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Biochemistry for Pre-Med Students
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course provides pre-medical students with a comprehensive foundation in biochemistry, focusing on the molecular mechanisms that underlie human physiology and disease. Key topics include the structure and function of biological macromolecules, enzymatic catalysis, metabolic pathways, gene expression, and signal transduction. Emphasis is placed on the integration of biochemical principles with medical applications, such as understanding disease pathology, diagnostics, and therapeutic strategies. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students will develop the critical analytical skills necessary for advanced studies in medicine and the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 8th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) 11 Ribosomes are made up of
A) RNA and proteins
B) DNA and proteins
C) RNA and DNA
D) proteins and carbohydrates
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following was part of the vital force theory?
A) The compounds found in living things are just like those found in the non-living world.
B) The compounds found in living things are interesting, but can easily be produced in the laboratory.
C) The compounds found in living things can not be produced in the laboratory.
Answer: C
Q3) The following cellular component is the defining component of most plant cells: A) Nucleus
B) Ribosomes
C) Chloroplasts
D) Mitochondria
E) Cell walls
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water: the Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buffering capacity refers to
A) the effectiveness of commercial antacids
B) the extent to which a buffer solution can counteract the effect of added acid or base
C) the pH of a buffer solution
D) the molecular weight of the substance used as a buffer
Answer: B
Q2) The ion product constant for water (K<sub>w</sub>) is equal to:
A) 10<sup>14</sup>
B) 10<sup>7</sup>
C) 10<sup>0</sup>
D) 10 <sup>7</sup>
E) 10 <sup>14</sup>
Answer: E
Q3) Which will dissociate most in water, a weak acid or a strong acid?
A) A weak acid.
B) A strong acid
C) They should dissociate about the same.
D) It's impossible to predict.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Exhibit 3B. The point labeled #1 represents:
A) The fully protonated form
B) The pH with maximum negative charge
C) The end point of titration with base (OH )
D) The pI of the amino acid
E) None of these
Answer: D
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 3B. Which points on the graph represent pK's?
A) 1 and 7
B) 2, 4 and 6
C) 3 and 5
D) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
E) The pKs cannot be determined without more information.
Answer: B
Q3) Which group consists only of amino acids with carboxylate side chains?
A) glutamate and cysteine
B) aspartate and glycine
C) glutamate and lysine
D) aspartate and glutamate
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the alpha helix?
A) the structure is stablized by hydrogen bonds
B) there are 3.6 residues for every turn of the helix
C) the pitch of the helix is 5.4 angsroms
D) all of the choices
Q2) In the -helix
A) there are no hydrogen bonds
B) the peptide chain is fully extended
C) the peptide chain bends back on itself
D) there are hydrogen bonds parallel to the helix axis
Q3) Which of the following forces are involved in maintaining the primary structure of a protein?
A) covalent bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) ionic interactions
D) hydrophobic interactions
Q4) As an animal ages, the amount of cross-linking of collagen in tissue
A) tends to decrease.
B) tends to increase.
C) tends to remain unchanged.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) The purpose of using nitrocellulose for a western blot is to
A) allow the various proteins to migrate and separate
B) bind to the primary antibody
C) allow the proteins to be concentrated onto the face of the nitrocellulose where they will be accessible to the primary antibody
D) to allow the 4-chloro-1-naphthol to react and be visible
Q2) In electrophoresis experiments
A) the separation must be carried out in bright light
B) the polarity of substances to be separated is more important than their charge or size
C) the sample can be badly degraded as a result of the separation
D) an electric field must be applied to the mixture to be separated
Q3) The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by A) total protein.
B) total enzyme activity.
C) specific activity of the enzyme.
D) percent recovery of the protein.
E) percent recovery of the enzyme.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) A noncompetitive inhibitor
A) binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site
B) is structurally related to the substrate
C) does not affect the value of V<sub>max</sub>
D) decreases the value of K<sub>M</sub>
Q2) The E-S complex often shows as a slight depression in the energy profile for the reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true?
A) In thermodynamics, spontaneous does not mean instantaneous or even fast.
B) If a reaction is spontaneous then it has a negative G.
