
A)myoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than hemoglobin
B)hemoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than myoglobin
C)the iron in myoglobin is more easily oxidized than in hemoglobin
D)the iron in hemoglobin is more easily oxidized than in myoglobin
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the difference between red and white muscle?
A)red muscle has considerably more mitochondria than white muscle
B)white muscle has a lower concentration of myoglobin than red muscle
C)white muscle receives much less blood flow than red muscle
D)the main source of energy in red muscle is fatty acid oxidation while in white muscle it is glycolysis
E)all of the above
Q2) If a bacteria were found with a protein similar to flagellin but with a left-handed helical structure, how would the bacteria move when all flagella were rotating in a clockwise fashion?
A)the bacteria would tumble and change direction
B)the bacteria would run in a straight line
C)the bacteria would turn in a clockwise direction
D)the bacteria would turn in a counterclockwise direction
E)none of the above
Q3) Under typical conditions within a muscle cell, the \(\Delta\)G for hydrolysis of ATP is about -51 kJ/mol. If the energy required to move through one power stroke is 1.2 * 10<sup>-20</sup> J, what is the percent utilization of the energy from ATP hydrolysis?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars, Saccharides, Glycans
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Q1) The source of nitrogen for the synthesis of glucosamine-6-phosphate from fructose-6-phosphate is the amino acid ___________.
A)aspartate
B)asparagine
C)glutamate
D)glutamine
E)lysine
Q2) Draw a \(\beta\)-disaccharide composed of glucose linked to its C-2 epimer by an \(\alpha\)(1\(\rarr\)4)glycosidic bond with the anomeric carbon of glucose contributing to the glycosidic bond.
Q3) All glycosaminoglycans contain which of the following?
A)a sulfate ester
B)a \(\beta\)(1\(\rarr\)4)glycosidic bond
C)a carboxylate
D)an amine group that is either acetylated or sulfated
E)all of the above
Q4) Show the interaction that would take place between the R-group of asparagine in a protein and the substituent on C-2 of an N-acetylglucosamine residue of a glycan.
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Chapter 10: Lipids, Membranes and Cellular Transport
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Q1) The transient association of lipid rafts is thought to play a significant role in which of the following?
A)cell signaling
B)bacterial entry into host cells
C)protein trafficking
D)membrane receptor dimerization
E)all of the above
Q2) Fatty acids are _______ meaning that they have both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic region of the molecule
A)aliphatic
B)amphipathic
C)saturated
D)unsaturated
E)phosphorylated
Q3) Draw the following fatty acid: 18:3c\(\Delta\)9,12,15 as it would appear at physiological pH. With reference to the omega carbon, what type of fatty acid is this? Draw the result if this fatty acid underwent partial hydrogenation to produce 18:1t\(\Delta\)11
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Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Q1) Both ATP and CTP are allosteric regulators of the enzyme aspartate transcarbamoylase. Which of the following correctly identifies the activities of these two regulators?
A)ATP: activator; CTP: activator
B)ATP: activator; CTP: inhibitor
C)ATP: inhibitor; CTP: activator
D)ATP: inhibitor; CTP: inhibitor
E)none of the above
Q2) Which amino acid most commonly serves as a general acid and general base in an enzyme mechanism?
A)serine
B)arginine
C)aspartic acid
D)histidine
E)cysteine
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13
Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Q1) Pyruvic acid has the formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub>O<sub>3</sub>. Write the reaction for its complete combustion. What is its respiratory quotient? Does this mean that it is more oxidized or less oxidized than glucose?
Q2) Which of the following represents a correct compartmentation of a biochemical process with its cellular location?
A)fatty acid oxidation: endoplasmic reticulum
B)RNA synthesis: Golgi complex
C)citric acid cycle: mitochondria
D)gluconeogenesis: lysosome
E)none of the above
Q3) The formation of a hemiacetal when glucose undergoes cyclization represents what type of reaction?
A)nucleophilic substitution
B)nucleophilic addition
C)carbonyl condensation
D)elimination
E)oxidation
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Chapter 13: Carbohydrate Metabolism: Glycolysis,
Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose
Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) If unregulated, which of the following pairs of enzymes would represent a futile cycle?
