Biochemistry
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. This course explores the structure, function, and interactions of biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. Emphasis is placed on metabolic pathways, enzyme mechanisms, and the molecular basis of genetic information flow. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and applied problem-solving, students develop an understanding of how biochemical processes underpin cellular activities and contribute to the complexity of life. Biochemistry serves as a foundational course for students pursuing careers in medicine, research, biotechnology, and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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705 Verified Questions
705 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following macromolecules is considered a homopolymer?
A)polypeptides
B)ribonucleic acids
C)deoxyribonucleic acids
D)starch
E)all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following elements is considered a second tier biochemical element meaning that it is less abundant than first tier elements but still required for life in all organisms?
A)H
B)N
C)P
D)C
E)O
Answer: C
Q3) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways.Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid.Based upon this name,draw the molecule.
Answer: 11ea8a11_436d_60c5_8b44_bfd5f6b258f9_TB4872_00
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Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What pH range is generally considered to be the physiological pH range?
A)1.5-3.0
B)4.5-7.0
C)5.5-9.0
D)6.5-8.0
E)7.5-10.0
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following atoms could interact through a hydrogen bond?
A)the oxygen of a ketone and the hydrogen of an aldehyde
B)the oxygen of methanol and a hydrogen on the methyl carbon of methanol
C)the hydrogen of an amine and the oxygen of an alcohol
D)the hydrogen on an aromatic ring and the oxygen of carbon dioxide
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) Lactic acid is a common product of actively working muscle.It is transported via the bloodstream to the liver.What percent of lactic acid is ionized in the bloodstream if the pH is 7.40 and the pK<sub>a</sub> is 3.86?
Answer: 99.97% (100% using correct SF) 11ea8a11_436e_4b28_8b44_51c4fa03cb4b_TB4872_00
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the \(\Delta\)G value for a given biochemical reaction is a relatively large,positive value,which of the following is true?
A)the reaction is said to be exergonic
B)the reaction is thermodynamically favorable
C)the reverse reaction is thermodynamically favorable
D)the reaction is freely reversible
E)the reaction is at equilibrium
Answer: C
Q2) The biochemical standard state differs from standard state conditions in what way?
A)pH = 7.0
B)T = 298.15 K
C)activity of water = 0
D)ionic strength = 1
E)all of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the structure of a nucleotide?
A)adenine is bound via a link between N-7 and C-1 of ribose
B)phosphates are always bound to C-2 of ribose
C)cytosine is bound via a link between the amine on C-4 and C-1 of ribose
D)guanine is bound via a link between N-9 and C-1 of ribose
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents a palindromic sequence?
A)ACCTTCCA
B)ATTCCAAT
C)GATTAATC
D)GGTAATCC
E)none of the above
Q3) From the following polynucleotide sequence,one would conclude which of the following?
ACCAGTCG
A)the base found at the 3' end of the molecule is adenine
B)the base found at the 5' end of the molecule is adenine
C)the terminal adenosine contains a free 3' hydroxyl group
D)the terminal guanosine contains a free 5' phosphate group
E)none of the above
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of
Protein Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalence of the trans orientation in peptide bonds results in the R-groups of adjacent amino acids being oriented approximately ______ degrees with respect to each other.
A)30
B)60
C)90
D)120
E)180
Q2) Which of the following undergoes an oxidation reaction to form a disulfide bond?
A)serine
B)cysteine
C)methionine
D)threonine
E)tyrosine
Q3) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu
Q4) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1,3,7,and 11.
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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following proteins that aid in the folding process,which is exclusively involved in the interconversion of cis and trans bonds?
A)prolyl isomerase
B)protein disulfide isomerase
C)Hsp60
D)Hsp70
E)GroEl-ES complex
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding \(\beta\)-sheet structures?
A)hydrogen bonds in an parallel sheet are non-linear
B)hydrogen bonds in an antiparallel sheet are non-linear
C)the rise per residue is greater for a parallel sheet than for an antiparallel sheet
D)\(\beta\)-sheets are an n=3 helix with each residue rotated 120S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 with respect to its neighbors
E)none of the above
Q3) Draw a section of antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet showing two sheets with three residues in each sheet.Clearly show the hydrogen bond pattern between the two sheets.
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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mutations is correctly defined?
