Course Introduction
Biological Chemistry
Exam Questions
Biological Chemistry explores the chemical processes and molecules fundamental to life, integrating principles from both chemistry and biology to understand the structure, function, and interactions of biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. The course covers topics including enzyme catalysis, metabolic pathways, bioenergetics, signal transduction, and molecular mechanisms underlying cellular processes. Students will develop an understanding of how chemical principles apply to biological systems, and how these insights drive advances in areas such as biotechnology, medicine, and environmental science.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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705 Verified Questions
705 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The synthesis of which molecule is considered by many to be the root of biochemistry since it was the first synthesis of a biological molecule from non-biological precursors?
A)DNA
B)urea
C)glucose
D)glycine
E)adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is a role played by proteins?
A)structural
B)transport
C)information signaling
D)catalysts
E)all of the above
Answer: E
Q3) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways.Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid.Based upon this name,draw the molecule.
Answer: 11ea8a11_436d_60c5_8b44_bfd5f6b258f9_TB4872_00
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Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is the most likely noncovalent interaction observed between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol?
A)charge-charge interaction
B)charge-dipole interaction
C)dipole-dipole interaction
D)dipole-induced dipole interaction
E)formation of an ester bond
Answer: B
Q2) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs.With a pK<sub>a</sub> of 7.0,what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?
Answer: 2.5 11ea8a11_436e_4b29_8b44_234f570e4c48_TB4872_00
Q3) Formic acid is the active agent in an ant bite.What is the ratio of base/acid for formic acid (pK<sub>a</sub> 3.9)in the blood stream at pH 7.4?
A)3.16 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup>
B)3.16 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup>
C)3.5
D)0.54
E)1.90
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Q1) If the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0'for ATP hydrolysis is -31 kJ/mol and the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' for phosphoenolpyruvate hydrolysis is -62 kJ/mol,what is the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' for the phosphorylation of ADP by phosphoenolpyruvate?
A)-93 kJ/mol
B)-31 kJ/mol
C)+31 kJ/mol
D)+93 kJ/mol
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a closed system?
A)a human living alone on a small island
B)the planet Earth
C)a fish living in a fish bowl
D)a bacteria living in the large intestine
E)a bacteria living in a Petri dish
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following best explains why the ratios of A/T and G/C are 0.77 and 1.08,respectively in bacteriophage \(\phi\)X174?
A)the base pairing in bacteriophages is not always A-T and C-G
B)studies done with most bacteriophages do not use complete genomic DNA due to the inherent instability of phage DNA
C)bacteriophage DNA often uses bases other than A,T,C and G
D)many viruses often use single stranded DNA
E)none of the above
Q2) Draw the structure of cytosine and thymine,then show the most common tautomer of each.
Q3) In the Watson-Crick DNA model,how many base pairs are found in one turn of the helix?
Q4) Show the typical hydrogen bonds that from when adenine pairs with its complimentary base.
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of
Protein
Structure
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of amino acids could form a hydrogen bond through their R-groups?
A)serine and phenylalanine
B)aspartic acid and methionine
C)histidine and tyrosine
D)alanine and glutamine
E)leucine and cysteine
Q2) Of the following amino acids,which will have a pI closest to 3?
A)Cys
B)His
C)Gly
D)Asp
E)Lys
Q3) Which of the following events occurs after the formation of disulfide bonds during the conversion of preproinsulin to mature insulin?
A)folding of proinsulin into a stable conformation
B)transport of the molecule through the membranes
C)cleavage of the peptide sequence that joins the A and B chains
D)cleavage of the leader sequence
E)posttranslational modification of specific proline residues
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following is a highly compact structure that is very commonly used to transition from one region of secondary structure to another in a globular protein?
A)\(\alpha\) bend
B)\(\beta\) turn
C)\(\alpha\)/\(\beta\) hairpin
D)high-glycine loop
E)none of the above
Q2) The two amino acids most often found in a polyproline II helix are proline and _______.
A)alanine
B)glycine
C)serine
D)lysine
E)histidine
Q3) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.
Q4) Draw a section of antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet showing two sheets with three residues in each sheet.Clearly show the hydrogen bond pattern between the two sheets.
