Biochemistry I Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biochemistry I offers a foundational exploration of the chemical principles underlying biological processes. Students will examine the structure and function of biomolecules, including proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, and investigate their roles in cellular metabolism and regulation. The course emphasizes enzyme mechanics, bioenergetics, and metabolic pathways, providing a comprehensive understanding of the molecular basis of life. Through lectures, laboratory work, and problem-solving exercises, students will develop critical skills for analyzing biochemical phenomena and understanding the molecular mechanisms that drive cellular functions.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Biochemistry Life at the Molecular Level 5th Edition by Donald Voet
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If gas molecules in an enclosed chamber are allowed to enter a second chamber,the resulting redistribution of gas molecules represents an increase in A)enthalpy.
B)entropy.
C)force.
D)chemical potential.
E)all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) The second law of thermodynamics states:
A)that spontaneous processes are characterized by the overall conversion of order to disorder.
B)that spontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion of work to force.
C)that nonspontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion of order to disorder.
D)that spontaneous processes are characterized by the conversion heat to pressure.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water
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Q1) A solution containing a weak acid (pK = 7.5)and its conjugate base at pH of 8.5 has a good capacity to buffer the addition of ______.
A) hydrogen bond
B) rotational
C) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup> </sup>
E) HPO<sub>4</sub> <sup>2 </sup>
F) disordered
G) positive entropy
H) negative entropy
I) higher electronegativity
J) insoluble
K) tetrahedral arrangement
L) acid
M) base
N) only partially ionized
Answer: L
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Chapter 3: Nucleotides, nucleic Acids, and Genetic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA sequencing using the Sanger method requires
A)template,primer,DNA polymerase,mRNA,dNTPs,ddNTPs.
B)template,primer,DNA polymerase,dNTPs,ddNTPs.
C)template,primer,DNA polymerase,rRNA,dNTPs,ddNTPs.
D)template,primer,DNA polymerase,mRNA,dNTPs.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Chargaff's rules state that:
A)The amount of guanine plus cytosine in mammalian genomes varies from about 39 to 46%.
B)DNA is always double stranded and RNA is always single stranded.
C)DNA contains two grooves,a major groove and a minor groove.
D)In DNA the number of adenine residues is identical to the number of thymine residues and the number of guanine residues is identical to the number of cytosine residues.
E)DNA contains two strands that run in opposite directions.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the early 1930's William Rose fed laboratory rats a mixture of all 19 amino acids known to be present in proteins.He observed that his rats lost weight.This observation led to the discovery of ______ as the 20th amino acid found in proteins.
A)Gly
B)Ala
C)Tyr
D)Asn
E)Thr
Q2) The pK<sub>1</sub>,pK<sub>2</sub>,and pK<sub>R</sub> for the amino acid arginine are 1.8,9.0,and 12.5,respectively.At pH 7.0 arginine would be charged predominantly as follows:
A)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate 0,\(\alpha\)-amino 0,guanidino +1,net charge +1"
B)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate +1,\(\alpha\)-amino 0,guanidino -1,net charge 0"
C)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate +1,\(\alpha\)-amino 1,guanidino 1,net charge 1"
D)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate 1,\(\alpha\)-amino +1,guanidino +1,net charge +1"
E)"\(\alpha\)-carboxylate 1,\(\alpha\)-amino 0,guanidino +1,net charge 0"
Q3) Glutamic acid is an amino acid (pK<sub>a</sub>s are 2.1,4.1 and 9.5).Calculate the isoelectric point of glutamic acid.
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Primary Structure
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Q1) Which statement about insulin is correct?
A)Insulin is composed of two polypeptides,the A chain and the B chain.
B)Insulin contains an intrachain disulfide bond.
C)Insulin contains interchain disulfide bonds.
D)The A chain and the B chain of insulin are encoded by a single gene.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) One technique commonly used in protein purification is chromatography.
a.Explain briefly the general principle of column chromatography
b.Name four types of chromatography and indicate for each of these types the basis for separation (match types of chromatography with the properties that form the basis for separation).