A)silent: change of a single base in the non-coding intron region of a gene
B)missense: substitution of a single base results in a premature stop codon
C)nonsense: substitution of a single base results in a complete change of amino acid sequence
D)frameshift: deletion of a single base results in a single amino acid change
E)permissive: results in a protein that has greater thermodynamic stability
Q2) Which of the following interactions causes a change from the R state (oxy form)to the T state (deoxy form)of hemoglobin?
A)interactions between heme groups
B)protonation of the R-group of His146 on the \(\beta\) subunit to allow formation of a salt bridge with Lys40 on the \(\alpha\) subunit
C)salt bridge formed by \(\alpha\)1-Arg141 to the carboxylate of \(\alpha\)2Asp126
D)protonation of the \(\alpha\)1 subunit terminal carboxyl group disrupts a salt bridge with \(\alpha\)2Lys 127
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the 9 + 2 array seen in the axoneme?
A)2 central microtubules ringed by 9 microtubule doublets
B)2 central microtubule doublets ringed by 9 microtubules
C)9 central microtubules with 2 microtubules attached to each central microtubule
D)9 central microtubules with 2 microtubule doublets attached to each central microtubule
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following only occurs when ATP (not ADP)is bound to the myosin head?
A)actin is released from its binding site on myosin
B)weak binding of myosin head to actin
C)strong binding of myosin head to actin
D)power stroke of muscle contraction
E)none of the above
Q3) In a typical cell,the use of proton gradient to power ATP synthesis requires about 3 protons for each ATP.Based on this,what is the energy expenditure,in ATP/minute,of a typical flagellum if it is running at 120 revolutions per second and requires 1000 protons to make one revolution?
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Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars,saccharides,glycans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw a \(\beta\)-disaccharide composed of glucose linked to its C-2 epimer by an \(\alpha\)(1\(\to\)4)glycosidic bond with the anomeric carbon of glucose contributing to the glycosidic bond.
Q2) Gluconic acid is derived from ________ while glucuronic acid is derived from _______.
A)glucose;gulose
B)gulose;glucose
C)glucose;glucose
D)glucose;galactose
E)galactose;glucose
Q3) Which of the following formulas would be a carbohydrate
A)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>5</sub>
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
E)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
Q4) Show the interaction that would take place between the R-group of asparagine in a protein and the substituent on C-2 of an N-acetylglucosamine residue of a glycan.
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Chapter 10: Lipids,membranes and Cellular Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not specifically cause a membrane to be more rigid or fluid,but rather causes the T<sub>m</sub> to occur over a greater range?
A)increasing the content of unsaturated fatty acids
B)raising the temperature
C)increasing the cholesterol content
D)decreasing the phosphatidylcholine content while increasing the phosphatidylethanolamine content
E)all of the above
Q2) A flippase is an enzyme that moves lipids from one side of a lipid bilayer to another in order to maintain the concentrations of specific lipids on each side of the bilayer.Which of the following can be said regarding the reaction of the flippase enzyme?
A)it works against a concentration gradient and requires ATP
B)it works against a concentration gradient but does not require ATP
C)it works with a concentration gradient and requires ATP
D)it works with a concentration gradient but does not require ATP
E)none of the above
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Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the expected changes in kinetics in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?
A)V<sub>max</sub> decreases,K<sub>M</sub> appears to decrease B)V<sub>max</sub> does not change,K<sub>M</sub> appears to decrease C)V<sub>max</sub> decreases,K<sub>M</sub> appears to increase D)V<sub>max</sub> does not change,K<sub>M</sub> appears to increase E)V<sub>max</sub> decreases,K<sub>M</sub> does not change
Q2) An enzymatic reaction has a V<sub>max</sub> of 100 \(\mu\)M/min.At a substrate concentration of 5 \(\mu\)M,the velocity is 25 \(\mu\)M/min.What is the K<sub>M</sub> for the reaction?
A)5 \(\mu\)M
B)10 \(\mu\)M
C)15 \(\mu\)M
D)20 \(\mu\)M
E)none of the above
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Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following eukaryotic organisms is both autotrophic and heterotrophic?
A)yeast
B)humans
C)Venus fly trap
D)redwood trees
E)mushrooms
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a biosynthetic pathway?
