Course Introduction
Biological Chemistry
Exam Materials
Biological Chemistry explores the chemical principles underlying biological systems, focusing on the molecular structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. The course examines the mechanisms of enzyme action, metabolic pathways, and the regulation of biochemical processes fundamental to life. Emphasis is placed on the integration of organic and physical chemistry concepts to understand biological phenomena, as well as the experimental techniques used to investigate biomolecular structure and function. This course provides a foundational understanding for advanced studies in biochemistry, molecular biology, and related fields in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Q1) Which of these is a feature of hydrophobic interactions?
A)Hydrophobic interactions result from hydrogen bonds between water and hydrophobic molecules.
B)Hydrophobic interactions result from the weak tendency of water to exclude non-polar groups or molecules.
C)Hydrophobic interactions result because water molecules prefer the stronger interactions that they share with one another,compared to their interactions with non-polar molecules.
D)Hydrophobic interactions result in polar regions of biological molecules being buried in the molecule's interior to exclude them from the aqueous milieu.
Answer: C
Q2) What are rough ER "studded" with?
A)lysosomes
B)ribosomes
C)peroxisomes
D)nucleosomes
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of water?
A)high surface tension
B)high dielectric constant
C)positive volume of melting
D)high capacity to form hydrogen bonds
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the strongest type of bonding that occurs between water and the polar functional groups on non-ionic polar solutes?
A)ionic
B)hydrophobic
C)electrostatic
D)hydrogen
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following specifies the average lifetime of a hydrogen bond connection in water?
A)10 milliseconds
B)10 microseconds
C)10 nanoseconds
D)10 picoseconds
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) What defines the standard-state free energy change, G?
A)positive when the reaction is unfavourable
B)an expression of Keq
C)negative when the reaction is favourable
D)equal to H - T S
Answer: B
Q2) By which factor do equilibrium constants change for reactions coupled to ATP hydrolysis?
A)10<sup>2</sup>
B)10<sup>4</sup>
C)10<sup>6</sup>
D)10<sup>8</sup>
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a feature of ATP?
A)It is used for short-term energy in the cell.
B)It has 2 phosphoanhydride bonds.
C)It is usually complexed with Ca² .
D)It is a kinetically stable molecule.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) What is the pH of a serine solution in which the a-NH group,which has a pK 9.2,is one-third dissociated?
A)8.7
B)8.9
C)9.0
D)9.5
Q2) Which of the following amino acid derivatives is correctly derived from its corresponding commonly occurring amino acid?
A)GABA is a neurotransmitter derived from aspartic acid.
B)Histamine is a neurotransmitter derived from proline.
C)Epinephrine is a hormone derived from tyrosine.
D)Serotonin is a neurotransmitter derived from phenylalanine.
Q3) Of the following four amino acids which one absorbs light most strongly between 250 and 300 nm?
A)histidine
B)phenylalanine
C)tryptophan
D)tyrosine
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological
Functions
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Q1) Which of the following factors is NOT considered a level of protein structure?
A)the interaction between subunits of a protein
B)the order of amino acid residues in the peptide chain
C)the 3-dimensional arrangement of all atoms in a single peptide
D)the hydrogen bond arrangement of nonpolar R-groups
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of membrane proteins?
A)They have membrane-associated amino acids with polar side chains.
B)They are much more soluble in detergents than in water.
C)They have hydrophobic amino acids that are oriented inward.
D)They have a globular structure.
Q3) Which level of structural organization best describes the a-helix and b-strand components of protein structure?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
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7
Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a class of globular proteins according to type and arrangement of secondary structure?
A)small metal- and disulfide-rich proteins
B)parallel or mixed -sheets
C)antiparallel -sheets
D)antiparallel -turns
Q2) Which of these molecules is an example of a disulfide-rich protein?
A)insulin
B)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C)hemoglobin
D)triose phosphate isomerase
Q3) Which amino acid commonly comprises flexible,disordered segments of proteins?
A)Leu
B)Lys
C)Ser
D)Asp
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8
Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Glycosaminoglycans are unbranched polysaccharides consisting of alternating residues of uronic acid and hexosamine.Which of the following is NOT a glycosaminoglycan?
A)agaropectin
B)heparin
C)dermatan sulfate
D)hyaluronate
Q2) Neither -amylase nor -amylase can cleave the (1 6)glycosidic bonds of amylopectin.Which of the following enzymes is required to completely hydrolyze starch?
A) (1 6)-glucosidase
B)glycogen phosphorylase
C)maltase
D)sucrase
Q3) Which of the following sugars is the enantiomer of D-mannose?