Q3) You are purifying a nuclease by affinity chromatography.To determine which fractions contain the protein of interest,you test samples of all fractions for their ability to break down DNA.This is an example of
A)a binding assay.
B)a biological assay.
C)an enzyme assay.
D)an immunological assay.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Three-Dimensional Structure
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Q1) The strength of _______ comes from close packing of glycine residues and the characteristics of hydroxyproline allowing formation of a left- handed helical conformation which combines with two other left handed structures to form a right-handed triplet helix.
A) tertiary structure
B) keratin
C) molecular chaperones
D) hydropathy
E) cis
F) trans
G) sterically forbidden conformation
H) regular secondary structure
I) collagen
J) peptide bond
K) ribonuclease A (RNase A)
L) alpha
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Chapter 7: Protein Function Part I: Myoglobin and Hemoglobin
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Q1) What is the primary physiological function of myoglobin in most mammals?
Q2) Which statement about actin is correct?
A)Actin is expressed only in muscle.
B)Actin is expressed at low levels in most cells.
C)No known function has been described for actin in nonmuscle cells.
D)Nonmuscle cells only contain G actin.
E)Actin is the most abundant cytoplasmic protein in many cell types.
Q3) Hemerythrin and hemocyanin are:
A)human mutant hemoglobins with decreased oxygen affinity.
B)hemoglobin variants that are found in animals at high altitude.
C)synthetic derivatives of hemoglobin's heme group used in artificial blood substitutes. D)oxygen transport proteins found in invertebrates.
E)tetrameric hemoglobin derivatives containing only \(\alpha\)-chains (\(\alpha\)<sub>4</sub> tetramers).
Q4) It appears that the heme group in myoglobin binds the O<sub>2</sub>.What is the function of the polypeptide?
Q5) Myoglobin is an oxygen binding protein in muscle.Describe in one sentence the overall structure of myoglobin.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uronic acids
A)are aldoses where the aldehyde is oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
B)are aldoses where the 1° alcohol is oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
C)can be found in the pyranose or furanose forms.
D)A and C are both correct.
E)B and C are both correct.
Q2) We encounter a great variety of sugars in living organisms.
a.Draw a Haworth projection of an aldohexose in the pyranose form (include all atoms).
b.Draw the Haworth projection of the anomer of the aldose you drew in "a" above.
c.Draw a circle around the carbon that determines whether this sugar is a D or an L sugar.
d.How many chiral carbon atoms are present in each of the structures drawn in "a" and b" above?
e.How many stereoisomers exist for these pyranoses?
Q3) We encounter a great variety of sugars in living organisms.
a.Are most carbohydrates in living organisms D or L?
b.Draw a Fischer projection of the smallest aldose (include all atoms).
c.What is the name of this molecule?
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Chapter 9: Lipids and Biological Membranes
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Q1) Glycosphingolipids with complex carbohydrate head groups that often serve as cellular receptors are ______.
A) amphiphiles
B) vitamin D
C) arachidonic acid
D) phosphatidylethanolamine
E) sterol
F) gangliosides
G) phosphatidylcholine
H) glycerophospholipids
I) sphingomyelins
J) cholesterol
K) triacylglycerols
L) plasmalogen
M) nonpolar
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Chapter 10: Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following channels open in response to an extracellular stimulus such as a neurotransmitter?
A)mechanoselective channels
B)ligand-gated channels
C)signal-gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)All of these are sensitive to an extracellular stimulus..
Q2) Which of the transporters listed below differs from the others?
A)(Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup>)-ATPase
B)Na<sup>+</sup>-glucose transporter
C)lactose permease
D)KcsA
E)Ca<sup>2+</sup>-ATPase
Q3) Of the transport proteins discussed in the chapter,in general,which of the following do they have in common?