C) Speed of a reaction is a kinetic parameter, not a thermodynamic one.
D) A reaction with a positive G<sup>0</sup> can never happen
Q4) The fundamental difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibition is
A) the degree of cooperativity of the reaction
B) the size of the active site of the enzyme
C) the manner of binding of substrate to the enzyme
D) the manner of binding of inhibitor to the enzyme
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kinase reactions describe enzymes which
A) add phosphate groups to another molecule.
B) oxidize alcohols to aldehydes.
C) use NAD<sup>+</sup>/NADH in their reactions.
D) transfer groups from one part of a molecule to another.
E) add or remove double bonds in molecules.
Q2) Pyridoxal phosphate is required for transfer of
A) one-carbon groups
B) amino groups
C) acyl groups
D) aldehyde groups
Q3) Phosphorylation and allosteric control of enzymes.
A) are not involved in reactions of carbohydrates.
B) play an insignificant role in generating energy.
C) are important processes in prokaryotes, but not in eukaryotes.
D) can be combined to afford a high degree of control over enzymatic reactions.
E) none of these
Q4) B vitamins are often stored in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell membranes typically display asymmetry. What does this mean?
A) The two leaves of a bilayer contain different collections of lipids and proteins.
B) The fatty acyl chain on C-1 of a membrane lipid is usually different from that on C-3.
C) Only one stereoisomer is ever seen at the chiral C-2 of the glycerol residue in a membrane lipid.
D) Membrane lipids only have cis double bonds, never trans.
Q2) What does amphipathic mean?
A) having both positive and negative charges
B) having both acid and base properties
C) having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
D) having two stereoisomers
Q3) Which of the following is a metabolic precursor of prostaglandins & leukotrienes?
A) vitamin A.
B) arachidonic acid.
C) sphingomyelin.
D) cholesterol.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys
Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the DNA in chromatin, substitution mutations:
A) are at a maximum in the linker regions
B) are at a maximum in the nucleosomes
C) occur maximally in the same places as deletion mutations
D) are rarely seen, but deletion mutations are common
Q2) The three-dimensional structure of transfer RNA has been determined by
A) analytical ultracentrifugation
B) gel electrophoresis
C) ultraviolet spectroscopy
D) x-ray crystallography
Q3) Protein synthesis can occur while the mRNA molecule is being synthesized in:
A) Prokaryotes only.
B) Eukaryotes only.
C) Unicellular organisms only.
D) Multicellular organisms only.
E) Plants but not animals
Q4) Comparison of DNA sequences between widely diverse organisms indicates that all organisms have genetic similarity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of DNA polymerase I from E. coli?
A) adding nucleotides to the primer strand
B) 3' 5' exonuclease activity
C) 5' 3' exonuclease activity
D) proofreading
Q2) Replication of eukaryotic DNA
A) must occur faster than replication of prokaryotic DNA
B) must be controlled to coordinate with the cell cycle
C) takes place during mitosis
D) takes place twice during each cell cycle
Q3) DNA replication is a challenging process because:
A) DNA strands must be separated
B) New DNA is always synthesized from the 5' 3' direction but the two template strands run in opposite directions
C) The cell must guard against replication errors
D) All of these
Q4) The DNA polymerases in eukaryotes have similar functions to those found in bacteria, but they are not identical.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Attenuation mechanisms rely on alternative secondary structures forming in the mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which category of ribozymes requires an external guanosine frothier action?
A) Group I
B) Group II
C) Both Group I & Group II
D) Neither Group I nor Group II
Q3) Which is not associated with bacterial promoters?
A) the transcription start site
B) the Pribnow box
C) the 35 element
D) 3' antiterminator
Q4) As in prokaryotes, the regulatory regions for eukaryotic genes:
A) may be close to the genes they control
B) may be upstream of the genes they control
C) may be downstream of the genes they control
D) All of these are true
13
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) In bacteria, each mRNA will bind to only one ribosome at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What happens when a stop codon is reached by a ribosome (in the A site)?
A) A termination tRNA<sup>ter</sup> binds to the codon and is used to release the growing peptide from the P site tRNA. The ribosome then dissociates.