A)L-mannose
B)D-glucose
C)D-galactose
D)L-arabinose
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Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of dolichols?
A)They are carriers of carbohydrate units in the biosynthesis of pyruvate.
B)They form dolichyl carbamates.
C)They are a class of glycerophospholipids.
D)They are polymers of 16-22 isoprene units
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a designation for a fatty acid with 18 carbons and 1 double bond?
A)linoleic acid
B)cis-9-octadecenoic acid
C)oleic acid
D)elaidic acid
Q3) Which of the following would contain the largest amount of fatty acids with trans double bonds?
A)the fatty acid on carbon #1 of the glycerol of phosphatidylcholine
B)butter
C)canola oil
D)a 900 gram package of cookies containing partially hydrogenated cottonseed
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which modification of the regulatory sites on acetyl-CoA carboxylase decreases the affinity for citrate,and increases the affinity for fatty acyl-CoAs?
A)hydroxylation
B)myristoylation
C)phosphorylation
D)glycosylation
Q2) Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of malonyl-CoA,the committed step in fatty acid biosynthesis?
A)fatty acid synthase
B)pyruvate carboxylase
C)propionate carboxylase
D)acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of COX-2 inhibitors?
A)can non-selectively block inflammation mediated by both isoforms of COX
B)are NSAIDs
C)have less potential for stomach lesions than aspirin
D)have less renal toxicity than COX-1 inhibitors
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the plasma membrane?
A)energy transduction
B)signal transduction
C)allowing free passage of certain toxic ions and molecules into the cell
D)accumulation of cell nutrients
Q2) Flippases are enzymes that flip cellular components.Which of the following best describes their mechanism of action?
A)flipping fatty acids from one position on glycerol to another position
B)flipping glucose from a- to b-glucose
C)flipping amino acids from one position to another in a protein
D)flipping phospholipids across to the other side of a membrane
Q3) Yeast -factor ATPase and MDR ATPase are 2 members of a superfamily of transport proteins.Which of the following do they both actively transport?
A)H to dissolve bone mineral
B)Ca² into the sarcoplasm
C)a broad group of diverse organic molecules across membranes
D)Mg² against a concentration gradient
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Lithium salts have been used for years for the treatment of manic depression.Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for Li ?
A)It alters the conformation of a number of plasma protein receptors.
B)It increases the GTPase activity of G proteins.
C)It inhibits a number of enzymes in phosphoinositide metabolism.
D)It inhibits Ca² release from cytoplasmic organelles.
Q2) Which of the following is a unifying feature of polypeptide hormones?
A)originally synthesized without signal sequences
B)synthesized as active prepro-hormones
C)may produce several different peptide hormones with suitable processing
D)activated from prepro-hormones to hormones by phosphorylation
Q3) Which of the following explains why receptor tyrosine kinases have been called membrane-associated allosteric enzymes?
A)as a result of their induced conformation changes and oligomeric interactions
B)as a result of their binding to insulin and epinephrine
C)as a result of their GTPase and guanylyl cyclase activities
D)as a result of their complex structure and G protein binding
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which reaction would NOT proceed via bimolecular elementary steps?
A)C + D T + U
B)a reaction with a rate constant in the units of s<sup>-1</sup>
C)2A D + E
D)a reaction with a molecularity of 2
Q2) Which of the following will glutamate react with to form a-ketoglutarate in the glutamate:aspartate aminotransferase-catalyzed reaction mechanism?
A)E-pyridoxal phosphate complex
B)E-pyridoxamine phosphate complex
C)aspartate
D)oxaloacetate
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the relationships between [S],K<sub>m</sub>,and V<sub>m </sub>?
A)As the [S] is increased,v approaches the limiting value,Vmax.
B)K<sub>m</sub> = V<sub>max</sub>/2.
C)The rate of the reaction,v,follows a first-order rate equation: v = K'[A] and K' = V<sub>max</sub>/K<sub>m</sub>.
D)The rate of product formed,v,is at V<sub>max</sub> when [S] >> K<sub>m</sub>.
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following elements is involved in the mechanism of chymotrypsin?
A)deprotonation of an active site Asp residue by His to start the reaction
B)formation of an acyl-enzyme intermediate that must be hydrolyzed to complete the reaction
C)stabilization of the positively charged His by a Gln residue
D)direct deprotonation of water by His to generate a hydroxide ion for initiation of the reaction
Q2) Which of the following will increase the energy level of ES and subsequently the enzyme-catalyzed reaction rate?