A)utilize conformational changes to control flux
B)require hydrophobic amino acid side chains to line the pores
C)utilize stereospecifcity to selectively transport
D)transport ionized substances
E)move in the direction of the gradient
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Chapter 11: Enzyme Catalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ metals are the most common metallic enzyme cofactors.
A)Actinide
B)Alkali
C)Heavy
D)Rare earth
E)Transition
Q2) Which of the following amino acid residues would provide a side chain capable of increasing the hydrophobicity of a binding site?
A)histidine
B)lysine
C)isoleucine
D)arginine
E)serine
Q3) Acid-base catalysis may be accomplished by:
A)active site specificity
B)charge delocalization
C)buffer effects
D)induced strain
E)conformational change
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Chapter 12: Enzyme Kinetics, inhibition and Control
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Q1) In order for an enzymatic reaction obeying the Michaelis-Menten equation to reach 3/4 of its maximum velocity,
A)[S] would need to be equal to K<sub>M</sub>
B)[S] would need to be ½ K<sub>M</sub>
C)[S] would need to be 3K<sub>M</sub>
D)[S] would need to be ¾ K<sub>M</sub>
E)not enough information is given to make this calculation
Q2) Pseudo-first-order reaction kinetics would be observed for the reaction A + B \(\to\) C
A)if [A] or [B] > [C].
B)if [C]>[A] and [C]>[B].
C)if [A] or [B] = 0.
D)if [C] = 0.
E)none of the above
Q3) Protein kinases are involved in
A)the digestion of drugs to potentially toxic byproducts.
B)the degradation of enzymes to the component amino acids.
C)the phosphorylation of a wide variety of proteins.
D)the metabolism of drugs to water soluble,excretable compounds.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 13: Biochemical Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heterotrimeric G proteins (I)consist of three subunits,G\(\alpha\),G\(\beta\),and G\(\gamma\). (II)function as an autoinhibtory segment. (III)can function as a mediator to adenylate cyclase activity. (IV)are anchored to the cytoplasmic side of the membrane.
A)I,II,IV
B)I,III,IV
C)I,IV
D)I,III
E)I only
Q2) Which of the following are produced in the adrenal cortex? (I)Glucorticoids
(II)mineralcorticoides (III)androgens (IV)estrogens
A)I only
B)I,II
C)II only
D)II,IV
E)I,II,III,IV
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Chapter 14: Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the correct coenzyme forms that correspond to X and Y in the following reaction as catalyzed by lactate dehydrogenase?
Pyruvate + X Lactate + Y
A)X = NADH Y = NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)X = NADPH Y = NADP<sup>+</sup>
C)X = NAD<sup>+</sup> Y = NADH
D)X = FAD Y = FADH<sub>2</sub>
E)X = NADH Y = NADP<sup>+</sup>
Q2) Which of the following increase the phosphate transfer potential of compound?
(I)electrostatic repulsion between charged groups on the reactant (II)resonance stabilization of the hydrolysis products (III)greater energy of solvation of the hydrolysis products (IV)the presence of a enol group in the reactants
A)I,II
B)I,IV
C)I,II,IV
D)II,IV
E)I,II,III,IV
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Chapter 15: Glucose Catabolism
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Q1) The utilization of fructose in glycolysis in the liver
A)requires UDP-glucose.
B)requires one extra ATP.
C)uses GTP rather than ATP.
D)bypasses phosphofructokinase (PFK)regulation.
E)enters glycolysis as fructose bisphosphate (FBP).
Q2) Which of the following is correct regarding the hexose monophosphate shunt?
(I)NADH is generated by the oxidation of glucose-6-phosphate. (II)Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is generated in the reaction.
(III)The pathway requires a transaldolase.
(IV)The pathway generates 3 ATP per 1 glucose-6-phosphate.
A)I,II,III
B)I,II,III,IV
C)II,III,IV
D)II,III
E)III,IV
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Chapter 16: Glycogen Metabolism and Gluconeogenesis
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Q1) Levels of glucose-6-phosphate (G6P)are affected by which of the following?
