Biodiversity and Conservation
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the variety of life on Earth, examining the genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity that sustains natural systems. Students will investigate the causes and consequences of biodiversity loss, analyze the roles humans play in habitat destruction, and assess conservation strategies at local, national, and global levels. Emphasis is placed on ecological principles, the value of biodiversity for ecosystem health and human well-being, and current approaches to the preservation and restoration of endangered species and habitats. The course integrates case studies and fieldwork to provide practical insights into conservation challenges and solutions.
Recommended Textbook
Ecology Concepts and Applications 5th Edition by Manuel Molles
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Ecology Historical Foundations and Developing Frontiers
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Q1) Ecology is a modern science of which ancient man had no knowledge.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A population can be defined as
A) a group of individuals of a single species inhabiting a defined area.
B) an association of interacting species.
C) a group of individuals of a single species and all of the physical and chemical factors influencing them.
D) all of the organisms in a defined area.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: A
Q3) What is ecology?
A) the study of relationships between organisms and the environment
B) the study of animal and plant population interactions
C) the study of the abiotic portion of the environment
D) the study of the biosphere
E) the study of environmental change
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Life on Land
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Q1) There are(is)_______ convective air cell(s)per hemisphere,_______ total for the earth.
A) 1; 2
B) 2; 4
C) 3; 6
D) 4; 8
E) 5; 10
Answer: C
Q2) The _______________ is a depositional horizon that contains clays,humus,and other materials which may form distinct banding patterns.
A) A horizon
B) B horizon
C) C horizon
D) D horizon
E) O horizon
Answer: B
Q3) Irrigation of desert soils could lead to the formation of _________________.
Answer: caliches
Q4) Desert soils are often termed _________________.
Answer: lithosols
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Chapter 3: Life in Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oceans are the largest water reservoir on the planet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Eutrophic lakes are characterized by
A) high oxygen content.
B) cool temperatures.
C) high nutrient levels.
D) deep and clear waters.
E) low biological productivity.
Answer: C
Q3) The timing and extent of tides are a function of all of the following except
A) the moon's gravitational force.
B) the sun's gravitational force.
C) geography
D) the size of the body of water
E) salinity levels
Answer: E
Q4) Limnetic thermoclines are located in the _______________ zone.
Answer: metalimnion
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Chapter 4: Population Genetics and Natural Selection
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Q1) What results could Clausen,Keck,and Hiesey have expected to see if alpine,mid-elevation,and lowland populations of sticky cinquefoil (Potentilla glandulosa)were not genetically different?
A) mid-elevation plants grew best at mid-elevations
B) alpine plants produced more flowers at alpine elevations
C) lowland plants did not produce the most flowers at any elevation
D) lowland plants grew better than alpine plants at lowland elevations
E) all plants would grew equally well at all elevations
Q2) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation:
A) q<sup>2</sup> - qp + p<sup>2</sup> = 1.0
B) 2pq - q<sub>2</sub> - 2p = 1.0
C) q<sup>2</sup> - qp<sub>2</sub> + p = 1.0
D) p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1.0
E) p<sup>2</sup> + pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1.0
Q3) ______________________ can change population gene frequencies through random processes.
Q4) The combination of genetics and environmental pressures can cause variations in phenotypes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Temperature Relations
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Q1) An animal will use different ____________________ to maintain an optimum operative temperature range.
Q2) The body temperature of ____________ varies directly with the environment.
A) homeotherms
B) poikilotherms
C) psychrotherms
D) envirotherms
E) microtherms
Q3) It is a very hot day,and you jump into a lake to cool off.What is the method of heat exchange?
A) conduction
B) radiation
C) evaporation
D) convection
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Plants,unlike animals,cannot thermoregulate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Water Relations
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Q1) In general,a plant found growing in the desert can be expected to have a low shoot to high root biomass ratio.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Relative humidity = [ ___________________ / saturation water vapor density] x 100
Q3) Aquatic organisms whose body fluids equal that of their surroundings are Rev: 10_24_2014_QC_57280
A) hyperosmotic.
B) isosmotic
C) hypoosmotic.
D) osmotic.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) A desert scorpion will use all of the following mechanisms in order to survive in the desert except:
A) waterproof cuticle.
B) nocturnal behavior.
C) burrowing.
D) decreased metabolic rate.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Energy and Nutrient Relations
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Q1) What organisms use inorganic sources of both carbon and energy to synthesize organic compounds?
