Biochemistry for Pharmacy Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Biochemistry for Pharmacy introduces students to the fundamental biochemical principles relevant to pharmaceutical sciences. The course covers the structure, function, and metabolism of biomolecules such as proteins, enzymes, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, with a focus on their roles in human health and disease. Emphasis is placed on the biochemical pathways that underpin drug action, metabolism, and the bodys response to pharmacological agents. By integrating concepts from cellular biology and chemistry, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how biochemical processes affect drug development, therapeutic efficacy, and clinical outcomes, preparing them for advanced coursework and professional practice in pharmacy.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Q1) Viruses are acellular.Why do they,however,act as cellular parasites?
A)to reproduce
B)to protect themselves
C)to grow in size
D)to gain genetic information
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following activities does NOT require the presence of ATP or NADPH?
A)protease degradation
B)biosynthesis
C)movement of muscles
D)light emission
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following forces primarily maintain membrane structures?
A)hydrophobic interactions
B)covalent bonds
C)hydrogen bonds
D)ionic interactions
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a property of water that renders it so suited to its role as a medium of life?
A)unrivalled ability to form hydrogen bonds
B)unusually high dielectric constant,which explains its ability to surround ions and increase the ions' attraction for one another
C)unparalleled ability to orient around non-polar solutes to promote hydrophobic interactions
D)a small,but significant,tendency to form H and OH ² ions
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following pairs would be the best buffer at pH 10.0?
A)acetic acid and sodium acetate (pK<sub>a </sub>= 4.76)
B)H CO3 and NaHCO (pKas are 3.77 and 10.4)
C)lactic acid and sodium lactate (pK<sub>a</sub> = 3.86)
D)NaH PO4 and Na2HPO4 (pK<sub>a</sub>s are 2.1,7.2,12.4)
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) From which of the following molecules is the hydrolysis of a phosphate most thermodynamically favourable?
A)adenosine-5'-triphosphate
B)glucose phosphate
C)adenosine-5'-diphosphate
D)phosphoenolpyruvate
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these values is a widely used "consensus value" for G°' of ATP hydrolysis in biological systems?
A)-2-30.5 kJ/mol
B)-2-21 kJ/mol
C)3 kJ/mol
D)21 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Q3) What defines the standard-state free energy change, G?
A)positive when the reaction is unfavourable
B)an expression of Keq
C)negative when the reaction is favourable
D)equal to H - T S
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is a property of ninhydrin?
A)It produces a yellow product upon reaction with histidine.
B)It can be used to detect the location of amino acids following SDS-PAGE.
C)It produces a green product upon reaction with alanine.
D)It reacts with an amino acid by oxidatively deaminating its amino group.
Q2) Which of the following has partial double-bond character?
A)hydrogen bond
B)peptide bond
C)phosphoanhydride bond
D)van der Waals bond
Q3) At what pH is the cysteine side-chain sulfhydryl group 11% dissociated if its pK value is 8.32?
A)3.2
B)7.4
C)8.5 D)10.2
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6
Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological Functions
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Q1) Which of the following protein terms describes the lac repressor?
A)regulatory
B)transport
C)storage
D)structural
Q2) Which of the following techniques is used for protein isolation and purification?
A)ion exchange chromatography
B)Edman degradation
C)PCR
D)gas-liquid chromatography
Q3) Which level of structural organization best describes the a-helix and b-strand components of protein structure?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary
Structure
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Q1) Which statement is NOT correct regarding the tertiary structure of the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase?
A)Its -strands are parallel.
B)Its -helices are in the interior of the molecular structure.
C)It contains a -barrel in the centre of its structure.
D)It is composed entirely of alternating -helices and -strands.
Q2) How are the hydrophobic residues typically arranged in antiparallel -sheets?
A)on both sides of the sheet
B)in the plane of the sheet
C)on one side of the sheet
D)unevenly distributed on either side of the sheet
Q3) What type of structure does an amino acid sequence have?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
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8
Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which of the following sugars has xylulose as an epimer?
A)sorbose
B)ribulose
C)arabinose
D)xylose
Q2) Which of the following terms classifies the enzyme cellulase?
A) (1 4)glucosidase
B) (1 4)glucosidase
C) (1 6)glucosidase
D) (1 6)glucosidase
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of dextrans?
