Biochemistry Laboratory Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Biochemistry Laboratory is a practical course that introduces students to fundamental techniques and experimental approaches in the study of biomolecules and cellular processes. Through hands-on experience, students will learn methods such as protein purification, enzyme kinetics, chromatography, electrophoresis, and spectrophotometry.

Emphasis is placed on proper laboratory practices, safety, experimental design, data analysis, and the interpretation of biochemical results. This course provides essential skills necessary for advanced studies and research in biochemistry and related fields.

Recommended Textbook

Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews

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29 Chapters

705 Verified Questions

705 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways.Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid.Based upon this name,draw the molecule.

Answer: 11ea8a11_436d_60c5_8b44_bfd5f6b258f9_TB4872_00

Q2) Which of the following best describes homeostasis?

A)a non-equilibrium,non-steady state

B)a non-equilibrium steady state

C)an equilibrium-controlled,non-steady state

D)an equilibrium-controlled steady state

E)none of the above

Answer: B

Q3) Prior to 1926,the source of biological catalysis was postulated to be possessed by "ferments" which today are called _______.

A)proteins

B)nucleic acids

C)enzymes

D)polysaccharides

E)membranes

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) If gastric juice has a pH of about 1.5,which of the following would be predominantly deprotonated in the stomach?

A)phenol (pKa = 9.9)

B)acetic acid (pKa = 4.7)

C)lactic acid, (pKa = 3.9)

D)phosphoric acid (pKa = 2.1)

E)hydrochloric acid (pKa = -6)

Answer: E

Q2) Which of the following would likely form micelles in an aqueous solution?

A)hexane

B)glucose

C)glutamic acid

D)dodecanoic acid

E)none of the above

Answer: D

Q3) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs.With a pKa of 7.0,what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?

Answer: 2.5 11ea8a11_436e_4b29_8b44_234f570e4c48_TB4872_00

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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the change in entropy for a process is much less than the change in enthalpy,why might the entropy change be the dominant factor in determining the overall free energy of the process?

A)biochemical reactions are performed at relatively constant pressure

B)biochemical reactions generally occur around 300 K.

C)biochemical reactions involve few reactants and products

D)biochemical reactions involve mixtures of molecules,never pure substances

E)all of the above

Answer: B

Q2) Calculate the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' for the oxidation of succinate to fumarate,a step in the citric acid cycle.

FAD + 2H+ + 2e- \(\to\) FADH2

ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = - 0.22 V fumarate + 2H+ + 2e- \(\to\) succinate

ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = + 0.03 V

Answer: ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = - 0.25 V

\(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = -nFES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = -(2)(96.5 kJ/V/mol)(-0.25 V)= 48.3 kJ/mol

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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding the flow of genetic information?

A)replication uses a DNA template to form RNA which serves as the new template for DNA synthesis

B)transcription produces RNA from a DNA template using the enzyme RNA polymerase

C)translation uses mRNA as a template,rRNA to carry amino acids,and tRNA to catalyze the synthesis of proteins

D)during both replication and transcription,the products are double stranded polynucleotides

E)none of the above

Q2) Draw the structure of cytosine and thymine,then show the most common tautomer of each.

Q3) In a circular DNA molecule of 126 bp with 10.5 bp/turn,which of the following represents an unstrained circle? (L = linking number,T = twist and W = writhe)

A)L = 12,T = 12,W = 0

B)L = 11,T = 11,W = 0

C)L = 11,T = 12,W = -1

D)L = 12,T = 11,W = +1

E)L = 11,T = 10,W = 0

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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of

Protein Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following pairs of amino acids could form a hydrogen bond through their R-groups?

A)serine and phenylalanine

B)aspartic acid and methionine

C)histidine and tyrosine

D)alanine and glutamine

E)leucine and cysteine

Q2) Hydrolysis of a peptide bond produces:

A)an alcohol and an amine

B)an amine and a carboxylic acid

C)a carboxylic acid and an anhydride

D)an amide and a carboxylic acid

E)an alcohol and an amide

Q3) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu

Q4) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1,3,7,and 11.

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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) The presence of a hydrophobic amino acid at every third or fourth residue in \(\alpha\)-keratin results in which of the following?

A)a random placement of hydrophobic amino acids within the helix

B)a strip of hydrophobic surface area that,when combined with another monomer,results in the formation of a dimer through hydrophobic interactions

C)a strip of hydrophobic surface area that causes individual \(\alpha\)-keratin molecules to fold back on themselves through hydrophobic interactions

D)represents a deleterious mutation that causes the \(\alpha\)-keratin molecules to aggregate and form plaques

E)none of the above

Q2) Draw a section of antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet showing two sheets with three residues in each sheet.Clearly show the hydrogen bond pattern between the two sheets.