A)pyruvate kinase and pyruvate carboxylase
B)pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
C)pyruvate kinase and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
D)fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and phosphofructokinase
E)glucose-6-phosphatase and phosphofructokinase
Q2) In most bacteria that utilize glucose, what molecule both aids in transport of glucose into the cell and is phosphorylating agent for conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
A)ATP
B)GTP
C)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
D)1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
E)phosphoenolpyruvate
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following best explains why thioesters have a greater free energy of hydrolysis than ordinary esters?
A)alcohols are better leaving groups than thiols
B)oxygen is more electronegative than sulfur
C)esters are resonance stabilized while thioesters are not
D)the oxygen of an ester is more easily protonated than the sulfur of a thioester E)none of the above
Q2) Which oxidation reaction requires the coenzyme FAD because it involves oxidation of a carbon-carbon single bond to a double bond?
A)oxidation of isocitrate to \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
B)oxidation of \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA
C)oxidation of succinate to fumarate
D)oxidation of malate to oxaloacetate
E)oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, Oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) Rotation of the ____ subunit causes the _____ subunit to change from tight conformation where ATP is produced to open conformation where ATP is released.
A)\(\gamma\); \(\alpha\)
B)\(\gamma\); \(\beta\)\(\gamma\)
C)\(\delta\); \(\alpha\)
D)\(\delta\); \(\beta\)
E)\(\varepsilon\); \(\beta\)
Q2) Which of the following pathways takes place primarily within the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A)fatty acid \(\beta\)-oxidation
B)electron transport
C)glycolysis
D)citric acid cycle
E)pentose phosphate pathway
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) For every 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate produced by rubisco, _____ are converted to hexoses while _____ are recycled to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.
A)2; 10
B)4; 8
C)6; 6
D)8; 4
E)10; 2
Q2) Which of the following carbohydrates is the most common molecule exported by photosynthetic cells for use in other parts of the plant?
A)amylose
B)amylopectin
C)glucose
D)sucrose
E)fructose
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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty Acids, Triacylglycerols, and Lipoproteins
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Q1) Individuals with diets high in coconut oil consume large amounts of lauric (12:0). What are the \(\beta\)-oxidation products of lauric acid?
A)6 acetyl-CoA, 6 NADH, 6 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 ATP used for activation
B)6 acetyl-CoA, 5 NADH, 5 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 ATP used for activation
C)6 acetyl-CoA, 6 NADH, 6 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 2 ATP used for activation
D)6 acetyl-CoA, 5 NADH, 5 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 2 ATP used for activation
E)none of the above
Q2) The futile cycle of triacylglycerol synthesis and triacylglycerol hydrolysis is controlled largely by AMP-activated protein kinase. Which of the following enzymes is regulated by AMP-activated protein kinase?
A)glycerol kinase
B)pyruvate carboxylase
C)glycerophosphate acyltransferase
D)glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
E)phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Q3) If gadoleic acid (20:1c\(\Delta\)9)underwent complete mitochondrial oxidation to CO<sub>2</sub>, how many ATP could be produced assuming that all reduced electron carriers are re-oxidized by the mitochondrial electron transport chain?
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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following is true of glucagon?
A)it is released from the pancreatic \(\beta\)-cells when glucose levels are low
B)its synthesis and release are exclusively under the control of epinephrine
C)the primary targets of glucagon are liver, adipose and muscle tissue
D)major pathways promoted by glucagon include glycogenolysis and glycolysis
E)none of the above
Q2) For skeletal muscle, which of the following correctly pairs the activity state with the source of energy?
A)resting: glucose
B)resting: amino acids
C)exertion: glucose
D)exertion: fatty acids
E)none of the above
Q3) What is the general reaction type catalyzed by most of the sirtuins?
A)deadenylation
B)deacetylation
C)dehydrogenation
D)deamination
E)dehydration
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, Steroids,
Isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids
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Q1) The enzyme PGH synthase contains two different functionalities, a __________ that uses two molecules of oxygen as substrates and __________ which performs a 2 electron reduction.
