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Biochemistry II delves into the advanced molecular mechanisms underlying cellular function, building upon foundational concepts introduced in introductory biochemistry. The course covers topics such as metabolism, bioenergetics, enzymatic regulation, signal transduction pathways, and nucleic acid biochemistry. Students will explore the integration and control of metabolic pathways, examine the molecular basis of disease, and analyze experimental techniques used in biochemical research. Emphasis is placed on the structure-function relationships of macromolecules, the dynamic interactions within and between cells, and the application of biochemical principles to biomedical and biotechnological problems.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Biochemistry 5th Edition by Moran Horton
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Q1) ATP contains both phosphoester and phosphoanhydride linkages.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In an animal cell,DNA can be found only in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The lock-and-key theory described the action of
A)enzymes as keys that fit different chemicals.
B)substrates as keys that fit different enzymes.
C)enzymes as locks that fit other enzymes.
D)substrates as locks that fit different enzymes.
Answer: B
Q4) Enzymes are protein catalysts that form an intermediate with a substrate that fits into it.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) A hydrated potassium ion is surrounded by a shell of water molecules oriented primarily with their oxygen atoms toward the potassium ion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Attractions of oppositely charged functional groups of proteins are sometimes called ________.
A)salt bridges or ion pairing
B)disulfide bridges
C)London bridges
D)hydrophilic bridges
Answer: A
Q3) Salt bridges are often found on the surfaces of proteins where they are stabilized by water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The first treatment of a crude protein extract usually involves
A)electroplating of unwanted proteins.
B)acidification followed by neutralization.
C)fractionation with varying salt concentrations and centrifugation.
D)treatment with a great number of proteases.
Answer: C
Q2) An enzyme works well at as a catalyst at a pH of 7.2.It is found that catalytic activity is significantly less at a pH of 8.4.Which could likely cause the decrease in activity?
A)The protein has been degraded into its amino acids at pH 8.4.
B)The protein has changed shape due to a change in charge.
C)The protonation state of amino acids involved in the catalytic mechanism has changed.
D)B and C above.
E)All of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) Amino acids are neutral at the isoelectric pH.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) Enzymes implicated in several human hereditary diseases are similar to ones that regulate flowering in Arabidopsis.These enzymes are
A)peptidyl cis isomerases.
B)proline isomerase.
C)prolyl cis/trans isomerase.
D)isomerase hydrolase.
Q2) Tertiary structure of proteins describe
A)polypeptide folding.
B)bringing amino acids far apart in primary structure close together.
C)stabilizing protein structure by non-covalent interaction.
D)disulfide bridges.
E)All of the above.
Q3) The association of hydrophobic side chains in the interior of proteins helps to stabilize helices and pleated sheet domains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Heat shock proteins are those stable at higher temperatures.
A)True
B)False

6
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Q1) Which statement is false about covalent modification?
A)It is reversible.
B)It is slightly slower than allosteric regulation.
C)It usually uses the same enzyme for activation and inactivation.
D)All of the above.
Q2) The enymatic rate constant (kcat/Km)of orotidine 5'-phosphate decarboxylase is 6 × 10 M-1s-¹ and the nonenzymatic rate constant (kn)is 3 × 10-¹ s-¹.What is the value of the enzyme's catalytic proficiency?
A) 2 x 10<sup>23</sup> M<sup>-1</sup>
B) 5 x 10<sup>-24</sup> M
C) 12 x 10<sup>-9</sup> M<sup>-1</sup>s<sup>-2</sup>
D) 8.3 x 10<sup>7</sup> Ms<sup>2 </sup>
E) Cannot calcuate the profeciency without knowing the value Vmax.
Q3) Which step in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction was assumed to be negligible by Michaelis and Menton?
A)Formation of ES from E + P.
B)Formation of E + P from ES.
C)Conversion of ES to E + S.
D)Formation of ES from E + S.
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Q1) Which statement does not apply to transition states?
A)Many have been detected experimentally.
B)Chemical bonds are in the process of being formed and broken.
C)Have lifetimes on the order of 10-14 to 10-13 seconds.
D)Differ in energy from the ground state by the activation energy.
Q2) Intermediates are more stable and have longer lifetimes than transition states.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Unlike lysozyme,other glycoside hydrolases such as bacterial cellulase,form covalent glycosyl-enzyme intermediates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The enzyme has an active site which
A)fits the substrate exactly.
B)fits the transition state.
C)may contain hydrogen bonds which are covalent-like.
D)A and C.
E)B and C.
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Q1) Cobalamin (B<sub>12</sub>)
A)Pernicious anemia
B)anemia
C)Dermititis in humans
D)scurvy
E)beriberi
Q2) Cobalamin is synthesized by most organisms from simple precursors and does not need to be in the diet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which structure is not a part of folate?
A)Porphyrin ring.
B)P-aminobenzoic acid.
C)Pterin.
D)Glutamate residues.