(I)glycogen breakdown
(II)activity of the pentose phosphate pathway
(III)galactose preparation for entry into glycolysis
A)I,II
B)I,II,III
C)III
D)II, E)I,III
Q2) Which of the following overall sequences is correct with regard to gluconeogenesis?
A)Oxaloacetate \(\to\) PEP \(\to\)G6P \(\to\) Glucose
B)Pyruvate \(\to\) FBP \(\to\) PEP \(\to\) Glucose
C)Lactate \(\to\) PEP \(\to\) Pyruvate \(\to\) G6P
D)Oxaloacetate \(\to\) F6P \(\to\) FBP \(\to\) Glucose
E)F6P \(\to\) FBP \(\to\) Glucose \(\to\) G6P
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Chapter 17: Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following would decrease activity of the citric acid cycle overall?
(I)high concentration of NADH
(II)high concentration of Ca<sup>2+</sup>
(III)high concentration of ATP
(IV)high concentration of citrate
A)I only
B)I,II,III,IV
C)I,III
D)I,III,IV
E)I,IV
Q2) In eukaryotes,the citric acid cycle occurs in the _____ and therefore requires that reactants of the citric acid cycle be transported from the _____.
A)cytosol;mitochondrial matrix
B)mitochondrial matrix;cytosol
C)endoplasmic reticulum;mitochondrial matrix
D)inner mitochondrial membrane;mitochondrial matrix
E)outer mitochondrial membrane;cytosol
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Chapter 18: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which conformation of the active sites in ATP synthase allows binding of substrates?
A)L state
B)O state
C)T state
D)C state
E)A and B
Q2) Approximately how many ATP molecules are synthesized from the oxidation of 1 NADH?
A)1
B)1)5
C)2
D)2)5
E)3
Q3) All of the following inhibit electron transport EXCEPT
A)oxaloacetate
B)rotenone
C)anitimycin A
D)cyanide
E)All of the above inhibit electron transport,
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements about photosynthetic pigments is FALSE?
A)Carotenoid pigments absorb light in the 400-500 nm range
B)Chlorophylls a and b absorb both long and short wavelength light
C)Phycoerythrin absorbs blue and green light.
D)Phycocyanin absorbs yellow light around the 600 nm range
E)Bacteriochlorophyll a overlaps the absorption wavelengths of chlorophylls a and b
Q2) In photorespiration,reduction of hydroxypyruvate to glycerate requires ____ and occurs in the ____.
A)NADPH;mitochondrion
B)NADH;peroxisome
C)NADPH;chloroplast
D)NADH;chloroplast
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is the site of ATP synthesis in chloroplasts?
A)smooth outer membrane
B)inner membrane space
C)stroma
D)thylakoid membrane
E)thylakoid compartment
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a problem sometimes associated with unsaturated fatty acid breakdown?
A) ,\(\gamma\) double bond
B) , double bond
C)unanticipated isomerization
D)inhibition of hydratase by a double bond
E)All of the above are problems.
Q2) Which of the following drugs acts by acetylating a serine residue preventing adequate enzyme activity?
A)ibuprofen
B)acetaminophen
C)Vioxx®
D)aspirin
E)Celebrex®
Q3) Which of the following is the starting metabolite in ketone body biosynthesis?
A)acetyl CoA
B)malonyl CoA
C)propionlyl CoA
D)acetyl CoA and propionyl CoA
E)acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA
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Chapter 21: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) The enzyme ______ is critical to regulating nitrogen metabolism.
A) ribosomes
B) jaundice
C) channeling
D) 26S proteasome
E) glutamine synthetase
F) alanine
G) glutamate
H) vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
I) anammox
J) glutamine transferase
K) THF
L) autotroph
M) vitamin D
N) lysosomes
O) diazotrophs
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Chapter 22: Mammalian Fuel Metabolism: Integration and Regulation
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Q1) Mice lacking the protein ______ are genetically obese.