Rev: 10_31_2014_QC_58097
A) photosynthesizers
B) chemosynthesizers
C) autotrophs
D) both photosynthesizers and chemosynthesizers
E) photosynthesizers, chemosynthesizers, and autotrophs
Q2) Tropical plants and tropical seaweeds contain lower levels of alkaloid toxins compared to their temperate counterparts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Photosynthetic response curves examine photosynthetic rates and maximum irradiance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Generally,as predator size decreases prey size _______________.
Q5) PAR is an acronym for photosynthetically active ________________________.
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Chapter 8: Socail Relations
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Q1) In which situation will a male lion have the greatest potential for mating?
A) single male
B) coalition of four unrelated males
C) coalition of two unrelated males
D) coalition of eight unrelated males
E) the chance of male lions mating is always the same
Q2) How is the organization of a leaf cutter ant colony and a colony of naked mole rats similar?
A) individuals are divided among castes
B) one female and a few males breed
C) large workers specialize in defense
D) individuals share a high degree of relatedness
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) What is not included in the defining characteristics of eusociality?
A) reproductive and non-reproductive castes
B) intrasexual selection of mates
C) multi-generational cohabitation
D) cooperative care of young
E) all are defining characteristics
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Chapter 9: Population Distribution and Abundance
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Q1) In a _____________ distribution,individuals have a much higher probability of being found in some than in others.
A) regular
B) clumped
C) uniform
D) random
E) partitioned
Q2) 'Rarity I' can be described as:
A) restricted range, narrow habitat tolerances, small local populations
B) restricted range, broad habitat tolerances, large local populations
C) extensive range, narrow habitat tolerances, large local populations
D) restricted range, broad habitat tolerances, small local populations
E) extensive range, broad habitat tolerances, small local populations
Q3) 'Rarity II' can be described as
A) restricted range, narrow habitat tolerances, and small local populations.
B) restricted range, broad habitat tolerances, and large local populations.
C) extensive range, narrow habitat tolerances, and large local populations.
D) restricted range, broad habitat tolerances, and small local populations.
E) extensive range, broad habitat tolerances, and small local populations.
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Chapter 10: Population Dynamics
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Q1) Although the dispersal rate of Africanized bees is impressive,it still pales in comparison to the dispersal rate of the collard dove.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are mismatched?
A) n<sub>x</sub> : mortality rate
B) l<sub>x</sub> : survivorship history
C) R<sub>0</sub> : net reproductive rate
D) m<sub>x</sub> : average number offspring per individual
E) x : age/time interval
Q3) Which of the following cannot be determined using a fecundity schedule combined with a life table?
A) per capita rate of increase
B) net reproductive rate
C) mean generation time
D) dispersal rates
E) geometric rate of increase
Q4) The geometric rate of increase cannot be a negative number.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Population Growth
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Q1) The best model for population growth of an annual plant like Phlox drummondii is
A) geometric growth.
B) exponential growth.
C) logistic growth.
D) geometric growth during years with high rainfall and exponential growth during years with low rainfall.
E) geometric growth during years with high rainfall and logistic growth during years with low rainfall.
Q2) Occasionally,density independent factors can influence populations in a density dependent manner.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Grant and Grants' study on the large cactus finches (Geospiza conirostris)positively correlates ____________________ and egg clutches.
Q4) The biotic potential of an organism produces the leveling off at carrying capacity in the logistic growth curve.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Life Histories
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Q1) In Grime's classification,stress-tolerant plants
A) live under conditions of high stress and also high disturbance.
B) grow rapidly.
C) are very palatable to herbivores.
D) conserve nutrients and water.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The principle of allocation states
A) if an organism uses energy for one function it reduces the amount of energy available for other functions.
B) organisms have a tendency to select the smallest prey available rather than exert more energy in capturing larger prey.
C) organisms that build larger nests produce fewer offspring.
D) organisms have a tendency to allocate more time and energy to a single preferred offspring while neglecting others.
E) plants allocate their energy such that larger seedlings come from smaller seeds.
Q3) In Grime's classification,a plant species adapted to highly disturbed environments is called a ____________ species.
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Chapter 13: Competition
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Q1) During droughts in the Galápagos Islands,the ground finches most likely to survive are those with
A) smaller bodies.
B) smaller bills.
C) earlier maturation.
D) larger bills.
E) larger territories.
Q2) Field experiments differ from laboratory experiments in that
A) laboratory experiments include controls, but field experiments need not.