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8
Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Q1) The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is said to be _______________.
A)high affinity
B)low affinity
C)sigmoidal
D)cooperative
E)sequential
Q2) Which of the following methods could be used to produce a F<sub>ab</sub> fragment from an IgG?
A)treatment with reducing agent,isolation of the light chain,removal of reducing agent
B)treatment with reducing agent,isolation of the heavy chain,removal of reducing agent
C)treatment with papain,separation of the F<sub>ab</sub> fragment from the rest of the heavy chain
D)treatment with papain,separation of the F<sub>ab</sub> fragment from the rest of the light chain
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which form of myosin is found in striated muscle?
A)I
B)II
C)IV
D)VI
E)all of the above
Q2) Which protein of the thin filament is responsible for calcium binding?
A)tropomyosin
B)troponin C
C)troponin T
D)calmodulin
E)actin
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes the organization that gives rise to muscle?
A)myofibril \(\to\)sarcomere \(\to\)myofiber \(\to\) muscle
B)sarcomere \(\to\) myofiber \(\to\) myofibril \(\to\) muscle
C)myofibril \(\to\) myofiber \(\to\) sarcomere \(\to\) muscle
D)sarcomere \(\to\) myofibril \(\to\) myofiber \(\to\) muscle
E)myofiber \(\to\) myofibril \(\to\) sarcomere \(\to\) muscle
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Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars,saccharides,glycans
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Q1) How many stereoisomers would be expected from a ketohexose?
A)4
B)8
C)16
D)32 E)64
Q2) An N-linked glycan would be attached to ______ while an O-linked glycan would be attached to ________.
A)Asn;Ser
B)Lys;Tyr
C)Gln;Thr
D)Arg;Ser
E)Lys;Ser
Q3) How many carbon atoms are found in the smallest molecules that are classified as carbohydrates?
A)1
B)2 C)3
D)4 E)5
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Chapter 10: Lipids,membranes and Cellular Transport
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Q1) The sequence of glycophorin A displays which of the following?
A)the N-terminal domain contains large amounts of hydrophobic amino acids indicating only the N-terminus is embedded in the membrane
B)the C-terminal domain contains a high concentration of Ser and Thr for attachment of O-linked oligosaccharides
C)both the N-terminal and C-terminal domains contain high concentrations of Ser and Thr for attachment of O-linked oligosaccharides
D)the middle portion contains large amounts of hydrophobic amino acids indicating a transmembrane protein
E)none of the above
Q2) A ceramide is derived from which combination of the following?
A)a molecule of sphingosine and a monosaccharide
B)a molecule of sphingosine and a molecule of phosphocholine
C)a molecule of sphingosine and a fatty acid
D)a molecule of sphingosine and two fatty acids
E)a molecule of sphingosine,a fatty acid and a monosaccharide
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Q1) Which amino acid most commonly serves as a general acid and general base in an enzyme mechanism?
A)serine
B)arginine
C)aspartic acid
D)histidine
E)cysteine
Q2) The steady state assumption in enzyme kinetics:
A)insures that the product of an enzymatic reaction will always be formed
B)explains why enzymes are effective catalysts
C)states that the formation of ES is equal to its breakdown
D)is based upon the fact that the maximum velocity of an enzyme is very high
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following explains why enzymes are extremely effective catalysts?
A)an enzyme stabilizes the transition state
B)enzymes bind very tightly to substrates
C)enzymes release products very rapidly
D)an enzyme can convert a normally endergonic reaction into an exergonic reaction
E)an enzyme lowers the energy of activation only for the forward reaction
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following functional groups is a commonly seen nucleophile in biochemical reactions?
A)aldehyde
B)deprotonated alcohol
C)amide
D)carbocation
E)iodide ion
Q2) Which of the following represents a correct compartmentation of a biochemical process with its cellular location?
A)fatty acid oxidation: endoplasmic reticulum
B)RNA synthesis: Golgi complex
C)citric acid cycle: mitochondria
D)gluconeogenesis: lysosome
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a biosynthetic pathway?
A)glycolysis
B)glycogen synthesis
C)fatty acid \(\beta\)-oxidation
D)citric acid cycle
E)electron transport
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Chapter
Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) In the vertebrate liver,which major regulatory point is bypassed during fructose metabolism,often leading to conversion of excess fructose into fat?