Q4) The oxidized forms of cytochromes c absorbs more strongly than the reduced form at the Soret band near 400 nm.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What type of bond links the monomers of a polysaccharide?
A)Glucotide bond.
B)Phosphate ester bond.
C)Peptide bond.
D)Glycosidic bond.
Q2) Who received a Nobel Prize in 1937 for his work on the structures of carbohydrates and the synthesis of Vitamin C?
A)Linus Pauling.
B)Walter Haworth.
C)Max Perutz.
D)Emil Fisher.
Q3) What distinguishes an aldonic acid from an alduronic acid?
A)The oxidation of the aldehyde group in an aldonic acid and the oxidation of the highest numbered carbon in the alduronic acid.
B)Aldonic acids are derivatives of aldoses,alduronic acids are derivatives of ketoses.
C)Aldonic acids are oxidized forms of linear monosaccharides;alduronic acids are oxidized forms of cyclic monosaccharides.
D)The two terms are synonyms and are used interchangeably.
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Q1) Fatty acids required in the diet of mammals are called A)important.
B)dietary.
C)saturated.
D)essential.
E)esters.
Q2) Regions on cell membranes called lipid rafts form because A)membrane proteins form them.
B)cholesterol preferentially associates with sphingolipids.
C)certain membrane protein patches aggregate.
D)cholesterol and proteins bind to form them.
Q3) Triglycerols containing only saturated long chain fatty acids tend to remain ________ at room temperature.
A)unsaturated
B)liquid
C)solid
D)oils
Q4) Vitamins A,E and K contain an isoprenoid portion.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Metabolic pathways that involve the degradation of large molecules to smaller ones are classified as ________.
A)anabolic
B)catabolic
C)amphibolic
D)intermediary
Q2) Ten people are sitting in a row.Their objective is to whisper a secret from one person to the next all the way down the row.The first person whispers the secret to the second person who passes the secret to the third person and so on.After whispering to the third person,the second person in the row notices the ninth person has fallen asleep in their chair,so she gets up,goes down the row and shakes person nine awake.This example is similar to ________.
A)allosteric control
B)positive cooperativity
C)feed-forward activation
D)negative modulation
Q3) ATP has the highest phosphoryl-group-transfer potential in cells.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The activity of which glycolytic enzyme shown below is not used to control the rate of glycolysis?
A)PFK-1.
B)Pyruvate kinase.
C)Triose phosphate isomerase.
D)Hexokinase.
Q2) Yeast will normally convert pyruvate to ethanol.Why is this better for the yeast than a conversion to lactate?
A)Conversion to ethanol releases more NAD+ per mole than the conversion to lactate.
B)The carbon atoms are more oxidized in ethanol than in lactate.
C)Ethanol is neutral,but lactate production is accompanied by a sharp decrease in pH. D)Ethanol production is not better.Yeast normally produces ethanol and lactate in equimolar amounts.
Q3) An increase in blood insulin concentration increases the rate of glucose uptake in adipose tissue and striated muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Fragments containing three carbons can be transferred from a ketose phosphate to an aldose phosphate by the enzyme ________.
A)pyruvate carboxylase
B)transaldolase
C)debranching enzyme
D)ribose-5-phosphate isomerase
Q2) At high glucagon concentrations gluconeogenesis will be favored over glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glucagon is excreted when blood glucose is ________ (high,low),while insulin is secreted when blood glucose is ________ (high,low).
A)high;high
B)high;low
C)low;low
D)low;high
Q4) Ruminants,like cows,can utilize propionate as a precursor for gluconeogenesis.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) In citrus fruits,the levels of citric acid are related to its ability to conduct a citric acid cycle of reactions and not to its ability to act as a preservative or a reservoir of carbon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The citric acid cycle can be viewed as a multi-step catalyst simply because it returns to its original state after each round of reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In aerobic prokaryotes,the succinate dehydrogenase complex is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The eukaryotic succinate dehydrogenase complex is dissolved in the mitochondrial matrix.
A)True B)False
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Q1) ATP directly provides the energy to transport protons across the inner membrane from the matrix to the intermembrane space of mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The oxidation-reduction cofactor in the multisubunit enzyme fumarate reductase in E.coli which has the greatest reduction potential is A)FAD.
B)iron clusters.
C)ubiquinone.
D)menaquinone.
E)NADH.
Q3) The human mitochondrial genome contains genes for all of the complexes necessary for electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mitochondrial electron transport and ATP formation are interdependent. A)True
B)False
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Q1) What structural feature is most responsible for chlorophyll's ability to absorb light?
A)The magnesium ion.
B)The conjugated double-bonds in the tetrapyrrole ring.
C)The phytol side chain.
D)An aromatic side chain attached to the tetrapyrrole ring.
Q2) Solar energy is captured in chemical form as ATP and NADPH by the process of photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The main difference between photosynthesis and respiratory electron transport is (are)
A)the tetrapyrole ring of the pigments involved.
B)the coenzymes that carry electrons.
C)the sources of excited electrons.