B) field experiments can be more easily replicated than laboratory experiments.
C) laboratory experiments allow variables not of direct interest to be controlled, while in field experiments these typically vary.
D) field experiments can teach us about ecological systems, but laboratory experiments cannot.
E) field experiments are often used by ecologists, but laboratory experiments never are.
Q3) When a new species arises through hybridization followed by doubling of chromosome number,the process is called _____________.
Q4) Rodents that feed primarily on seeds are called ____________.
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Chapter 14: Exploitative Interactions Predation, herbivory, parasitism, and Disease
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Q1) An organism inducing disease in its host is called a ______________.
Q2) Which of the following is a result of infection of Arabis by the plant parasite Puccinia monoica?
A) formation of an elongated rosette topped by a cluster of bright yellow leaves
B) formation of a pseudoflower that resembles the flower of a buttercup
C) insect transfer of spermatia from one fungus to another
D) elimination of seed formation by the host plant
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of altered behavior of the pill bug,Armadillidum vulgare,when infected by the parasite,Plagiorhynchus cylindraceus?
A) spends less time in sheltered areas
B) positive phototaxis
C) spends more time in low humidity environments
D) seeks out light substrates
E) all are examples of altered behavior of the pill bug when infected by the parasite
Q4) _______________________ is the idea that predators can have non-lethal effects on prey's behavior in which they avoid high-risk locations.
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Chapter 15: Mutualism
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Q1) The major benefit obtained by aspen sunflower,Helianthella quinquenervis,from its ant mutualists is
A) reduced losses of seeds to seed predators.
B) reduced loss of leaf tissue to herbivorous insects.
C) more efficient extraction of soil nutrients.
D) more rapid growth early in the growing season.
E) improved attraction of pollinators.
Q2) An interaction between individuals of different species that benefit both partners is called
A) commensalism.
B) predation.
C) exploitation.
D) mutualism.
E) ammensalism.
Q3) Soil fertilization should favor mycorrhizal fungi that are
A) less aggressive at obtaining sugars from their plant hosts.
B) more aggressive at obtaining sugars from their plant hosts.
C) more efficient at extracting inorganic nutrients from soils.
D) more efficient at extracting sugars from soils.
E) more efficient at extracting inorganic nutrients from plant root exudates.
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Chapter 16: Species Abundance and Diversity
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Q1) In the Amazon forest,slight changes in soil properties tend to be correlated with A) similarly slight differences in plant communities.
B) no detectable differences in plant communities.
C) dramatic differences in plant communities.
D) dramatic differences in plant communities only if the soil property in question is moisture.
E) dramatic differences in plant communities only if the soil property in question is bedrock type.
Q2) Robert MacArthur's study of forest warblers suggested that A) fewer warbler species can survive in more complex habitats.
B) warbler species diversity increases with habitat complexity.
C) warbler species diversity decreases with habitat complexity.
D) most warblers have rather similar foraging niches.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) A relatively discrete ecological event that kills or damages organisms or alters the physical or biological environment is called a __________.
Q4) A set of species that have similar ways of making their living make up a
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Chapter 17: Species Interactions and Community Structure
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Q1) Which is the correct order of prey consumption in the Antarctic pelagic food web?
A) Krill\(\rarr\)Diatoms\(\rarr\)Ross seal\(\rarr\)Crabeater seal\(\rarr\)Killer Whale
B) Diatoms\(\rarr\)Krill\(\rarr\)Ross seal\(\rarr\)Crabeater seal\(\rarr\)Killer Whale
C) Diatoms\(\rarr\)Squid\(\rarr\)Emperor penguin\(\rarr\)Leopard seal\(\rarr\)Killer whale
D) Krill\(\rarr\)Squid\(\rarr\)Weddell seal\(\rarr\)Leopard Seal\(\rarr\)Killer whale
E) Diatoms\(\rarr\)Squid\(\rarr\)Krill\(\rarr\)Emperor penguin\(\rarr\)Leopard seal
Q2) Cleaner wrasse are mutualists of other coral reef fishes.What benefit do they provide to those other fish?
A) They suppress diseases because they consume carcasses of dead fish.
B) They keep water oxygenated because they consume organic debris before it can rot.
C) They keep fish relatively free of externally-feeding parasites.
D) They maintain fish habitat by keeping corals free of encrusting algae.
E) They reduce fish mortality by repelling large vertebrate predators.