A)hexokinase
B)phosphofructokinase
C)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
D)pyruvate kinase
E)none of the above
Q2) In its non-phosphorylated state,glycogen phosphorylase can be activated by which of the following molecules?
A)ATP
B)glucose-6-phosphate
C)glucose
D)AMP
E)none of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is an equilibrium-controlled reaction of the citric acid cycle?
A)citrate synthase
B)isocitrate dehydrogenase
C)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
D)succinate dehydrogenase
E)all of the above
Q2) Which oxidation reaction requires the coenzyme FAD because it involves oxidation of a carbon-carbon single bond to a double bond?
A)oxidation of isocitrate to \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
B)oxidation of \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA
C)oxidation of succinate to fumarate
D)oxidation of malate to oxaloacetate
E)oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
Q3) __________ activates __________,thereby inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase.
A)NADH;pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
B)Ca<sup>2+</sup>;pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>;pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
D)ATP;pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
E)pyruvate;pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Electron Transport, oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) Which amino acid is complexed to iron-sulfur clusters to enable them to associate with proteins?
A)methionine
B)serine
C)lysine
D)tyrosine
E)cysteine
Q2) A(n)_______ incorporates oxygen from O<sub>2</sub> into its products while a(n)_______ uses another oxidizing agent to accomplish the oxidation of its substrate. A)oxidase;dioxygenase
B)dehydrogenase;oxygenase
C)oxygenase;oxidase
D)dehydrogenase;oxidase
E)dioxygenase;oxygenase
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What specific part of the chloroplast is responsible for the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A)thylakoid lumen
B)thylakoid membrane
C)stroma
D)inner membrane of chloroplast
E)outer membrane of chloroplast
Q2) Which of the following photosynthetic pigments would give rise to the yellow or red color of leaves seen during autumn?
A)chlorophyll a
B)chlorophyll b
C)\(\beta\)-carotene
D)phycocyanin
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following would have an inhibitory effect upon rubisco?
A)Mg<sup>2+</sup>
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)H<sup>+</sup>
D)reduced thioredoxin
E)none of the above
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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty
Acids,triacylglycerols,and Lipoproteins
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Q1) Low levels of oxaloacetate with high levels of \(\beta\)-oxidation cause the production of what metabolites,particularly within the liver?
A)acetate and ethanol
B)acetoacetate and \(\beta\)-hydroxybutyrate
C)3-hydroxy-3-methyglutaryl-CoA and propionyl-CoA
D)D-methylmalonyl-CoA and L-methylmalonyl-CoA
E)all of the above
Q2) A(n)___________ is converted to a(n)_____________ by loss of triacylglycerols.
A)chylomicron;very low density lipoprotein
B)low density lipoprotein;high density lipoprotein
C)very low density lipoprotein;intermediate density lipoprotein
D)low density lipoprotein;very low density lipoprotein
E)intermediate density lipoprotein;very low density lipoprotein
Q3) Which of the following roles does the liver play in lipoprotein metabolism?
A)production of chylomicrons
B)uptake of VLDL
C)production of LDL
D)uptake of HDL
E)none of the above
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following is the ultimate action that causes release of insulin from pancreatic \(\beta\)-cells?
A)opening of ATP-gated K<sup>+</sup> channels
B)closing of ATP-gated K<sup>+</sup> channels
C)catabolism of glucose resulting in increased ATP
D)opening of voltage gated Ca<sup>2+</sup> channels leading to decreased cytosolic Ca<sup>2+</sup>
E)opening of voltage gated Ca<sup>2+</sup> channels leading to increased cytosolic Ca<sup>2+</sup>
Q2) If a group of transgenic mice that overexpress SIRT1 was fed as much food as the mice desired to eat,what would be the consequences?
A)shortened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular disease
B)normal lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
C)normal lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
D)lengthened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
E)lengthened lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, steroids, isoprenoids, and
Eicosanoids
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Q1) The synthesis of 1 molecule of cholesterol requires _____ molecules of isopentenyl pyrophosphate,with each molecule of isopentenyl pyrophosphate requiring _____ molecules of acetyl-CoA.