Q3) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.

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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which immunoglobulin is the only one to occur in a dimeric form?

A)IgA

B)IgD

C)IgE

D)IgG

E)IgM

Q2) Recent studies have shown that the H-bond between the distal histidine and oxygen molecule in myoglobin has a strength of ~ 15 kJ/mol,but in hemoglobin,the strength of the bond is only ~8 kJ/mol.What does this suggest about the differences between myoglobin and hemoglobin?

A)myoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than hemoglobin

B)hemoglobin binds oxygen more strongly than myoglobin

C)the iron in myoglobin is more easily oxidized than in hemoglobin

D)the iron in hemoglobin is more easily oxidized than in myoglobin

E)none of the above

Q3) Using the following sequence from the coding strand of DNA,determine the amino acid sequence of the corresponding protein.Make three different mutations: (1)silent, (2)missense with little or no effect upon the protein structure (indicate the amino acid substitution)and (3)nonsense.

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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a typical cell,the use of proton gradient to power ATP synthesis requires about 3 protons for each ATP.Based on this,what is the energy expenditure,in ATP/minute,of a typical flagellum if it is running at 120 revolutions per second and requires 1000 protons to make one revolution?

Q2) Which portion of the myosin protein found in muscle is responsible for both ATP and actin binding?

A)heavy-chain coiled-coiled tails

B)heavy-chain stalk

C)heavy-chain globular head

D)essential light chain

E)regulatory light chain

Q3) Which form of myosin is found in striated muscle? A)I

D)VI

E)all of the above

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Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars,saccharides,glycans

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Sample Questions

Q1) Show the interaction that would take place between the R-group of asparagine in a protein and the substituent on C-2 of an N-acetylglucosamine residue of a glycan.

Q2) Dihydroxyacetone is classified as a(n)_______.

A)aldotriose

B)ketotriose

C)aldotetrose

D)ketotetrose

E)none of the above

Q3) Which of the following is a diastereomer of D-mannose?

A)D-gulose

B)D-altrose

C)D-idose

D)D-talose

E)all of the above

Q4) Draw a \(\beta\)-disaccharide composed of glucose linked to its C-2 epimer by an \(\alpha\)(1\(\to\)4)glycosidic bond with the anomeric carbon of glucose contributing to the glycosidic bond.

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Chapter 10: Lipids,membranes and Cellular Transport

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Sample Questions

Q1) The transient association of lipid rafts is thought to play a significant role in which of the following?

A)cell signaling

B)bacterial entry into host cells

C)protein trafficking

D)membrane receptor dimerization

E)all of the above

Q2) Addition of a functional group to the pro-R carbon of glycerol places that group on carbon _____ while addition of a second functional group to the pro-S carbon of glycerol places the second group on carbon _____ of sn-glycerol.

A)1;2

B)1;3

C)3;2

D)3;1

E)2;2

Q3) Draw the following fatty acid: 18:3c\(\Delta\)9,12,15 as it would appear at physiological pH.With reference to the omega carbon,what type of fatty acid is this? Draw the result if this fatty acid underwent partial hydrogenation to produce 18:1t\(\Delta\)11

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the expected changes in kinetics in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?

A)Vmax decreases,KM appears to decrease

B)Vmax does not change,KM appears to decrease

C)Vmax decreases,KM appears to increase

D)Vmax does not change,KM appears to increase

E)Vmax decreases,KM does not change

Q2) Which of the following is the most common form of reversible covalent modification for control of enzyme activity?

A)acetylation/deacetylation

B)adenylation/deadenylation

C)phosphorylation/dephosphorylation

D)ADP-ribosylation/de-ADP-ribosylation

E)none of the above

Q3) The steady state assumption in enzyme kinetics:

A)insures that the product of an enzymatic reaction will always be formed

B)explains why enzymes are effective catalysts

C)states that the formation of ES is equal to its breakdown

D)is based upon the fact that the maximum velocity of an enzyme is very high

E)none of the above

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) In stage ____ metabolism,a catabolic pathway might produce ________ while the opposing anabolic pathway might produce _________.

