Bioinformatics
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary course that explores the application of computational tools and analytical methods to manage, analyze, and interpret biological data. It covers foundational concepts in molecular biology, computer science, and statistics, focusing on topics such as sequence alignment, gene prediction, protein structure analysis, and data mining techniques. Students will gain hands-on experience with databases, software tools, and algorithms used in genomics, proteomics, and systems biology, preparing them to address complex biological questions through computational approaches.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics From Genes to Genomes 5th Edition by Leland H. Hartwell
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21 Chapters
813 Verified Questions
813 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Genetics: The Study of Biological Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in protein expression can alter gene function since A)changes in expression can alter regulatory networks.
B)low levels of protein mean that the protein can sustain mutations more readily without any harm to the cell.
C)high levels of protein mean that the protein can sustain mutations more readily without any harm to the cell.
D)the cell responds only to high levels of protein.
Answer: A
Q2) How does DNA structure relate to its function?
A)The order of the amino acids in the DNA strand code for the nucleotides found in proteins.
B)All proteins are coded for from only one of the two strands of DNA.
C)How tightly the DNA strands are coiled dictate the amino acid sequence of the proteins that are produced from the genes.
D)The order of the nucleotides in a gene dictate the amino acid sequence of the proteins that are produced from the genes.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Mendels Principles of Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the outcome of breeding two plants each pure bred and each having an antagonistic trait?
A)Only one of the traits will be seen in the progeny
B)Both traits will be seen in the progeny
C)Both traits will be seen in the progeny in a 3:1 ratio
D)Only one trait will be seen and it will be the trait of the female
Answer: A
Q2) If a plant homozygous for liguleless and green leaves is crossed to one homozygous for non-green with ligules, predict the phenotypes and genotypes of the F<sub>1</sub>.
A)LLGG, green and ligules
B)LlGG, green and ligules
C)LlGg, green and ligules
D)llgg, non-green and liguleless
E)Llgg, green and liguleless
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Extensions to Mendels Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a phenotypic description of allele interactions affecting the expression of traits?
A)incomplete dominance
B)codominance
C)polymorphic
D)multifactorial
E)pleiotrophic
Answer: D
Q2) The phenotypic ratio 9:3:4 may indicate
A)complete dominance.
B)codominance.
C)epistasis.
D)recessive lethal.
E)codominance and epistasis only.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mitotic stage during which chromosomes begin attaching to spindle fibers and moving randomly and reversibly to the centrosomes is A)prophase.
B)prometaphase.
C)metaphase.
D)anaphase.
E)telophase.
Q2) The stage of mitosis when chromosomes condense to form rod-shaped structures visible under the microscope is called A)interphase.
B)prophase.
C)metaphase.
D)anaphase.
E)telophase.
Q3) An XY individual carries mutations in both the SRY and AR genes.Which anatomic sex is this individual expected to be?
A)Female
B)Male
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6
Chapter 5: Linkage, Recombination, and the Mapping of
Genes on Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In tetrad analysis, second-division segregations result from A)single crossovers between linked genes.
B)double crossovers between linked genes.
C)single crossovers between a gene and a centromere.
D)independent assortment of unlinked genes.
E)nondisjunction of homologs.
Q2) Chiasmata are structures of cross over between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The number of linkage groups in a species that does not have sex chromosomes is:
A)1n
B)1n + 1
C)2n
D)2n + 2
Q4) A linkage group can be defined as genes that may be so far apart on a chromosome that they cannot be shown to be linked directly but they can be shown to be on the same chromosome due to their linkage with other genes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure, Replication, and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the following strand of DNA: 5' CATAGCCTTA 3' Which of the following sequences is the correct complementary DNA strand?
A)5' CATAGCCTTA 3'
B)3' GTATCGGAAT 5'
C)5' GTATCGGAAT 3'
D)3' GUAUCGGAAU 5'
E)3' CATAGCCTTA 5'
Q2) What radiolabeled substance did Hershey and Chase use to label the protein component of the bacteriophage in their study to determine whether protein or DNA was necessary for phage production?
A)nitrogen
B)carbon
C)sulfur
D)phosphorus
E)iodine
Q3) Recombination occurs during meiotic ________.
A)anaphase
B)interphase
C)prophase
D)metaphase
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Chapter 7: Anatomy and Function of a Gene: Dissection
Through Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation in which parts of two nonhomologous chromosomes change places is called a(n)
A)translocation.
B)transition.
C)transversion.
D)insertion.
E)deletion.
Q2) Consider the following results.When 50 million sperm were examined for a specific mutation, 100 mutations were found.Indicate the mutation rate for that gene.
A)5*10<sup>6</sup>
B)50*10<sup>6</sup>
C)2*10<sup>6</sup>
D)2*10<sup>5</sup>
E)5*10<sup>5</sup>
Q3) Choose the condition below that does not involve a defect in an enzyme pathway.