A)stabilization of ES by solvation
B)destabilization of ES by strain
C)stabilization of ES by hydrophobic effects
D)destabilization of ES by electrostatic effects
Q3) Which of the following values is the estimated approximate lifetime of the transition state?
A)microseconds (10<sup>-6</sup> s)
B)nanoseconds (10<sup>-9</sup> s)
C)(10<sup>-14</sup> to 10<sup>-13</sup> s)
D)(10<sup>-20</sup> s)
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is the quickest method of influencing an enzymatic activity?
A)allosteric regulation
B)covalent modification
C)enzyme induction
D)activation of a zymogen
Q2) The PDH complex is allosterically activated and inhibited by multiple modes.Which of the following is a correct relation?
A)acetyl-CoA: activation
B)NAD : inhibition
C)NADH: activation
D)CoA-SH: activation
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hemoglobin's binding of oxygen?
A)CO promotes dissociation of O from hemoglobin by lowering the pH.
B)Protons promote binding of oxygen by Hb.
C)2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)promotes release of O by Hb.
D)CO can bind with Hb's free amino groups and stabilize deoxyHb.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of microtubules?
A)providing variations and maintenance of cell shape
B)forming the mitotic spindle during cell division
C)unwinding DNA to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA)
D)forming intracellular scaffolds
Q2) Which of the following muscle protein components is responsible for ATP hydrolysis?
A)tropomyosin
B)myosin
C)troponin C
D)actin
Q3) How does self-assembly of microtubules occur?
A)by helical twisting of strands of -tubulin and -tubulin
B)by intermolecular interactions of dimers of -tubulin and -tubulin
C)by polymerization of alternating - and -tubulin into a repeating - - - -.strand
D)by inter-subunit interaction to form <sub>2</sub> <sub>2</sub>-tetramers of tubulin
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Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following terms defines the most ancient of the metabolic pathways in which energy is released from glucose and captured in the form of ATP under anaerobic conditions?
A)photo-oxidation
B)oxidative phosphorylation
C)citric acid cycle
D)glycolysis
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic difference between FAD and NAD ?
A)NAD is a stronger oxidizing agent than FAD.
B)NAD is reoxidized easily by molecular oxygen,while FAD is not.
C)NAD binds tightly to its enzyme,while FAD only binds loosely.
D)NAD transfers 2 electrons,while FAD can transfer 1 or 2.
Q3) Unsaturated fatty acids in membranes are particularly susceptible to oxidation.Which of the following vitamins may provide protection against this because it is a potent antioxidant? A)E
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes in the liver is used to phosphorylate fructose to fructose-1-phosphate?
A)glucokinase
B)phosphofructokinase-1
C)hexokinase
D)fructokinase
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a reversible reaction that is an equilibrium-controlled step of glycolysis?
A)pyruvate kinase
B)aldolase
C)phosphofructokinase-1
D)glucokinase
Q3) What is the net ATP yield per glucose molecule at the end of the glycolytic pathway? A)1 B)2 C)3 D)4
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Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of succinate dehydrogenase?
A)It is also known as succinate-coenzyme Q reductase.
B)It has covalently bound FAD.
C)It is a membrane-bound enzyme.
D)It removes hydrogens from C-O bonds.
Q2) Which molecule is generated between succinyl-CoA and ATP in mammals to "preserve" the energy of the thioester bond?
A)a-ketoglutarate
B)phosphohistidine
C)citrate
D)acetyl-CoA
Q3) Which molecule is an allosteric inhibitor of citrate synthase?
A)NADH
B)OAA
C)[FADH ]
D)ATP
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction below?
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)+ NADH NAD + glycerol-3-phosphate
A)glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B)triose phosphate isomerase
C)DHAP dehydrogenase
D)glycerol-3-phosphate reductase
Q2) Which of the following components is NOT part of cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV)?
A)Cu<sub>A</sub>
B)Cu<sub>B</sub>
C)cyt c<sub>1</sub>
D)cyt a<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of the binuclear centre of Complex IV?
A)Fe-S is a component.
B)Water is needed here.
C)Cyt c is a component.
D)Two electrons are transferred to bound O .
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Where do electrons from water ultimately flow to,via PSI and PSII?
A)NAPDH
B)NADP<sup>+</sup>
C)NAD?
D)NADH
Q2) Which of the following factors assists in avoiding futile cycling of carbohydrates?
A)CO fixation by Calvin cycle procession in the dark
B)citric acid cycle,glycolysis,and oxidative phosphorylation inactivation during the light
C)inhibition of the enzymes of the Calvin cycle by light reactions
D)the absence of glycolytic and citric acid cycle enzymes in plants
Q3) Which of the following sets of pathways is similar between plants and animals?