A)2;monosaccharides;polysaccharides

B)3;CO2;glucose

C)2;acetyl CoA;lipids

D)1;amino acids;proteins

E)3;NH3;nucleotides

Q2) Complete oxidation of glucose by burning in a calorimeter gives a \(\Delta\)G°´ of -2870 kJ/mol.If we assume this to be the maximum energy that can be extracted from glucose,what is the percent of energy that is captured in a cell given that about 32 ATP can be made from a single molecule of glucose? \(\Delta\)G°´ for ATP hydrolysis is -30.5 kJ/mol while \(\Delta\)G for ATP hydrolysis in a cell is about -51 kJ/mol.

Q3) Pyruvic acid has the formula C3H4O3.Write the reaction for its complete combustion.What is its respiratory quotient? Does this mean that it is more oxidized or less oxidized than glucose?

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Chapter

Phosphate Pathway

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following pairs of phosphorylated molecules contains an intermediate of glycolysis with high phosphate transfer potential and one with low phosphate transfer potential?

A)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate and fructose-6-phosphate

B)phosphoenolpyruvate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

C)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate

D)1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and phosphoenolpyruvate

E)1,3-bisphosphoglycerate and pyruvate

Q2) When glucagon binds to its receptor on a liver cell,which of the following sequence of events occurs to activate protein kinase A?

A)activation of adenylate cyclase,activation of G protein,production of cAMP

B)activation of G protein,activation of adenylate cyclase,production of cAMP

C)activation of G protein,production of cAMP,activation of adenylate cyclase

D)production of cAMP,activation of adenylate cyclase,activation of G protein

E)none of the above

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Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best explains why thioesters have a greater free energy of hydrolysis than ordinary esters?

A)alcohols are better leaving groups than thiols

B)oxygen is more electronegative than sulfur

C)esters are resonance stabilized while thioesters are not D)the oxygen of an ester is more easily protonated than the sulfur of a thioester E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following correctly lists the products of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the correct order of release?

A)acetyl-CoA,CO2,NADH

B)acetyl-CoA,CO2,FADH2

C)CO2,acetyl-CoA,NADH

D)CO2,acetyl-CoA,FADH2

E)CO2,acetyl-CoA,FADH2,NADH

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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) The initial oxidation (known as \(\beta\)-oxidation)of a 16 carbon saturated fatty acid produces 8 acetyl-CoA,7 NADH and 7 FADH2.The process requires an input of 2 equivalents of ATP for the activation of the fatty acid.If the acetyl-CoA is further oxidized to CO2,what is the net ATP production from the complete oxidation of the fatty acid assuming that all electron carriers are re-oxidized by the electron transport chain?

Q2) Which of the following acts as an uncoupler of the mitochondrial proton gradient due to its action as an ionophore?

A)valinomycin

B)nigericin

C)trifluorocarbonylcyanide phenylhydrazone

D)2,4-dinitrophenol

E)cyanide

Q3) In addition to iron,what metal is found in certain cytochromes?

A)manganese

B)copper

C)chromium

D)cobalt

E)zinc

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes photosynthesis in purple photosynthetic bacteria?

A)a reaction center resembling PSI transfers electrons to plastocyanin

B)a reaction center resembling PSII transfers electrons to plastoquinone

C)water is split by the reaction center that resembles PSII

D)NADPH is generated using electrons from a protein resembling ferredoxin

E)the proton gradient is used for both ATP synthesis and NADPH generation

Q2) What specific part of the chloroplast is responsible for the light reactions of photosynthesis?

A)thylakoid lumen

B)thylakoid membrane

C)stroma

D)inner membrane of chloroplast

E)outer membrane of chloroplast

Q3) Under what conditions does the cyclic electron flow of photosystem I occur?

A)high NADPH,low ATP

B)low NADPH,high ATP

C)low NADPH,low ATP

D)high NADPH,high ATP

E)under conditions when light is not intense enough to excite PSII

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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty

Acids,triacylglycerols,and Lipoproteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) What enzyme activities are found in the mitochondrial trifunctional protein that metabolizes long chain (LC)fatty acids?

A)LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-thiolase

B)LC-acyl-CoA synthetase,LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase

C)LC-carnitine acyltransferase II,LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase

D)LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase

E)LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-thiolase

Q2) Which of the following leads to the formation of atherosclerotic plaques?

A)non-specific interactions between LDL particles

B)oxidation of LDL particles resulting in cross linking with proteins

C)uptake of oxidized LDL particles by macrophages

D)excess uptake of LDL particles converting endothelial cells to foam cells

E)none of the above

Q3) If gadoleic acid (20:1c\(\Delta\)9)underwent complete mitochondrial oxidation to CO2,how many ATP could be produced assuming that all reduced electron carriers are re-oxidized by the mitochondrial electron transport chain?