A)Alkaptonuria
B)albinism
C)sickle cell anemia
D)Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Gene Expression: The Flow of Information From
DNA to RNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that for a given gene a mutation creates an allele that functions as a dominant negative.The gene codes for a protein that forms a trimer within the cell.If at least one of the subunits has the mutant structure the entire protein is inactivated.For a heterozygous individual, what percent of the trimers present in the cell will be inactive?
A)100%
B)25%
C)50%
D)6.25%
E)12.5%
Blooms Level 4: Analyze
Q2) Charles Yanofsky helped decipher the genetic code working with the _____ biosynthesis genes in _______.
A)leucine Salmonella enteritidis
B)phenylalanine Klebsiella pneumoniae
C)tryptophan Escherichia coli
D)glycine Serratia marcescens
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10
Chapter 9: Digital Analysis of Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a way that protein function can be modified AFTER translation?
A)Protein cleaving
B)Transcription regulation
C)Genome duplication
D)Exon shuffling
E)Gene rearrangement
Q2) After digestion of DNA with a restriction endonuclease, which statement is true about the resulting DNA fragments?
A)They will have either a single stranded overhang or blunt ends, depending on the enzyme used.
B)They will have only blunt ends.
C)They will have only single stranded overhangs.
D)The result cannot be predicted because a single restriction enzyme can generate either single stranded overhangs or blunt ends.
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11
Chapter 10: Analyzing Genomic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle is used in DNA microarrays to differentiate between a wild-type allele and a disease allele that differs at only one nucleotide?
A)Copy number variation
B)Differences in DNA hybridization
C)Polymerase chain reaction
D)Locus heterogeneity
Q2) How are databases of variants used to help find disease gene candidates?
A)Variants from individuals that do not have the syndrome can be used to eliminate those variants as involved in causing the disease.
B)They can indicate the probability of different variants appearing in a population.
C)Variants from individuals that do not have the syndrome are not useful for this purpose.
D)They can indicate rare variants that will help with the genetic identification of individuals.
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Chapter 11: The Eukaryotic Chromosome
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the position effect variegation of red and white eye color in Drosophila, eyes are produced
A)one red and one white.
B)red or white depending on which gene is dominant.
C)with every other eye facet red or white.
D)with varying sizes and positions of red and white patches.
Q2) During mitosis, kinetochores develop during A)telophase.
B)anaphase.
C)metaphase.
D)prophase.
Q3) In DNA, the 300Å fiber is formed into structural loops.Responsibility for this function appears to lie with A)histone H4.
B)nucleosomase.
C)histone H1.
D)certain nonhistone proteins.
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Rearrangements and Changes
in Chromosome Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of evolution, what might be the results of transposable elements in a species' genome?
A)novel mutations, some of which may be beneficial
B)transposons do not have any role in evolution
C)generation of potentially detrimental inversions
D)increase the point mutation rate of cells
Q2) A change in the genome whereby copies of one or more genes are added to the genome
Q3) Of the following segregation patterns for chromosomes that have undergone reciprocal translocation, which one is most likely to result in a normal zygote?
A)alternate
B)adjacent-1
C)adjacent-2
D)nondisjunction
Q4) The term for when a piece of one chromosome attaches to another chromosome is A)inversion.
B)duplication.
C)deletion.
D)translocation.
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an organism is isolated that has no nuclear membraneand the DNA is condensed into a body in the cytoplasm this organims would most likely be classified as a
A)Prokaryote
B)Eukaryote
C)Archaea
D)could either be a Eukaryote or Prokaryote
Q2) If an Hfr cell is used for mating what is the last gene that could possibly be transfered from the host chromosome?
A)A gene that is at the site of integration and on the same side as where transfer starts..
B)A gene that is at 45 minutes from the site of integration.
C)A gene that is at the site of integration of the episome but on the opposite side from where transfer starts
D)A gene that is at 30 minutes from the site of integration
Q3) Metagenomics may be useful because
A)it could be used to detect diseases..
B)It will allow for the sequencing of entire bacterial species genomes.
C)Metagenomes do not change rapidly.
D)Metagenomes are not responsive to environmental canges.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Organellar Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A homoplasmic cell carries
A)a mixture of organelle genomes.
B)only one type of organelle DNA.
C)only one mitochondrion.
D)two identical nuclei.
Q2) Comparison of mitochondrial RNA with the genome sequence of mitochondria demonstrated that
A)at least some of the RNA had insertions and deletions of uracil residues
B)there are no differences in the sequences of the RNA compared to the genomic DNA from which it was transcribed.
C)the proteins necessary for translation are coded for in the mitochondrial genome.
D)translation is initiated in mitochondria using only the AUG codon.
Q3) Maternal-chloroplast inherited
Q4) Which type of DNA sequences might be studied to help reunite displaced children with their families?
A)mtDNA sequences
B)cpDNA sequences
C)Y-chromosome sequences
D)highly conserved nuclear sequences
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the analysis of transcriptomes useful for genetics research?
A)It reveals many aspects of gene regulation.