A)glycolysis
B)glycogen synthesis
C)fatty acid \(\beta\)-oxidation
D)citric acid cycle
E)electron transport
Q3) ________ is commonly used as an oxidizing agent in catabolic pathways while ________ is commonly used as a reducing agent in anabolic pathways.
A)NAD<sup>+</sup>;NADH
B)NAD<sup>+</sup>;FADH<sub>2</sub>
C)NADP<sup>+</sup>;NADH
D)FAD;FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)NAD<sup>+</sup>;NADPH
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Page 14
Chapter
Phosphate Pathway
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the fate of pyruvate in a blood cell?
A)acetyl CoA
B)carbon dioxide
C)lactate
D)ethanol
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is correctly paired with the glycolytic intermediate that serves as its precursor?
A)ribulose-5-phosphate: fructose-6-phosphate
B)serine: phosphoenolpyruvate
C)glycogen: glucose-6-phosphate
D)glycerol-3-phosphate: glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
E)glucosamine: fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Q3) The reaction catalyzed by triose phosphate isomerase is most similar in mechanism to which of the following glycolytic enzymes?
A)glucose-6-phosphate isomerase
B)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate aldolase
C)phosphoglycerate mutase
D)enolase
E)pyruvate kinase
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the citric acid cycle,acetyl-CoA reacts with ________ to produce _________.
A)fumarate;\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
B)oxaloacetate;citrate
C)citrate;isocitrate
D)succinyl-CoA;oxaloacetate
E)malate;cis-aconitate
Q2) Arsenic poisoning by either arsenite or organic arsenical agents work by binding to dithiol compounds such as _________ meaning that in addition to inactivation of pyruvate dehydrogenase,the citric acid cycle enzyme _________ would be inactivated.
A)cysteine;aconitase
B)coenzyme A;\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
C)coenzyme A;citrate synthase
D)thiamine pyrophosphate;isocitrate dehydrogenase
E)lipoic acid;\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) A(n)_______ incorporates oxygen from O<sub>2</sub> into its products while a(n)_______ uses another oxidizing agent to accomplish the oxidation of its substrate.
A)oxidase;dioxygenase
B)dehydrogenase;oxygenase
C)oxygenase;oxidase
D)dehydrogenase;oxidase
E)dioxygenase;oxygenase
Q2) In addition to iron,what metal is found in certain cytochromes?
A)manganese
B)copper
C)chromium
D)cobalt
E)zinc
Q3) The initial oxidation (known as \(\beta\)-oxidation)of a 16 carbon saturated fatty acid produces 8 acetyl-CoA,7 NADH and 7 FADH<sub>2</sub>.The process requires an input of 2 equivalents of ATP for the activation of the fatty acid.If the acetyl-CoA is further oxidized to CO<sub>2</sub>,what is the net ATP production from the complete oxidation of the fatty acid assuming that all electron carriers are re-oxidized by the electron transport chain?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The energy available from the protonmotive force across the thylakoid membrane is about 20 kJ/mol of protons.How much energy per mole of photons absorbed by the two photosystems does this equal?
A)13 kJ/mol
B)30 kJ/mol
C)40 kJ/mol
D)60 kJ/mol
E)none of the above
Q2) The regeneration phase of the dark reactions are best considered in terms of regenerating 6 molecules of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate,a process that requires 6 ATP.Considering the number of photons required for production of ATP in the light reactions,on average,how many photons must be absorbed for each molecule of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate regenerated?
A)1.5
B)3
C)4.5
D)6
E)9
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19
Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty
Acids,triacylglycerols,and Lipoproteins
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Q1) For each acetyl-CoA that is incorporated into a growing fatty acid,what energy inputs are required,assuming that the growing fatty acid already contains at least 4 carbons?
A)1 NADPH,1 FADH<sub>2</sub>,1 ATP
B)2 NADPH,1 ATP
C)2 NADPH,1 FADH<sub>2</sub>,1 ATP
D)1 NADPH,1 FADH<sub>2</sub>,2 ATP
E)2 NADPH,2 ATP
Q2) Which of the following lipoproteins distributes dietary lipids?
A)chylomicron
B)very low density lipoprotein
C)intermediate density lipoprotein
D)low density lipoprotein
E)high density lipoprotein
Q3) A(n)___________ is converted to a(n)_____________ by loss of triacylglycerols.