A)electron transport and the dark reactions of photosynthesis
B)electron transport and pyruvate carboxylase
C)the Hatch-Slack pathway (C-4)and pyruvate carboxylase
D)the Hatch-Slack pathway (C-4)and the dark reactions of photosynthesis
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22
Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
A)located in the mitochondria
B)strongly inhibited by [NADPH]
C)inhibited by fatty acid-CoA
D)uses NADP+ as a coenzyme
Q2) Which of these reactions represents the gluconeogenic reversal of PFK-1 in glycolysis?
A)fructose-6-P + ADP fructose + ATP
B)fructose-6-P + H O fructose + Pi
C)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + ADP fructose-6-P + ATP
D)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + H O fructose-6-P + Pi
Q3) What is the primary regulatory point of gluconeogenesis?
A)glucose-6-phosphatase
B)fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
C)fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase
D)pyruvate carboxylase
E)PEP carboxykinase
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Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) In ketone body biosynthesis,the HMG-CoA lyase reaction is mechanistically the reverse of the first half of the reaction catalyzed by a particular TCA enzyme.Which of the following TCA enzymes does it resemble?
A)aconitase
B)citrate synthase
C)malate dehydrogenase
D)succinyl-CoA synthase
Q2) Which of the following series correctly describes the conversion of a fatty acid to CO ?
A)carnitine shuttle;activation to acyl-CoA; -oxidation;CAC
B)activation to acyl-CoA;carnitine shuttle; -oxidation;CAC
C)CAC;activation to acyl-CoA; -oxidation;carnitine shuttle
D)activation to acyl-CoA; -oxidation;carnitine shuttle;CAC
Q3) How many times must the ?-oxidation cycle be repeated for the complete oxidation of a saturated fatty acid with 16 carbons? A)4
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is related to elevated level of homocysteine in the blood?
A)excess folic acid
B)homocystinuria at very low levels
C)lower risk of heart attack and stroke
D)folic acid-dependent conversion of homocysteine to methionine
Q2) Which of the following describes the role ATP plays in the nitrogenase complex?
A)breaks the N triple bond
B)provides electrons
C)phosphorylates the enzyme
D)transfers electrons from ferredoxin
Q3) Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase catalyze?
A)the reductive amination of a-ketoglutarate to yield glutamate
B)phosphorylation of carbamate to yield carbamoyl phosphate
C)the amidation of the g-carboxyl group of glutamate to form glutamine
D)the deadenylation of glutamine synthetase
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Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which component of the nucleotide serves as an information symbol,channelling the nucleotide to appropriate metabolic activities such as in phosphoryl group transfer reactions?
A)sugar
B)diphosphate anhydride
C)sugar-phosphate ester
D)base
Q2) Which of the following classifies eukaryotic mRNAs synthesized in the nucleus?
A)poly(A)RNAs
B)intervening RNA sequences
C)heterogeneous nuclear RNAs
D)RNA exons
Q3) Which of the following best describes cAMP and cGMP?
A)inhibitors
B)phosphomonoesters
C)phosphodiesters
D)nucleosides
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26
Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Sequencing nucleic acids is now easier than sequencing polypeptides.Which of the following developed technologies facilitates this?
A)restriction endonucleases and polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
B)base-specific chemical cleavage and autoradiography
C)cytosine methylation and base-specific chemical cleavage
D)double-helix denaturation and restriction endonucleases
Q2) The hyperchromic shift occurs when dsDNA is denatured.At what wavelength is there an increase in the absorption as a result of this shift?
A)200 nm
B)220 nm
C)240 nm
D)260 nm
Q3) Which of the following types of structures potentially forms from DNA sequences that are inverted repeats?
A)a secondary structure known as a cruciform
B)a tertiary structure known as a cruciform
C)a secondary structure known as a palindrome
D)a tertiary structure known as a palindrome
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following types of reactions gives UMP from OMP?
A)reduction
B)decarboxylation
C)oxidation
D)condensation
Q2) Enzymatic ribonucleotide reduction is accomplished via a free radical mechanism.Which of the following statements regarding this process is correct?
A)The substrate specificity site on the R1 homodimer determines if the enzyme is active or inactive.
B)R2 has a single active site containing 2 Fe atoms that generate the free radicals.
C)R2,but not R1,functions in the delivery of reducing equivalents.
D)R2 homodimer carries 2 regulatory sites.
Q3) Which of the following provides the immediate reducing power of ribonucleotide reductase?