B)It is easy to do.
C)It can help discover non-transcribed DNA regions.
D)It directly identifies transcription factor binding sites.
Q2) Proteins that undergo reversible changes in conformation when bound to another molecule are called
A)reversible peptides.
B)allosteric proteins.
C)inducer proteins.
D)repressor proteins.
E)allostatic proteins.
Q3) The scientists who proposed the operon theory are
A)Monod and Jacob.
B)Watson and Crick.
C)Hardy and Weinberg.
D)Darwin and Mendel.
E)Hershey and Chase.
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which small RNA is involved in the silencing of transposable element transcription?
A)miRNA
B)siRNA
C)Piwi
D)tRNA
Q2) How is sex determined in Drosophila?
A)Alternative splicing of SxI in females results in an active transcription factor that in turn results in the production of tra..
B)Alternative splicing of SxI in females results in an inactive transcription factor that in turn results in the production of tra.
C)The Y chromosome has 4 genes for different transcription factors that control the splicing of SxI.
D)The Y chromosome has 4 genes for different transcription factors that control the transcription of SxI.
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18
Chapter 17: Manipulating the Genomes of Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently the two main vectors for delivery of therapeutic genes for human gene therapy are
A)AAV and retroviruses
B)AAV and Agrobacterium
C)Retroviruses and Agrobacterium
D)AAV, retroviruses and Agrobacterium
Q2) How can transgenics be used in gene expression studies?
A)A reporter gene can be cloned so that it is under the control of tissue specific regulatory regions.
B)A gene from the trasngenic chromosome can be cloned under an arteficial promoter and enhancer regions.
C)A gene from the trasngenic chromosomes can be cloned under the control of its normal regulatory regions.
D)A misense mutation of a gene froound in the transgenic organisms genome can be cloned under the control of synthetic regulatory regions.
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Chapter 18: The Genetic Analysis of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of ectopic gene expression is A)achondroplastic dwarfism.
B)lack of eye development.
C)abnormal vulvar shape.
D)legs instead of antennae.
Q2) The expression of a gene at an abnormal place or time is called A)epistasis.
B)ectopic.
C)epigenetic.
D)expressivity.
Q3) Which model organism would be best suited for studying cellular lineage, ?
A)E.coli
B)S.cerevisiae
C)C.elegans
D)M.musculus
Q4) Evolution has had what effect on development in various organisms?
A)varying
B)conservation of many genes and genetic pathways
C)removal of all mutations.
D)none
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Chapter 19: The Genetics of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The retinoblastoma (Rb) protein regulates progression into S phase by regulating ___________ activity.
A)cyclin D
B)p53
C)CDK4
D)E2F
E)CDC28
Q2) What is a characteristic that is typical of a cancer cell but not of a normal cell?
A)Cell division is inhibited when they contact neighboring cells
B)Lack of an S phase in the cell cycle.
C)Ability to invade surrounding tissue.
D)Limited number of divisions before the cell dies.
Q3) Which of the following is least likely to occur from the inactivation of p53?
A)The appearance of homogenously staining regions on chromosomes
B)Increased propensity to arrest in G<sub>1</sub>
C)alterations in the G<sub>1</sub> to S checkpoint
D)An increase in gene amplification in affected cells
E)Generation of fragments of chromosomal DNA lacking telomeres and centromeres
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Chapter 20: Variation and Selection in Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) New mutations that arise within a population are typically lost primarily do to A)most mutations occur in individuals that are exposed to environmental mutagens and they therefore experience mutations in many different genes which means that they do not survive to reproduce.
B)most mutations are lethal.
C)new mutations all result in a lower reproductive fitness.
D)populations are of a finite size and new mutations are frequently lost by genetic drift.
Q2) In humans, brachydactyly is a dominant condition; 6,400 people in a population of 10,000 show the disease (1,600 are BB, 4,800 are Bb) and 3,600 are normal phenotypes (bb).The frequency of the b allele is A)0.6.
B)0.4.
C)0.36.
D)0.48.
E)0.16.
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22
Chapter 21: Genetics of Complex Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about monozygotic twins?
A)They share all alleles at all loci.
B)They have a genetic relatedness of 0.5.
C)They have a genetic relatedness of 1.0.
D)They come from the joining of a single egg with a single sperm cell.
E)They are the result of a split of the zygote after fertilization.
Q2) The total phenotype variance (V<sub>P</sub>) is
A)the sum of genetic variance (V<sub>G</sub>) and environmental variance (V<sub>E</sub>).
B)the difference between V<sub>G</sub> and V<sub>E</sub>.
C)not dependent on V<sub>G</sub>.
D)not dependent on V<sub>E</sub>.
E)always constant.
Q3) In an experiment to distinguish genetic versus environmental effects on a phenotype it is important to make sure that the test individuals
A)are as genetically identical as possible
B)have the greatest varinace at all losi as possilble
C)have the same parents
D)are subjected to a natural environment.
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