B) A termination tRNA<sup>ter</sup> binds to the codon and the growing peptide is transferred to it. When the peptidyl-tRNA<sup>ter</sup> reaches the P site, the ribosome is signaled to release the protein. The ribosome then dissociates.
C) A termination protein binds to the codon and is used to release the growing peptide from the P site tRNA. The ribosome then is likely to dissociate.
D) A termination protein binds to the codon and the ribosome dissociates. A separate peptidyl transferase then releases the protein from the last tRNA to which was attached.
Q3) Specificity of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases is always based on the anticodon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is not a requirement to assure production of a protein when a plasmid is being designed to express a eukaryotic protein in a bacterium?
A) Introns must be deleted from the gene.
B) The cloning site must include an RNA polymerase promoter.
C) The mRNA product must contain a ribosome-binding site.
D) Differences in the genetic code between eukaryotes and prokaryotes must be accommodated.
E) All of these conditions must be met.
Q2) A transcriptome is
A) an mRNA-based vector.
B) three-dimensional mRNA structure.
C) a collection of all the genes being transcribed in a given cell or tissue at a given time.
D) the mRNA transcribed to produce a fusion protein.
Q3) Genetic recombination occurs in nature.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of the viral DNA into the host chromosome is
A) lysogeny.
B) lytic.
C) oncogenic.
D) non-existent.
Q2) The ability of cancer cells to travel to other parts of the body and produce new tumors is called
A) immortality.
B) oncogenesis.
C) metastasis.
D) suppression.
Q3) A viral genome is
A) always double-stranded.
B) always single-stranded.
C) may be double or single stranded.
D) always made of DNA
E) always made of RNA
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements apply to anabolism?
A) proceeds in stages
B) requires energy
C) requires reducing agents
D) all of these
Q2) "Oxidation" refers to
A) the loss of oxygen.
B) the gain of oxygen.
C) the loss of electrons.
D) the gain of electrons.
Q3) I am performing a reaction, A B, with G°' = 0.3 kJ/mol. I start the reaction with 10 mM
A and no B. After allowing the reaction to proceed for 24 hrs at room temperature and atmospheric pressure, I analyze a sample of the reaction mix to find I now have 1 mM A and 9 mM B. Which of the following conclusions should I make?
A) The reaction has reached equilibrium.
B) I should come back again later; equilibrium has not yet been reached.
C) The formation of B from A is thermodynamically unfavorable, so I should find another starting material to make B.
D) I must've screwed up; there's no way I could get that result with that G°'
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules have the highest degree of [1 6] branching linkages
A) Amylose
B) Amylopectin
C) Starch
D) Glycogen
E) All of these have the same degree of branching
Q2) Chitin, which forms the exoskeletons of insects, is composed of
A) (1 4) linked N-acetylglucosamine residues
B) (1 4) linked N-acetylglucosamine residues
C) (1 4) linked glucose residues
D) (1 4) linked glucose residues
Q3) The simplest ketotriose is
A) glyceraldehyde.
B) dihydroxyacetone.
C) ribose.
D) glucose.
E) sucrose.
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) During anaerobic metabolism in yeast, the carbons of glucose end up in A) CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) ethanol.
C) lactic acid.
D) both CO<sub>2</sub> and ethanol.
E) all of these
Q2) How many different reactions involve substrate-level phosphorylation during glycolysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q3) How many steps in glycolysis have ATP as a substrate or product?
A) zero
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
E) 6
F) none of these
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) The formation and breakdown of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
A) is catalyzed by the same protein dependant upon whether it is phosphorylated or not.
B) is catalyzed by the same protein dependant allosteric regulators.
C) is catalyzed by different proteins.
D) none of these
Q2) Starting from glucose and UTP and ATP, how many high-energy bonds are broken/consumed to add that glucose to a glycogen molecule?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) The answer cannot be determined form the information given.
Q3) The enzyme pyruvate carboxylase
A) is not subject to allosteric control
B) requires biotin for activity
C) catalyzes a reaction that does not require ATP
D) is inhibited by acetyl-CoA
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of these enzymes is most similar to pyruvate dehydrogenase?
A) Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase complex.