A)4;2
B)5;2
C)6;2
D)5;3
E)6;3
Q2) Which of the following correctly identifies the order of carbocations found in the mechanism of squalene synthase?
A)tertiary carbocation;allylic carbocation;tertiary cyclopropylcarbinyl carbocation
B)tertiary carbocation;tertiary cyclopropylcarbinyl carbocation;allylic carbocation
C)allylic carbocation;tertiary cyclopropylcarbinyl carbocation;tertiary carbocation
D)allylic carbocation;tertiary carbocation;tertiary cyclopropylcarbinyl carbocation
E)tertiary cyclopropylcarbinyl carbocation ;allylic carbocation;tertiary carbocation
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21
Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids relies upon the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate?
A)lysine
B)histidine
C)arginine
D)glutamine
E)asparagine
Q2) Which of the following amino acids is exclusively ketogenic?
A)phenylalanine
B)tyrosine
C)isoleucine
D)arginine
E)leucine
Q3) Which of the following represents a correct flow of electrons for nitrogen fixation?
A)ferredoxin \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
B)Fe protein \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) ferredoxin \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
C)MoFe protein \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) ferredoxin \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
D)ferredoxin \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
E)none of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds Ii:
Amino Acids, porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) The importance of regenerating methionine can be seen in the multiple methionine regeneration pathways found in the liver,such as the pathway that uses betaine as a methyl group donor.What glycerophospholipid component is the precursor for betaine?
A)ethanolamine
B)glycerol
C)choline
D)serine
E)none of the above
Q2) Threonine is converted into acetyl-CoA and pyruvate while proline is converted into \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate.Classify each of these amino acids.
A)threonine is ketogenic,proline is ketogenic
B)threonine is ketogenic and glucogenic,proline is ketogenic
C)threonine is ketogenic,proline is glucogenic
D)threonine is ketogenic and glucogenic,proline is glucogenic
E)none of the above
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following sequence of events best explains the formation of carbamate in the mechanism of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase?
A)Bicarbonate and ATP form carboxyphosphate,then NH<sub>3</sub> performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxyphosphate to form carbamate
B)Bicarbonate<sub> </sub>is attacked by NH<sub>3</sub> to produce carbamate with ATP hydrolysis occurring solely to drive the reaction to completion
C)Bicarbonate reacts with ATP forming carboxy adenylate and pyrophosphate,then NH<sub>3</sub> performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxy adenylate to form carbamate
D)NH<sub>3</sub> reacts with ATP,which then reacts with bicarbonate followed by loss of phosphate to produce carbamate E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following coenzymes contains an adenylate group?
A)cobalamin
B)tetrahydrofolate
C)thiamine pyrophosphate
D)pyridoxal phosphate
E)coenzyme A
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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) The enkephalins,along with \(\beta\)-endorphin,bind to the opioid receptor,so named because the opiate drugs such as __________ bind to it with high affinity
A)morphine
B)fluoxetine (Prozac)
C)phencyclidine
D)methyl phenidylacetate (Ritalin)
E)lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
Q2) Amphetamine and mescaline are agonists of ____________,the neurotransmitter often considered a "pleasure agent."
A)serotonin
B)\(\gamma\)-aminobutyric acid
C)N-methyl-D-aspartate
D)glutamate
E)dopamine
Q3) Insulin activates glycogen synthase while glucagon inhibits glycogen synthase.Explain the intracellular mechanisms that are used to bring about this activity.
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Chapter 24: Genes,genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) What is the term used to describe genetic variation that occurs among individuals of the same species resulting in gain or loss of restriction sites that can be detected by Southern analysis?
A)polymorphism
B)hybridization
C)clone
D)epigenetic variant
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following describes a proper organization sequence for DNA in the nucleus?
A)DNA helix \(\to\) nucleosome \(\to\) chromatin fiber \(\to\) condensed fiber
B)DNA helix \(\to\) chromatin fiber \(\to\) nucleosome \(\to\) condensed fiber
C)DNA helix \(\to\) condensed fiber \(\to\) nucleosome \(\to\) chromatin fiber
D)DNA helix \(\to\) nucleosome \(\to\) condensed fiber \(\to\) chromatin fiber
E)none of the above
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Chapter 25: Dna Replication
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Q1) In the Klenow fragment of many DNA polymerases,the Mg<sup>2+</sup> ions that are required for activity are coordinated to which amino acid R-groups?