A)cyclooxygenase; peroxidase
B)cyclooxygenase; reductase
C)dioxygenase; peroxidase
D)dioxygenase; reductase
E)lipoxygenase; peroxidase
Q2) Which of the following phospholipids is produced in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
A)phosphatidylglycerol
B)phosphatidylserine
C)phosphatidylethanolamine
D)phosphatidylinositol
E)none of the above
Q3) Show the reaction catalyzed by 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutrayl-CoA reductase.
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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, Utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) Which of the following correctly explains the covalent modification used to control glutamine synthetase?
A)uridylylation activates, deuridylylation inhibits
B)uridylylation inhibits, deuridylylation activates
C)adenylation activates, deadenylation inhibits
D)adenylation inhibits, deadenylation activates
E)phosphorylation inhibits, dephosphorylation activates
Q2) Which of the following reactions is highly active in the liver when large amounts of amino acids are moving from extrahepatic tissue to the liver?
A)conversion of glutamate to glutamine
B)oxidation of glutamate by glutamate dehydrogenase
C)reduction of \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate by glutamate dehydrogenase
D)transamination of glutamate and pyruvate to \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate and alanine
E)none of the above
Q3) What would be the energy requirements of the urea cycle if both nitrogens of urea came from glutamine (assuming that any NADH made was re-oxidized via electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation)? Explain how this is possible.
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds II: Amino
Acids, Porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) Glyphosate, the active molecule in the herbicide Roundup, is an inhibitor of the enzyme 5-enolpuruvylshikimate-3-phosphate synthase in the chorismate synthesis pathway. Which of the following amino acids would not be produced in a plant treated with Roundup?
A)glycine
B)serine
C)tyrosine
D)valine
E)proline
Q2) In the pathway for conversion of phenylalanine to fumarate and acetoacetate, there are two well-known enzyme defects that cause inheritable metabolic diseases. What are the names of these two diseases?
A)homocysteinuria and nonketotic hyperglycinemia
B)phenylketonuria and maple syrup urine disease
C)alkaptonuria and nonketotic hyperglycinemia
D)alkaptonuria and phenylketonuria
E)maple syrup urine disease and homocysteinuria
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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following sequence of events best explains the formation of carbamate in the mechanism of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase?
A)Bicarbonate and ATP form carboxyphosphate, then NH<sub>3</sub> performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxyphosphate to form carbamate
B)Bicarbonate<sub> </sub>is attacked by NH<sub>3</sub> to produce carbamate with ATP hydrolysis occurring solely to drive the reaction to completion
C)Bicarbonate reacts with ATP forming carboxy adenylate and pyrophosphate, then NH<sub>3</sub> performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxy adenylate to form carbamate
D)NH<sub>3</sub> reacts with ATP, which then reacts with bicarbonate followed by loss of phosphate to produce carbamate E)none of the above
Q2) What molecule contributes at least two nitrogen atoms to each purine?
A)asparagine
B)10-formyltetrahydrofolate
C)glycine
D)glutamine
E)carbamoyl phosphate
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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) In the visual process, activated rhodopsin causes which of the following events to occur?
A)transducin binding to GTP
B)transducin binding to GDP
C)transducin binding to cGMP
D)transducin binding to GMP
E)none of the above
Q2) What is the primary target of releasing factors from the hypothalamus?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal medulla
C)adrenal cortex
D)posterior pituitary
E)anterior pituitary
Q3) A G protein is inactive when the _____ subunit is bound to __________.
A)\(\alpha\); GMP
B)\(\alpha\); GDP
C)\(\beta\); GMP
D)\(\beta\); GDP
E)\(\beta\)/\(\gamma\); GMP
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Chapter 24: Genes, Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) For a restriction enzyme with a 6-base recognition site, what is the average number of base pairs between occurrences of the site?
A)1296 base pairs
B)4096 base pairs
C)46656 base pairs
D)16777216 base pairs
E)none of the above
Q2) The argument that mitochondria and chloroplasts originally were self-sufficient bacteria is supported by the presence of what protein-DNA structure?