A)They are synthesized from fructose.
B)They are used in research laboratories as a support for ion exchange chromatography.
C)They are repeating units of maltose.
D)The branches may be 1 2,1 3,or 1 4 in various species.
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9
Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a plant steroid?
A)cortisol
B)campesterol
C)stigmasterol
D) -sitosterol
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of platelet-activating factor (PAF)?
A)It is a sphingolipid.
B)It is a potential mediator in inflammation,allergic responses,and shock.
C)It has a beneficial effect on migraines.
D)It is involved in fertilization of the egg in the uterine wall.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT contain cholesterol?
A)lipoproteins
B)plant cell plasma membranes
C)membranes of intracellular organelles
D)animal cell membranes
Q4) Which of the following is a feature of glycerophospholipids?
A)They are essential components of cell membranes
B)They also called sphingolipids.
C)They are made up of 1,2-diacylglycerol and two phosphate groups.
D)They are members of the steroid family.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which compound is NOT synthesized from CDP-diacylglycerol precursors?
A)phosphatidylethanolamine
B)phosphatidylglycerol
C)cardiolipin
D)phosphatidylinositol
Q2) Which compound displays dramatic ability to dilate blood vessels and to cause aggregation of platelets?
A)cholesterol
B)platelet-activating factor
C)estradiol
D)arachidonic acid
Q3) Which of the following does NOT affect the regulation of fatty acid synthesis in humans?
A)malonyl-CoA binding to carnitine acyltransferase and inhibiting available substrate for ?-oxidation
B)acyl-CoAs as inhibitors of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
C)insulin receptor binding maintaining acetyl-CoA carboxylase in the inactive form
D)glucagon promoting phosphorylation and inactivation of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
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11
Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of the gastric proton pump?
A)It is a H ,K -ATPase.
B)It requires high levels of dietary K to create a K gradient.
C)It maintains a pH gradient of about 4.6 across the mucosal cell membrane.
D)It produces a net efflux of HCl into the stomach.
Q2) How do micelles differ from lipid bilayers?
A)They are self-limiting structures.
B)They form spontaneously.
C)They are stable in aqueous solution.
D)They often transform into vesicles.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT directly affect the ability of gap junctions to allow cells to communicate metabolically?
A)pH changes
B)membrane potentials
C)intracellular calcium levels
D)DNA replication
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12
Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Which of the following second messengers is produced from the hydrolysis of PIP that activates the increase of Ca² concentrations in the cytoplasm?
A)diacylglycerol (DAG)
B)phosphatidylinositol (PI)
C)phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate (PIP<sub>2</sub>)
D)inositol-1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP<sub>3</sub>)
Q2) Calcium-binding proteins all possess 2 or more characteristic peptide domains for Ca² binding that consist of a short a-helix,a loop of 12 amino acids,and a second a-helix (helix-loop-helix).Which of the following motifs best describes these peptide domains?
A)basic region leucine zipper
B)zinc finger
C)EF hand
D)beta-beta
Q3) Which of the following explains how botulism toxin exerts its effect?
A)by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
B)by inhibiting acetylcholine release
C)by stimulating acetylcholinesterase
D)by opening ligand-gated ion channels
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding enzyme pathways?
A)The most effective way to control the pathway is to regulate every enzyme in the pathway.
B)An enzyme pathway always proceeds in only one direction,never in reverse.
C)A regulatory enzyme is regulated only by molecules within the given pathway.
D)Metabolic pathways are necessary since enzymes usually catalyze only one specific reaction.
Q2) Against which type of antigen is a catalytic antibody (abzyme)generated?
A)an analog of the transition-state intermediate in the reaction
B)the substrate of the reaction
C)an analog of the product of the reaction
D)an analog of the transition-state intermediate in the reaction.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct for a competitive inhibitor?
A)It binds a site other than the active site.
B)EI does not give rise to E + P.
C)For a given [I],v decreases.
D)At some point,S can displace all of I on E.
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following regarding the enzyme-transition state complex is correct?
A)The enzyme is designed to bind the transition-state structure less tightly than the substrate or product.
B)It is designated as EX .
C)The enzyme stabilizes the transition-state complex less than it stabilizes the substrate complex.