A)histidine and aspartate
B)two aspartates
C)aspartate and asparagine
D)aspartate and glutamate
E)glutamate and glutamine
Q2) What is an Okazaki fragment?
A)a small section of DNA bound to the leading strand
B)a small section of DNA bound to the lagging strand
C)a small section of RNA and DNA bound to the leading strand
D)a small section of RNA and DNA bound to the lagging strand
E)none of the above
Q3) Replication of DNA in E.coli occurs in what type of fashion?
A)unidirectional
B)bidirectional
C)multidirectional
D)directionality can change depending upon specific conditions in the cell
E)none of the above
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Dna Restructuring:
Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification
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Q1) Which of the following is formed by oxidation of a DNA base?
A)uracil
B)8-oxoguanine
C)7-methylguanine
D)thymine dimer
E)all of the above
Q2) In mismatch repair coupled to replication,which of the following relates a correct sequence of events?
A)daughter strand identification,mismatch identification,cleavage of daughter strand,helicase,polymerase,ligase
B)daughter strand identification,mismatch identification,helicase,cleavage of daughter strand,polymerase,ligase
C)mismatch identification,daughter strand identification,cleavage of daughter strand,helicase,polymerase,ligase
D)mismatch identification,daughter strand identification,helicase,cleavage of daughter strand,polymerase,ligase
E)mismatch identification,helicase,daughter strand identification,cleavage of daughter strand,polymerase,ligase
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Q1) The concept of the operon was proposed based on the ability of E.coli to metabolize the disaccharide ________ only when present in large excess over glucose.
A)sucrose
B)cellobiose
C)galactose
D)lactose
E)maltose
Q2) Give the mRNA sequence that would result from the following sense strand: 5'-A-T-C-T-C-G-A-T-C-G-T-A-C-G-A-T-G-T-C-A-3'
Q3) Which of the following is the most common promoter element for pol II?
A)CAAT box (GGCCAATCT)
B)GC box (GGGCGG)
C)TRE (GAGGGACGTACCGCA)
D)TATA box (TATAAAA)
E)Octamer (ATTTGCAT)
Q4) The figure below shows a newly transcribed mRNA still associated with the template DNA.Draw the stem-loop structure that often forms during termination.
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an E.coli cell,which of the following is the last item to be added to the 70S initiation complex?
A)mRNA
B)tRNA carrying formylmethionine
C)30S ribosomal subunit
D)50S ribosomal subunit
E)initiation factors IF1,IF2 and IF3
Q2) Prokaryotic proteins that are destined for secretion often contain a sequence of ________ amino acids at the ___ -terminus of the protein
A)hydrophilic;N
B)hydrophobic;N
C)hydrophilic;C
D)hydrophobic;C
E)none of the above
Q3) In prokaryotes,mRNA is ____________.In eukaryotes,mRNA is _____________.
A)equally monocistronic and polycistronic;mostly monocistronic
B)equally monocistronic and polycistronic;mostly polycistronic
C)mostly monocistronic;equally monocistronic and polycistronic
D)mostly polycistronic;equally monocistronic and polycistronic
E)mostly polycistronic;mostly monocistronic
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/73686
Sample Questions
Q1) DNA damage that requires RecA to bind to a DNA gap activates proteolysis of _____,which then activates the transcription of genes within the SOS regulon.
A)cI
B)Cro
C)LexA
D)uvrA
E)uvrB
Q2) Which of the following accounts for the greater complexity in eukaryotic transcriptional control when compared with prokaryotic control?
A)physical separation of transcription from translation
B)the presence of chromatin instead of naked DNA
C)the larger size of the chromosomes
D)the presence of introns
E)none of the above
Q3) Give the sequence and draw the first two residues of a morpholino oligo that would serve as an antisense RNA for the following mRNA sequence (you may use the letter A,C,G and U to denote the bases):
5'-CAUGUCC-3'
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