B) IsoCitrate Dehydrogenase.
C) Succinate Dehydrogenase.
D) Malate Dehydrogenase.
E) None of these enzymes is similar to pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Q2) The reaction of the citric acid cycle that does not take place in the mitochondrial matrix is the one catalyzed by:
A) fumarase
B) citrate synthase
C) isocitrate dehydrogenase
D) succinate dehydrogenase
E) All of these reactions take place in the matrix
Q3) An organism that undergoes the glyoxylate cycle can make sugar from fat because:
A) there is a specific isomerase that converts a six carbon fatty acid to glucose
B) the unique reactions of the glyoxylate cycle bypass the two decarboyxlation reactions of the citric acid cycle
C) glyoxysomes lack succinate dehydrogenase
D) none of these
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) The Q cycle refers to flow of electrons from
A) NADH to coenzyme Q via Complex I.
B) FADH<sub>2</sub> to coenzyme Q via Complex II.
C) coenzyme Q to cytochrome c via Complex III.
D) coenzyme Q to NADH.
E) none of these
Q2) Iron deficiency in a cell can adversely affect electron transport at which of the following sites?
A) coenzyme Q and FADH<sub>2</sub>
B) NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>
C) cytochrome b and cytochrome c
D) coenzyme Q and NADH
Q3) Most of the reactions of electron transport in the mitochondria occur
A) on the outer membrane
B) on the inner membrane.
C) in the mitochondrial matrix.
D) in the intermembrane space.
E) in the cytosol.
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) The human lipoproteins with the lowest density are
A) Chylomicrons.
B) HDL.
C) IDL.
D) LDL.
E) VLDL.
Q2) The components of lipoproteins such as LDL and HDL which makes them water soluble are
A) proteins.
B) phospholipids.
C) unesterified cholesterol.
D) proteins and phospholipids.
E) All of these
Q3) Where in the cell does fatty acid synthesis occur?
A) Cytoplasm.
B) Outer mitochondrial membrane.
C) Mitochondrial intermembrane space.
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane.
E) Mitochondrial matrix.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of these statements concerning the Calvin Cycle is false?
A) There is significant overlap between these reactions and glycolysis.
B) During the process, ATP is used with an ADP product.
C) Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is an intermediate in this pathway.
D) NADP<sup>+</sup> is converted to NADPH during this pathway.
E) At least one reduction reaction occurs during this pathway.
Q2) The electrons used in photosynthesis come first from this molecule or atom:
A) Hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub>).
B) Manganese atom (Mn).
C) NADPH
D) Oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>).
E) Water (H<sub>2</sub>O).
Q3) Green plants contain
A) only chlorophyll a.
B) only chlorophyll b.
C) both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b.
D) bacteriochlorophyll.
E) chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and bacteriochlorophyll
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) Humans produce these as the major nitrogen waste products.
A) Ammonia.
B) Urea.
C) Uric Acid.
D) Both Urea and Uric Acid.
E) All three of these are used to dispose of nitrogen wastes by humans.
Q2) High protein foods are not advisable for the long distance runner during a race because they increase the need for water and for urination.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is cancer chemotherapy related to purine biosyntheis?
A) rapidly dividing cells require more purine biosynthesis and some chemotherapy drugs inhibit a key enzyme in purine biosynthesis
B) aminopterin is a good chemotherapy drug because it inhibits aspartate transcarbamoylase
C) cancer cells lack folic acid, and chemotherapy drugs like sulfanamide act by overproducing folic acid, which is then poisonous to the cancer cells
D) none of these
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) What function do vitamins usually serve?
A) coenzymes or precursors of coenzymes
B) intermediates of the TCA cycle
C) precursors of amino acids
D) hormones or second messengers
Q2) Epinephrine is an example of a hormone which uses calcium ion as a key part of its intracellular effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of aerobic catabolism?
A) molecular oxygen is the final electron acceptor
B) the oxidation of acetyl groups in the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation pathways ultimately yields CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
C) pyruvate and acetyl-CoA are major metabolic intermediates
D) roughly equal quantities of energy are produced in each of the three stages of aerobic catabolism, namely glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation
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