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) The transcription factor PGC-1\(\alpha\) is controlled by two forms of covalent modification.Which of the following correctly identifies a mechanism of control?

A)phosphorylation by AMPK inhibits PGC-1\(\alpha\)

B)dephosphorylation by AMPK activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

C)acetylation by SIRT1 activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

D)deacetylation by SIRT1 activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

E)dephosphorylation by AMPK and deacetylation by SIRT1 activates PGC-1\(\alpha\)

Q2) Which of the following molecules is made in the liver solely for export?

A)ketone bodies

B)triacylglycerols

C)glucose-6-phosphate

D)glycogen

E)none of the above

Q3) Which of the following is true of glucagon?

A)it is released from the pancreatic \(\beta\)-cells when glucose levels are low

B)its synthesis and release are exclusively under the control of epinephrine

C)the primary targets of glucagon are liver,adipose and muscle tissue

D)major pathways promoted by glucagon include glycogenolysis and glycolysis

E)none of the above

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, steroids,

isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids

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Sample Questions

Q1) How is the activity of HMG-CoA reductase reduced?

A)allosteric inhibition by cholesterol

B)ubiquitination in response to sterol accumulation resulting in proteolysis

C)serine phosphorylation by an insulin-activated protein kinase

D)tyrosine phosphorylation by AMPK

E)none of the above

Q2) Which of the following explains why the bile acids are much better suited than cholesterol for use as emulsification agents for fats?

A)cholesterol is oxidized to form the more polar molecule 7-hydroxycholesterol in route to formation of the bile acids

B)while cholesterol contains a hydroxyl group as its sole hydrophilic functionality,cholic acid contains 3 hydroxyl groups and a carboxylic acid

C)cholate is conjugated with glycine to make glycocholate

D)cholate is conjugated with taurine to make taurocholate

E)all of the above

Q3) Show the reaction catalyzed by 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutrayl-CoA reductase.

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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:

Principles of Biosynthesis, utilization, and Turnover

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Q1) Which of the following enzymes of ammonia incorporation is the most highly regulated?

A)glutamate dehydrogenase

B)glutamate synthetase

C)glutamine synthetase

D)glutamine synthase

E)none of the above

Q2) What would be the energy requirements of the urea cycle if both nitrogens of urea came from glutamine (assuming that any NADH made was re-oxidized via electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation)? Explain how this is possible.

Q3) Which of the following metabolites is elevated as a result of low folate levels and poses a risk for cardiovascular disease?

A)homocysteine

B)methionine

C)5-formyl-THF

D)formate

E)none of the above

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds Ii:

Amino Acids, porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters

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Q1) Which of the following molecules uses chorismate as a precursor?

A)p-aminobenzoic acid

B)coenzyme Q

C)phenylalanine

D)tryptophan

E)all of the above

Q2) Glyphosate,the active molecule in the herbicide Roundup,is an inhibitor of the enzyme 5-enolpuruvylshikimate-3-phosphate synthase in the chorismate synthesis pathway.Which of the following amino acids would not be produced in a plant treated with Roundup?

A)glycine

B)serine

C)tyrosine

D)valine

E)proline

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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism

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Q1) Which of the following sequence of events best explains the formation of carbamate in the mechanism of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase?

A)Bicarbonate and ATP form carboxyphosphate,then NH3 performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxyphosphate to form carbamate

B)Bicarbonate is attacked by NH3 to produce carbamate with ATP hydrolysis occurring solely to drive the reaction to completion

C)Bicarbonate reacts with ATP forming carboxy adenylate and pyrophosphate,then NH3 performs a nucleophilic attack on carboxy adenylate to form carbamate

D)NH3 reacts with ATP,which then reacts with bicarbonate followed by loss of phosphate to produce carbamate

E)none of the above

Q2) Which enzyme of the pyrimidine synthesis pathway is the most highly regulated?

A)carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

B)aspartate transcarbamoylase

C)orotate phosphoribosyltransferase

D)UMP kinase

E)nucleoside diphosphate kinase

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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction

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Q1) What is the primary target of releasing factors from the hypothalamus?

A)thyroid

B)adrenal medulla

C)adrenal cortex

D)posterior pituitary

E)anterior pituitary

Q2) What happens when the GTPase activity of a G protein is blocked?