D)The energy barrier between ES and EX is more than the energy barrier between S and X .
Q2) Which of the following inhibitors is effective as a transition-state analog?
A)competitive
B)non-competitive
C)allosteric
D)irreversible
Q3) Which of the following is the proposed mechanism of aspartate protease catalysis?
A)covalent nucleophilic
B)covalent electrophilic facilitated by a low-barrier hydrogen bond
C)specific base catalysis
D)general base-general acid facilitated by a low-barrier hydrogen bond
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15
Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) For the MWC model,the half-maximum velocity changes in response to effectors.Which of the following explains the reason for this?
A)V<sub>max</sub> remains constant because the [S] is not rate limiting.
B)V<sub>max</sub> changes because the [S] is saturating.
C)V<sub>max</sub> remains constant because the [S] is rate limiting.
D)V<sub>max</sub> changes because the [S] is not saturating.
Q2) Which of the following conditions causes cell sickling in sickle cell anemia?
A)interaction of oxyHb S with the cell membrane
B)precipitation of deoxyHb S into long,chain-like fibres
C)formation of oxyHb S complexes and subsequent cell disruption
D)precipitation of Hb S-Hb A hybrid molecules
Q3) Which of the following is the reason why BPG shifts the oxygen saturation curve of Hb to the right?
A)BPG binds to deoxyHb and unloads O at tissues.
B)BPG binds to oxyHb and unloads O at tissues.
C)BPG binds to deoxyHb and unloads O at the lungs.
D)BPG binds to oxyHb and unloads O at the lungs.
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Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following features is a similarity between Rep helicase of E.coli and kinesin?
A)the capacity to move organelles
B)ring-like structures that encircle the substrate
C)2 subunits,1 of which is always bound to the polymer at any moment
D)tubulin binding heads that hydrolyze ATP
Q2) When would inhibition occur if the non-hydrolyzable ATP analog , -methylene-ATP were given to muscle cells?
A)during formation of the cross-bridge between actin and myosin
B)during the release of ADP and Pi
C)during the ATP binding step where actin and myosin dissociate
D)during the conformational change in the myosin head
Q3) Which of the following occurs during muscle contraction?
A)ATP is hydrolyzed.
B)The length of the thick filament is reduced.
C)The contraction produces an increased overlap of the actin and myosin filaments of the A band.
D)The length of the thin filaments remains constant.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Unsaturated fatty acids in membranes are particularly susceptible to oxidation.Which of the following vitamins may provide protection against this because it is a potent antioxidant?
A)E
B)D
C)C
D)B
Q2) Cholecalciferol is hydroxylated twice to form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol,which acts like a hormone.Which of the following does it regulate?
A)calcium and chloride metabolism
B)sodium and calcium metabolism
C)calcium and phosphate metabolism
D)sodium and phosphate metabolism
Q3) In which of the following major pathways do most organisms show marked similarity?
A)metabolism
B)sleep patterns
C)gene expression
D)cell division
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of fructose bisphosphate aldolase in animal tissues?
A)It is a Class II aldolase.
B)It belongs to the transferase class of enzymes.
C)The reaction is reversible in erythrocytes ( G is very small).
D)The products are an aldopentose phosphate and a ketotriose phosphate.
Q2) Which of the following enzymes in the liver is used to phosphorylate fructose to fructose-1-phosphate?
A)glucokinase
B)phosphofructokinase-1
C)hexokinase
D)fructokinase
Q3) Which of the following characteristics applies to Class I aldolases?
A)an enediol intermediate
B)a requirement for biotin
C)a Schiff base intermediate
D)coenzyme requirement for thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) What is the G°' value for citrate synthase?
A)It is largely positive.
B)It is nearly zero.
C)It is not measurable.
D)It is largely negative.
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the reaction catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?
A)It is the link between glycolysis and the TCA cycle.
B)The activity of the complex is regulated by the phosphorylation of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
C)NAD is the direct oxidant of reduced lipoamide.
D)An FAD is covalently linked to the EDLD,the lipoamide dehydrogenase component.
Q3) Which of the following represents a reaction that could be used to refill the CAC?