D)the formation of ATP.
Q4) Bacteria with PS I use sunlight to produce NADPH while those with PSII do not.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which do you expect to have the highest protein content by percent?
A)VLDLs.
B)ILDs.
C)HDLs.
D)All of the lipids above have about the same protein content.
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)Bile salts - intestinal absorption of lipids.
B)B-estradiol - sex characteristics.
C)Cholesterol - membrane fluidity.
D)Squalene - lipid vitamin.
Q3) Which of the following is not a stage of fatty acid synthesis?
A)Condensation of precursors.
B)Rearrangement.
C)Reduction.
D)Dehydration.
Q4) Fatty acids are oxidized in the ________.
A)mitochondrial matrix
B)cytosol
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)mitochondrial inner membrane space

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Q1) Which of the following is an amide-containing amino acid?
A)Alanine.
B)Arginine.
C)Aspartate.
D)Asparagine.
Q2) Which disease is caused by a defect in ornithine transaminase activity?
A)Alcaptonuria.
B)Gyrate atrophy.
C)Cystinuria.
D)Maple syrup urine disease.
E)Nonketotic hyperglycinemia.
Q3) Glycine is a precursor for all of the following except A)cytidine.
B)creatine phosphate.
C)porphobilinogen.
D)bile salts.
E)glyoxylate.
Q4) Chorismate is a key branch-point intermediate in aromatic amino acid synthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Pyrimidines are catabolized to ammonia,bicarbonate,and either ________ (from cytosine or uracil)or ________ (from thymine).
A)succinyl CoA;acetyl CoA
B) -alanine; -aminobutyrate
C)fumarate;succinyl CoA
D)acetyl CoA;succinyl CoA
E)acetyl CoA;acetyl CoA
Q2) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is located in the ________ in eukaryotes and uses ________ as a nitrogen source.
A)mitochondria;glutamine
B)mitochondria;ammonia
C)cytosol;glutamine
D)cytosol;ammonia
Q3) Which is a method by which the synthesis of AMP or GMP is regulated?
A)Covalent modification.
B)Feedback inhibition.
C)Feed-forward activation.
D)Competitive inhibition.
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Q1) The major and minor grooves are the same in B-DNA,A-DNA,and Z-DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteria produce many restriction endonucleases.What prevents these enzymes from degrading the host DNA?
A)A bacterium will produce endonucleases that recognize sequences that are not present in its own DNA.
B)The strong association between the histones and bacterial DNA prevent the endonucleases from acting on them.
C)The endonucleases are transported out of the cell so quickly they cannot significantly affect the host DNA.
D)The host DNA is specifically methylated and is therefore protected from cleavage.
Q3) The abbreviation dGp indicates
A)5' deoxyguanylate.
B)3' deoxyguanylate.
C)3',5' deoxyguanylate.
D)5',3'deoxyguanylate.
E)None of the above.
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Q1) A short primer is added to the DNA polymerase reaction mix for Sanger DNA sequencing that has a 5' free hydroxyl to which new nucleotides can be added.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication mechanisms is
A)no Okazaki fragments are made in eukaryotes.
B)both leading and lagging strands are continuous in eukaryotes.
C)no primer synthesis is needed in eukaryotes.
D)the replication fork moves slower in eukaryotes.
Q3) What is a Klenow fragment?
A)A fragment of DNA polymerase I that lacks 5' 3' exonuclease activity.
B)A topoisomerase responsible for unwinding DNA at the replication fork.
C)A portion of the replisome responsible for RNA primer synthesis.
D)Short stretches of DNA formed during polymerization of the lagging strand.
Q4) The polymerization of DNA is essentially irreversible due to the hydrolysis of pyrophosphate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The large RNA-protein complex that processes introns and exons is called
A)the replisome
B)the catalytic RNA complex
C)the spliceosome
D)RNA ligase
Q2) Post-transcriptional modification of mRNA in eukaryotes occurs after they are transported to the cytosol,but before they bind to the ribosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is not a feature of eukaryotic mRNA processing?
A)Addition of a 5'-5' triphosphate linkage to GTP.
B)Methylation of the terminal CCA triad.
C)Addition of a polyA tail to the 3' end.
D)Removal of intron sequences.
Q4) When a sequence of double-strand DNA is displayed,
A)the coding strand is written in the 3' 5' direction.
B)the template strand is written in the 5' 3' direction.
C)the coding strand is identical to the RNA product.
D)None of the above.

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Q1) The main control of the rate of globin synthesis is due to the activity of GEF (guanine nucleotide exchange factor).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ordering of amino acids to form the sequence of a protein represents a significant gain of entropy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) EF-Ts promotes the dissociation of GDP from the EF-Tu-GDP complex to recycle this elongation factor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How are the termination codons different from other codons?
A)They contain thymines.
B)The termination codon always codes for methionine.
C)They are not recognized by any tRNA molecules.
D)Their conformations do not allow them to fit properly in the A site of the ribosome.
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