A)chylomicron;very low density lipoprotein
B)low density lipoprotein;high density lipoprotein
C)very low density lipoprotein;intermediate density lipoprotein
D)low density lipoprotein;very low density lipoprotein
E)intermediate density lipoprotein;very low density lipoprotein
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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) If a group of transgenic mice that overexpress SIRT1 was fed as much food as the mice desired to eat,what would be the consequences?
A)shortened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular disease
B)normal lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
C)normal lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
D)lengthened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
E)lengthened lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
Q2) Which of the following molecules is made in the liver solely for export?
A)ketone bodies
B)triacylglycerols
C)glucose-6-phosphate
D)glycogen
E)none of the above
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Chapter
Eicosanoids
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Q1) Which of the following phospholipids is produced in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
A)phosphatidylglycerol
B)phosphatidylserine
C)phosphatidylethanolamine
D)phosphatidylinositol
E)none of the above
Q2) The synthesis of phosphatidylethanolamine in prokaryotes involves _________________ while in mammals _______________ occurs.
A)reaction of CDP-diacylglycerol with ethanolamine;decarboxylation of phosphatidylserine
B)decarboxylation of phosphatidylserine;reaction of CDP-ethanolamine with diacylglycerol
C)reaction of phosphoethanolamine with diacylglycerol;reaction of CDP-ethanolamine with diacylglycerol
D)decarboxylation of phosphatidylserine;reaction of CDP-diacylglycerol with ethanolamine
E)reaction of CDP-diacylglycerol with ethanolamine;reaction of phosphoethanolamine with diacylglycerol
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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) Which of the following metabolites is elevated as a result of low folate levels and poses a risk for cardiovascular disease?
A)homocysteine
B)methionine
C)5-formyl-THF
D)formate
E)none of the above
Q2) Ubiquitin is added to _________ residues of the target protein by reaction with the terminal __________ group of ubiquitin.
A)lysine;carboxyl
B)serine;carboxyl
C)cysteine;carboxyl
D)glutamate;amine
E)glutamine;amine
Q3) What would be the energy requirements of the urea cycle if both nitrogens of urea came from glutamine (assuming that any NADH made was re-oxidized via electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation)? Explain how this is possible.
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds Ii:
Amino Acids, porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) In the pathway for conversion of phenylalanine to fumarate and acetoacetate,there are two well-known enzyme defects that cause inheritable metabolic diseases.What are the names of these two diseases?
A)homocysteinuria and nonketotic hyperglycinemia
B)phenylketonuria and maple syrup urine disease
C)alkaptonuria and nonketotic hyperglycinemia
D)alkaptonuria and phenylketonuria
E)maple syrup urine disease and homocysteinuria
Q2) Which of the following molecules uses chorismate as a precursor?
A)p-aminobenzoic acid
B)coenzyme Q
C)phenylalanine
D)tryptophan
E)all of the above
Q3) One route for tryptophan degradation leads to the coenzyme _____________.
A)pyridoxal phosphate
B)FAD
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>
D)tetrahydrobiopterin
E)none of the above
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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following correctly explains the relationship between xanthine dehydrogenase (XDH)and xanthine oxidase (XO)?
A)in healthy tissue,XDH is abundant while XO is rarely found
B)conversion of XDH to XO occurs under conditions that damage cells
C)XDH is converted to XO by formation of a disulfide bond
D)XDH is converted to XO by proteolysis
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a product of xanthine dehydrogenase?
A)hypoxanthine
B)uric acid
C)guanine
D)xanthosine
E)allantoin
Q3) Which of the following coenzymes contains an adenylate group?
A)cobalamin
B)tetrahydrofolate
C)thiamine pyrophosphate
D)pyridoxal phosphate
E)coenzyme A
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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) Most steroid hormones exert their effects by initial binding to which of the following receptors?
A)receptor in cell membrane
B)receptor in cytosol
C)receptor in nuclear membrane
D)receptor in nucleus
E)none of the above
Q2) In the presynaptic neuron,______ influx causes neurotransmitter release while in the postsynaptic neuron,______ enters the cell following opening of ion channels.