A)pyruvate OAA
B)OAA PEP
C)citrate OAA + acetyl-CoA
D)Asp -ketoglutarate
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a single-electron carrier?
A)UQH
B)cyt b<sub>L</sub>
C)cyt b<sub>H</sub>
D)cyt c<sub>1</sub>
Q2) Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the glycerophosphate shuttle?
A)It shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 2.5 ATP/ADH.
B)It shuttles "NADH electron equivalents" across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 1.5 ATP/NADH.
C)It operates efficiently only when the [NADH] in the cytoplasm is higher than in the matrix.
D)The molecule malate is a key component in the shuttle process.
Q3) Which of the following molecules is the electron donor to Complex III?
A)cytochrome c
B)UQH
C)NADH
D)FADH
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Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Photosynthetic phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation are similar processes.Which of the following is common to both processes?
A)Both produce NADPH to be used in the reductive pentose phosphate pathway (Calvin cycle).
B)Both contain cytochromes in their electron carrier chains.
C)Both represent a major route of ATP hydrolysis.
D)Both have iron clusters as electron carriers.
Q2) Many chlorophyll molecules absorb light and direct the energy to the reactive centres.Which of the following describes the term for the transfer of this absorbed energy?
A)fluorescence transfer
B)resonance energy transfer
C)photochemical emission
D)energy transduction
Q3) Which of the following two components constitute the proton-motive force?
A)an ATP/H ratio and an ion equilibrium
B)pH gradient and an ATP/H ratio
C)a membrane potential and a pH gradient
D)an ATP/H ratio and a membrane potential
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which of these steps is NOT a component of the pyruvate carboxylase-catalyzed reaction?
A)formation of N-carbonyl biotin
B)attack of H CO3 on ATP
C)formation of carbonyl phosphate
D)C-3 carbanion of pyruvate attack on N-carbonyl biotin
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
A)located in the mitochondria
B)strongly inhibited by [NADPH]
C)inhibited by fatty acid-CoA
D)uses NADP+ as a coenzyme
Q3) Which 3 enzyme-regulated reactions of glycolysis are replaced by alternative reactions in the gluconeogenic pathway?
A)glucokinase;PFK-1;pyruvate kinase
B)phosphoglucoisomerase;PFK-1;pyruvate kinase
C)PFK-1;triose phosphate isomerase;pyruvate kinase
D)pyruvate carboxylase;PFK-1;glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
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Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) How are ketone bodies transported to the tissues for utilization?
A)complexed to serum albumin
B)incorporated into VLDLs
C)complexed to fatty acid-binding protein
D)freely dissolved in serum
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of acyl-CoA dehydrogenase?
A)The C -C bond is reduced.
B)It comes in at least 3 isozymes,each specific for fatty acids of differing chain lengths.
C)It uses tightly bound FAD.
D)Electrons are transferred to electron transfer flavoprotein (ETF)and on to Q of the electron transport system.
Q3) How do ketone body carbons enter the major metabolic pathways of the cells?
A)by conversion to acetyl-CoA
B)by conversion to citrate
C)by conversion to pyruvate
D)by conversion to glucose-6-phosphate
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Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase catalyze?
A)the reductive amination of a-ketoglutarate to yield glutamate
B)phosphorylation of carbamate to yield carbamoyl phosphate
C)the amidation of the g-carboxyl group of glutamate to form glutamine
D)the deadenylation of glutamine synthetase
Q2) Which of the following describes the process of nitrogen fixation?
A)the reduction of NO - to NH
B)the formation of NH from N gas
C)the oxidation of NH to N gas
D)the oxidation of NH to NO -
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a part of the degradation pathway of valine,isoleucine,and methionine leading to succinyl-CoA?
A)biotin and ATP
B)acetyl-CoA
C)methylmalonyl-CoA
D)propionyl-CoA
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Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following statements correctly identifies type II restriction endonucleases?
A)They work on both DNA and RNA.
B)They recognize a palindromic sequence and cut just before the palindromic sequence.
C)They degrade DNA by subsequently removing bases from each end.
D)They cut DNA only at sites in specific nucleotide sequences with a 2-fold axis of symmetry.
Q2) What is the net charge on nucleotide monophosphates?
A)+2
B)+1
C)-1
D)-2
Q3) Which of the following structures does NOT participate in H-bond formation?