A)nucleoids
B)chromatin
C)importins
D)chromatids
E)nucleosomes
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26
Chapter 25: DNA Replication
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Q1) How does the gp32 protein facilitate both stabilization of single-stranded DNA as well as its renaturation to double-stranded DNA?
A)gp32 is an enzyme and thus its reaction of separating DNA strands is freely reversible
B)gp32 binds only to regions of high A and T content so hydrogen bonding is reversible
C)gp32 displays cooperativity in binding to single stranded DNA
D)the gp32 C-terminal domain acts as a switch between weak and strong single stranded DNA binding E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following exonuclease activities is present in DNA polymerase I?
A)3' exonuclease that degrades double stranded DNA
B)3' exonuclease that degrades hairpin DNA
C)5' exonuclease that degrades single stranded DNA
D)5' exonuclease that removes RNA from a DNA-RNA duplex E)none of the above
Q3) For the following sequence, indicate the RNA primer that would be needed to start synthesis of the Okazaki fragment.
5'-A-A-C-T-A-G-A-C-C-A-G-A-3'
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Chapter 26: DNA Restructuring: Repair, Recombination, Rearrangement, Amplification
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Q1) In antibody light chain production, combination of V and J regions occurs at the _____ level; combination of J and C regions occurs at the _____ level.
A)DNA; DNA
B)DNA; RNA
C)DNA; protein
D)RNA; RNA
E)RNA; protein
Q2) One mechanism to introduce greater diversity into antibody sequences is somatic hypermutation. What enzyme is responsible for somatic hypermutation in the DNA sequences that code for antibodies?
A)deoxyadenosine deaminase
B)deoxycytidine deaminase
C)deoxyadenosine transaminase
D)purine-pyrimidine transposase
E)none of the above
Q3) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and
Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Q1) In vivo, which of the following transcription initiation factors is required for binding to a TATA box?
A)TFIID
B)TFIIE
C)TFIIF
D)TFIIH
E)TAF
Q2) Draw a transcription bubble, clearly labeling the proteins and nucleic acids involved in the process.
Q3) What is required for conversion from the closed-promoter complex to open-promoter complex?
A)ATP binding
B)ATP hydrolysis
C)GTP binding
D)GTP hydrolysis
E)DNA bending
Q4) Give the mRNA sequence that would result from the following sense strand: 5'-A-T-C-T-C-G-A-T-C-G-T-A-C-G-A-T-G-T-C-A-3'
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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Q1) In most cases, the first codon in prokaryotic mRNA codes for ________ while the first codon in eukaryotic mRNA codes for ________.
A)methionine; N-formylmethionine
B)N-formylmethionine; methionine
C)proline; N-formylproline
D)N-formylproline; proline
E)none of the above
Q2) A repetitive mRNA of GAG could produce which of the following?
A)polyglutamate
B)polyleucine
C)polyleucine, polyserine, or polyproline
D)polyarginine, polyglycine or polyglutamate
E)none of the above
Q3) Which are paired by a Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
A)the mRNA sequence just upstream from the start codon with the ribosome
B)the first codon of the mRNA with its tRNA
C)a termination codon with a release factor
D)the 30S subunit with the 50S subunit of the ribosome
E)none of the above
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65207
Sample Questions
Q1) At the transcriptional level, how does tryptophan control the production of genes within the trp operon?
A)the trp repressor contains a high percentage of Trp residues and is thus only produced when Trp levels are high
B)without sufficient Trp, the production of the trp repressor is truncated, thus producing a protein that cannot bind to the operon, ultimately resulting in structural gene expression
C)high levels of Trp cause the repressor to be proteolytically digested
D)the trp repressor binds to the operon only when bound to Trp
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following accounts for the greater complexity in eukaryotic transcriptional control when compared with prokaryotic control?
A)physical separation of transcription from translation
B)the presence of chromatin instead of naked DNA
C)the larger size of the chromosomes
D)the presence of introns
E)none of the above
Q3) Design an antisense RNA that prevents the start of translation for any mRNA in an E. coli cell.
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