A)thioredoxin
B)ferredoxin
C)NADH
D)Fe-S complex
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Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of using the pET plasmid?
A)The genes to be expressed are under the control of a T7 operator.
B)The T7 polymerase is slower than a typical E.coli polymerase.
C)The expressed protein never accounts for more than 5% of the total cell protein.
D)The T7 polymerase is under the control of the lac operon and is thus active only when induced by an agent such as IPTG.
Q2) What is the term for the study of all the proteins expressed by a certain cell or tissue under specific conditions?
A)genetics
B)proteomics
C)embryogenesis
D)mutagenesis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a part of the procedure associated with the Southern blotting (hybridization)technique?
A)hybridization with radioactive probe
B)agarose gel electrophoresis and visualize bands
C)transfer (blot)to nitrocellulose filter
D)digestion of DNA with DNA ligase
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Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of the RecA protein in recombination events?
A)to produce an endonucleolytic nick on dsDNA
B)to aid in recognition of Chi site by the RecBCD complex
C)to initiate recombination
D)to catalyze the ATP-dependent DNA strand exchange reaction
Q2) Which of the following terms defines the exchange of one base for another?
A)frameshift mutation
B)point mutation
C)transition mutation
D)transversion mutation
Q3) Which protein moves along dsDNA using ATP-dependent helicase and nuclease activity during general recombination in E.coli?
A)RecBCD complex
B)RuvB
C)DNA polymerase I
D)DNA ligase
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a property of the lac repressor?
A)dimeric protein expressed constitutively
B)binding site for PKA
C)blocks elongation so initiation is aborted
D)binding site for mRNA
Q2) Which of the following is thought to be generated by transcription chain elongation?
A)positive supercoils behind the transcription bubble
B)positive supercoils in front of the transcription bubble
C)negative supercoils in front of the transcription bubble
D)a relaxed DNA during the transcription process
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of rho ( )factor?
A)It winds transcript and template to free nascent RNA.
B)It recognizes and binds U-rich regions of RNA transcripts.
C)Its binding regions must be ribosome free.
D)It advances in the 3' 5' direction to the transcription bubble.
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of isoacceptor tRNAs called suppressors?
A)They read suppressive codons and insert an amino acid.
B)They read nonsense codons and insert an amino acid.
C)They read anticodon codons and insert an amino acid.
D)They read mutated codons and insert an amino acid.
Q2) Approximately how much of the dry cell mass of an E.coli cell consists of ribosomes?
A)1%
B)5%
C)10%
D)20%
Q3) Which inhibitor of protein synthesis competes with aminoacyl-tRNAs for binding to the A-site of the ribosome?
A)puromycin
B)erythromycin
C)cycloheximide
D)tetracycline
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following repeating nucleotide motifs are contained in AREs?
A)UAAAU
B)AUAUA
C)UAUAU
D)AUUUA
Q2) Which of the following cleaves the pre-miRNA at the level of the loop,yielding a 22-nt,double-stranded RNA molecule?
A)Drosha
B)DGCR8
C)Dicer
D)RISC
Q3) Which of the following do miRNAs binds?
A)GREs
B)seed elements
C)AREs
D)core promoters
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following amino acids in a protein targeted for destruction is most commonly the receptor for ubiquitin?
A)Ser
B)Lys
C)Asn
D)Tyr
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of Hsp90 chaperones?
A)They comprise more than 20% of total cytosolic proteins in eukaryotes.
B)Their action depends on cyclic binding and hydrolysis of GTP.
C)They direct proteins toward degradation pathways.
D)Their major purpose is conformational regulation of signal transduction molecules.
Q3) Which of the following is a highly conserved protein that is involved in protein degradation?
A)Met-aminopeptidase
B)ubiquitin
C)degradase
D)peptidyl transferase
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of ATP stoichiometry in metabolic pathways?
A)It is not a consequence of evolution.
B)A singular number is not required.
C)It results from biological adaptation.
D)It cannot be predicted from any chemical considerations.
Q2) What is the approximate energy charge of healthy living cells?
A)0.85-0.88
B)0.75-0.85
C)0.65-0.75
D)0.60-0.65
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a difference between heart and skeletal muscle?
A)Heart muscle is completely aerobic.
B)Heart muscle prefers fatty acids as fuel.
C)Heart muscle has more phosphocreatine than skeletal muscle.
D)Heart muscle has limited quantities of glycogen.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a major component of anabolic pathways?
A)NADH
B)glycolysis and citric acid cycle intermediates
C)ATP,GTP,CTP,UTP
D)NADPH
Page 35
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