A)the \(\alpha\) subunit associates only with the \(\beta\) subunit,not the \(\gamma\) subunit

B)GTP cyclizes to cGMP

C)binding to GAP occurs with very high affinity

D)adenylate cyclase remains active

E)none of the above

Q3) Which of the following hormones binds to a receptor tyrosine kinase?

A)thyroxine

B)epinephrine

C)epidermal growth factor

D)glucagon

E)cortisol

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Chapter 24: Genes,genomes and Chromosomes

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Q1) A pseudogene is a ___________.

A)gene that codes for a non-functional protein

B)nonexpressed gene

C)mutated gene

D)gene with multiple promoter regions that causes the start of transcription to be mistaken

E)none of the above

Q2) What is the term used to describe genetic variation that occurs among individuals of the same species resulting in gain or loss of restriction sites that can be detected by Southern analysis?

A)polymorphism

B)hybridization

C)clone

D)epigenetic variant

E)none of the above

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Chapter 25: Dna Replication

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Q1) For the following sequence,indicate the RNA primer that would be needed to start synthesis of the Okazaki fragment.

5'-A-A-C-T-A-G-A-C-C-A-G-A-3'

Q2) Which of the following is required for DNA polymerase I activity?

A)3' hydroxyl group

B)ATP,GTP,TTP and CTP

C)Zn2+

D)an RNA template

E)all of the above

Q3) In DNA synthesis,the _____________ strand is synthesized in a __________ fashion.

A)template;discontinuous

B)template;continuous

C)leading;discontinuous

D)lagging;discontinuous

E)none of the above

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Chapter 26: Dna Restructuring:

Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification

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Q1) One mechanism to introduce greater diversity into antibody sequences is somatic hypermutation.What enzyme is responsible for somatic hypermutation in the DNA sequences that code for antibodies?

A)deoxyadenosine deaminase

B)deoxycytidine deaminase

C)deoxyadenosine transaminase

D)purine-pyrimidine transposase

E)none of the above

Q2) A transposable element in a eukaryotic cell is called a _____________.

A)retrotransposon

B)long terminal repeat

C)oncogene

D)replicative transposon

E)composite transposon

Q3) Which of the following types of DNA repair is often coupled with transcription?

A)photoreactivation

B)base excision repair

C)replication

D)nucleotide excision repair

E)all of the above

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concept of the operon was proposed based on the ability of E.coli to metabolize the disaccharide ________ only when present in large excess over glucose.

A)sucrose

B)cellobiose

C)galactose

D)lactose

E)maltose

Q2) Rapid transcription of ribosomal RNA is thought to occur as a result of what unique feature in the DNA that encodes these genes?

A)high A-T content

B)highly repetitive sequence

C)multiple promoter sites that allow high affinity with RNA polymerase

D)presence of hairpin structures in the DNA

E)absence of nucleosomes

Q3) Draw a transcription bubble,clearly labeling the proteins and nucleic acids involved in the process.

Q4) Give the mRNA sequence that would result from the following sense strand:

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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational

Protein Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a eukaryotic cell,what protein factor is responsible for delivering each aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosome?

A)EF-Tu

B)EF-Ts

C)eEF1\(\alpha\)

D)eEF1\(\beta\)\(\gamma\)

E)eEF2

Q2) EF-Tu binds to ______ then to _______.This complex binds to the _____ site of the ribosome.

A)ATP;charged tRNA;P

B)GTP;charged tRNA;A

C)charged tRNA;ATP;A

D)charged tRNA;GTP;P

E)charged tRNA;GTP;A

Q3) What enzyme attaches the correct amino acid to its tRNA?

A)aminoacyl-tRNA synthase

B)aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

C)aminoacyl-tRNA transferase

D)aminoacyl-tRNA ligase

E)none of the above

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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression

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24 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a histone protein,what modification to lysine marks the nucleosome as a transcription target?

A)phosphorylation

B)methylation

C)ubiquitylation

D)ADP-ribosylation

E)acetylation

Q2) Lysine methylation in a histone protein produces a form of chromatin known as ________ with the genes being transcriptionally __________.

A)euchromatin;active

B)euchromatin;inactive

C)heterochromatin;active

D)heterochromatin;inactive

E)none of the above

Q3) What elements are contained within the promoter of the lactose operon?

A)operator and CRP site

B)operator and repressor

C)CRP site and repressor

D)operator,CRP site and repressor

E)none of the above

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