A)Na<sup>+</sup>;K<sup>+</sup>
B)K<sup>+</sup>;Na<sup>+</sup>
C)Ca<sup>2+</sup>;K<sup>+</sup>
D)Ca<sup>2+</sup>;Na<sup>+</sup>
E)Na<sup>+</sup>;Ca<sup>2+</sup>
Q3) Insulin activates glycogen synthase while glucagon inhibits glycogen synthase.Explain the intracellular mechanisms that are used to bring about this activity.
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Chapter 24: Genes,genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) What structure is responsible for linking the centromeres to the spindle fibers during mitosis?
A)metaphase plate
B)nucleosome
C)kinetochore
D)centromere scaffold
E)none of the above
Q2) Which histone protein is associated with the linker DNA and therefore not actually part of the nucleosome?
A)H1
B)H2A
C)H2B
D)H3
E)H4
Q3) What is the typical percentage of lysine + arginine in histone proteins?
A)<5%
B)5-10%
C)10-20%
D)20-35%
E)>35%
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Chapter 25: Dna Replication
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Q1) Which of the subunits of DNA polymerase III is responsible for the high processivity of the enzyme?
A)\(\beta\)
B)\(\gamma\)
C)\(\delta\)
D)\(\delta\)'
E)\(\varepsilon\)
Q2) How does the gp32 protein facilitate both stabilization of single-stranded DNA as well as its renaturation to double-stranded DNA?
A)gp32 is an enzyme and thus its reaction of separating DNA strands is freely reversible B)gp32 binds only to regions of high A and T content so hydrogen bonding is reversible C)gp32 displays cooperativity in binding to single stranded DNA
D)the gp32 C-terminal domain acts as a switch between weak and strong single stranded DNA binding E)none of the above
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Chapter 26: Dna Restructuring:
Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification
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Q1) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
Q2) What role does integration host factor (IHF)play in site-specific recombination during phage \(\lambda\) lysogeny?
A)binds host DNA forcing a 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0bend
B)supercoils phage DNA
C)cleaves host and phage DNA at specific sites to create sticky ends
D)ligates host and phage DNA once recombination occurs
E)all of the above
Q3) How does RecA bring about strand exchange?
A)RecA acts as a helicase,unwinding DNA in localized regions
B)RecA monomers bind to ssDNA to form a nucleoprotein filament
C)RecA monomers interact only with ssDNA and immediately dissociate when binding to dsDNA
D)RecA forms a tetramer that wraps around DNA at specific sites that must be cleaved by a nuclease
E)none of the above
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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw a transcription bubble,clearly labeling the proteins and nucleic acids involved in the process.
Q2) Which of the following events commonly occur in the processing of eukaryotic mRNA?
A)addition of a 5' cap
B)RNA editing
C)splicing to remove introns
D)alternative splicing to combine different exons into mature mRNA
E)all of the above
Q3) The E.coli promoter region contains a -10 consensus sequence of _________ on the sense strand.
A)GAGAGA
B)CTCTCT
C)GAGGAG
D)GACGTC
E)TATAAT
Q4) Give the mRNA sequence that would result from the following sense strand:
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What enzyme attaches the correct amino acid to its tRNA?
A)aminoacyl-tRNA synthase
B)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
C)aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
D)aminoacyl-tRNA ligase
E)none of the above
Q2) In most cases,the first codon in prokaryotic mRNA codes for ________ while the first codon in eukaryotic mRNA codes for ________.
A)methionine;N-formylmethionine
B)N-formylmethionine;methionine
C)proline;N-formylproline
D)N-formylproline;proline
E)none of the above
Q3) Which position of the anticodon is called the wobble base and with which base of the codon does it pair?
A)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon
B)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon
C)the middle anticodon base which pairs with the middle base of the codon
D)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon
E)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) A short RNA that is complimentary to a specific mRNA and used for inhibition of translation is called ______________.
A)antisense RNA
B)missense RNA
C)nonsense RNA
D)senseless RNA
E)none of the above
Q2) What elements are contained within the promoter of the lactose operon?
A)operator and CRP site
B)operator and repressor
C)CRP site and repressor
D)operator,CRP site and repressor
E)none of the above
Q3) What is thought to occur when CRP binds to DNA?
A)formation of a hairpin that prevents progression of RNA polymerase
B)bending of DNA to facilitate RNA polymerase binding
C)blocking of promoter regions to prevent binding of RNA polymerase
D)forms non-covalent interactions with RNA polymerase to bind it to DNA
E)none of the above
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