A) -adrenergic receptor
B) -adrenergic receptor
C) Cori cycle
D) urea cycle
E) leptin
F) phosphatase
G) liver
H) hormones
I) acetyl CoA
J) ketone bodies
K) urea
L) kidney
M) brain
N) pancreas
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Chapter 23: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) The conversion of dUMP to dTMP by thymidylate synthase requires which of the following cofactors?
(I)thioredoxin (II)N<sup>5</sup>,N<sup>10</sup>-methylenetetrahydrofolate (III)S-adenosylmethionine
A)I and II
B)I only
C)II only
D)II and III
E)I and III
Q2) Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency is most evident in ______ tissue.
A)liver
B)connective
C)neural
D)muscle
E)brain
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Chapter 24: Nucleic Acid Structure
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Q1) The denaturation of DNA is a ______ cooperative process.
A) type I
B) ribocatalyzers
C) C2´-endo
D) repressors
E) ethidium
F) type II
G) C3´-endo
H) hybridized
I) interchanged
J) supercoiled
K) cooperative
L) non-cooperative
M) underwound
N) ribozymes
O) deuterium
P) zinc finger
Q) leucine zipper
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Page 26
Chapter 25: DNA Replication, repair and Recombination
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Q1) E.coli DNA repair enzymes act on the sequence.Which of the following will result?
A)The underlined A will be changed to a C.
B)The underlined G will be changed to a T.
C)The underlined A will be methylated.
D)The underlined G will be methylated.
E)More than one of the above is correct
Q2) Capping is important because
A)it likely protects the telomere ends from becoming shortened.
B)it likely prevents DNA repair mechanisms from initiating at the telomeres.
C)it likely results in increased processivity on the eukaryotic chromosome.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) The presence of proflavin is likely to induce
A)pyrimidine dimers.
B)point mutations.
C)deletions.
D)transversions.
E)Any of the above may occur.
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Chapter 26: Transcription and Rna Processing
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Q1) The function of the TATA box is
A)to recognize the \(\sigma\) subunit and correctly line up the RNA polymerase.
B)to terminate active RNA transcription.
C)to form a hairpin for RNA transcription termination.
D)to provide a binding location for the Rho protein.
E)to stimulate formation of the transcription bubble.
Q2) Splicing
(I)occurs in the cytosol.
(II)results from 2' -OH on the exon attack on the 5' splice site.
(III)is completed when the 3' -OH on the newly cut exon attacks the 5'-terminal phosphate on the next exon.
A)I,II
B)I,III
C)I only
D)II only
E)III only
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Chapter 27: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) What happens when a stop codon is reached by a ribosome?
A)A termination tRNA<sup>ter</sup> binds to the codon and is used to release the growing peptide from the P site tRNA.The ribosome then is likely to dissociate.
B)A termination tRNA<sup>ter</sup> binds to the codon and the growing peptide is transferred to it.When the peptidyl-tRNA<sup>ter</sup> reaches the P site,the ribosome is signaled to release the protein.The ribosome then is likely to dissociate.
C)A termination tRNA<sup>ter</sup> binds to the codon and the growing peptide is transferred to it.When the peptidyl-tRNA<sup>ter</sup> reaches the P site,the ribosome dissociates.A separate peptidyl transferase then releases the protein from tRNA<sup>ter</sup>.
D)A release factor binds to the codon and is used to release the growing peptide from the P site tRNA.
E)A release factor binds to the codon and the ribosome dissociates.A separate peptidyl transferase then releases the protein from the last tRNA to which was attached.
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Chapter 28: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Cell death caused by trauma is called ______.
A) globin
B) M phase
C) G<sub>0</sub> phase
D) necrosis
E) euchromatin
F) S phase
G) riboswitch
H) histone
I) insulators
J) heterochromatin
K) Mediator
L) 1,6-allolactose
M) apoptosis
N) orphan
O) galactose
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