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Chapter 18: Primary Production and Energy Flow
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Q1) The terrestrial ecosystems with highest primary production are usually those that are
A) warm and wet.
B) warm and dry.
C) cool and wet.
D) cool and dry.
E) intermediate in both temperature and moisture.
Q2) Nitrogen stable isotopes are useful tools for the study of food web structure because isotope ratios
A) change in predictable ways across trophic levels.
B) often vary among alternative food sources for a consumer.
C) for a predator exactly match the isotope ratio in its prey.
D) both change in predictable ways across trophic levels and often vary among alternative food sources for a consumer.
Q3) Primary production is lowest in which ecosystem?
A) creosote bush desert
B) annual grassland
C) subalpine forest
D) temperate deciduous forest
E) tropical forest
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Chapter 19: Nutrient Cycling and Retention
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Q1) High soil nutrient content usually leads to slower decomposition,because soil organisms have less need for nutrients of organic origin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nitrogen fixation is an energy-demanding process because of the strong _____ bond between the two nitrogen atoms in the N<sub>2</sub> molecule.
A) single covalent
B) double covalent
C) triple covalent
D) ionic
E) hydrogen
Q3) The rate of decomposition of leaf litter in woodlands can be strongly influenced by A) moisture.
B) nitrogen content.
C) leaf toughness.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 20: Succession and Stability
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Q1) A community in which secondary succession is very rapid has
A) high resistance.
B) low resistance.
C) high resilience.
D) low resilience.
E) high replication.
Q2) On intertidal boulders in California,the climax community is dominated by perennial red algae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On intertidal boulders in California,the diversity of diatoms and algae
A) increases at first, but then declines late in succession.
B) increases steadily through succession.
C) increases slowly at first, but then rapidly late in succession.
D) increases rapidly at first, then plateaus late in succession.
E) first decreases, but later increases.
Q4) A tendency for a community to maintain its structure even when subject to potential disturbance is called ____________.
Q5) A set of sites differing in successional age is called a ____________.
Q6) The first plants in a successional sequence are called the ______________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) A large value of the patch shape index,S = P/(2\( \surd\)\(\pi\)A),indicates a
A) shape near a circle, with a high perimeter-to-area ratio.
B) shape near a circle, with a low perimeter-to-area ratio.
C) very elongated shape, with a low perimeter-to-area ratio.
D) very elongated shape, with a high perimeter-to-area ratio.
Q2) During droughts,water levels are likely to drop most steeply in lakes at the lower end of hydrological flow systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) More isolated Finnish meadows support higher densities of Glanville fritillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For Glanville fritillary butterflies in Finland,larger habitat patches (compared to smaller ones)support
A) higher population sizes and higher population densities.
B) higher population sizes but equal population densities.
C) higher population sizes but lower population densities.
D) equal population sizes, due to higher population densities.
E) equal population sizes and equal population densities.
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Chapter 22: Geographic Ecology
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Q1) Birds on oceanic islands have highest diversity on
A) large islands close to the mainland.
B) large islands far from the mainland.
C) small islands close to the mainland.
D) small islands far from the mainland.
E) small islands of recent geologic origin.
Q2) The equilibrium model of island biogeography predicts
A) large islands, nearer a source of colonists, will support the fewest number of species.
B) small islands, farther from a source of colonists, will support the fewest number of species.
C) small islands, nearer a source of colonists, will support the fewest number of species. D) large islands, farther from a source of colonists, will support the greatest number of species.
E) both large islands, farther from a source of colonists, will support the greatest number of species and small islands, farther from a source of colonists, will support the fewest number of species.
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Chapter 23: Global Ecology
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Q1) Concentrations of ozone in earth's atmosphere are highest in the A) troposphere.
B) stratosphere.
C) mesosphere.
D) thermosphere.
E) ozonosphere.
Q2) During El Niño events,primary production by phytoplankton increases sharply in the Great Salt Lake of Utah.This is because
A) water temperatures increase.
B) nutrient concentrations are increased as lake volume shrinks.
C) decreasing salinity allows invasion of predators that control brine shrimp populations.
D) decreasing salinity allows invasion of more phytoplankton species.
E) decreasing dissolved oxygen increases the efficiency of photosynthesis.
Q3) Ozone in the stratosphere is destroyed during breakdown of ________ molecules.
Q4) Strongly negative values of the Southern Oscillation Index are associated with La Niña events.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the "U.S.LTER Network",LTER stands for ________.
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