A)the amino group of cytosine,adenine,and guanine
B)the ring nitrogens at position 3 of pyrimidines and 1 of purines
C)the carbon double bonds found in the bases
D)the carbonyl group at position 4 of uracil and thymine,position 2 of cytosine,and position 6 of guanine
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26
Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of the chain termination protocol?
A)One dNTP is a radioactively labelled tracer to detect the products in the polymerization process.
B)An unknown sequence serves as a template in a polymerization reaction.
C)Two parallel reactions are run,each containing the substrates for DNA polymerase.
D)The chain is terminated where the dideoxynucleotide is incorporated.
Q2) How do urea and formamide denature dsDNA?
A)by intercalating between base pairs and disrupting van der Waals interactions
B)by forming ionic bonds with the backbone phosphates
C)by competing effectively with the H-bonding between the base pairs
D)by changing the pH to cause hydrolysis
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the linking number?
A)It is a basic parameter characterizing supercoiled DNA.
B)L = T + W.
C)It is the number of times that 2 strands are intertwined,providing both strands remain covalently intact.
D)L = 40 in a relaxed circular DNA duplex of 400 bp.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following enzyme activities is deficient in about 30% of severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCIDS)patients?
A)HGPRT
B)nucleosidase
C)nucleoside phosphorylase
D)adenosine deaminase
Q2) Glutamine phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase catalyzes step 2 in the biosynthesis of purines.Which of the following regarding the regulation of this enzyme is correct?
A)It is accelerated by an input of ATP or GTP.
B)It is sensitive to activation by azaserine.
C)It is accelerated by an input of AMP or GMP.
D)The G series of nucleotides as well as the adenine nucleotides act as competitive inhibitors.
Q3) Which of the following compounds is the common product of purine catabolism?
A)xanthine
B)uric acid
C)inosine
D)hypoxanthine
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which of the following steps is NOT involved with each cycle of amplification in PCR?
A)the addition of fresh dNTPs to the reaction mixture
B)annealing of oligodeoxyribonucleotide primers to DNA
C)thermal denaturation of the target duplex DNA
D)reaction with DNA polymerase at approximately 70°C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct for cDNA libraries?
A)Reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA strand complement of the mRNA templates.
B)mRNA templates are isolated using oligo (dA)-cellulose chromatography.
C)Linkers are added and the cDNA is cloned into suitable vectors.
D)The cDNA are copies from mRNA templates.
Q3) Which of the following is a method used to insert or transform cells with a plasmid?
A)add the DNA to bacterial cells that have been lightly treated with lysozyme to produce "holes" in the cell wall
B)add the DNA to a heated suspension of cells at 42°C
C)treat the bacteria with Ca² ,add the DNA,and briefly heat to 42°C
D)incubate the DNA with the cells overnight at 4°C
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29
Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following actions does the methyl-directed repair system take when it detects a mismatch in dsDNA?
A)It resynthesizes the newly replicated strand.
B)It corrects the DNA strand that is methylated.
C)It corrects the mismatch by changing the base on the not-yet-methylated strand.
D)It changes the base that is methylated.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of E.coli replication on the lagging strand?
A)It is primarily carried out by DNA polymerase I.
B)It is initially synthesized as Okazaki fragments.
C)It is synthesized continuously.
D)It is performed in a 3'5' direction of synthesis.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT cause mutations in DNA?
A)errors in replication
B)physical insults on the cell,such as UV light
C)errors in transcription
D)chemical exposure
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following terms defines the huge multi-subunit entities that mediate ATP-dependent conformational changes that peel 50 bp of DNA from the edge of nucleosome core particles,and create a "bulge" in the DNA:core nucleosomes association?
A)histone deacetylase complexes
B)DNA-bound transcriptional activators
C)chromatin-remodelling complexes
D)general transcriptional factors
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of enhancer sequences in eukaryotic cells?
A)Enhancer function is dependent on recognition by a specific transcription factor.
B)They occur only upstream of the gene.
C)They can only be in one orientation.
D)Specific transcription factor binding at an enhancer inhibits transcription by reducting RNA polymerase II activity.
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT involved in the initiation of protein synthesis?
A)GTP hydrolysis is triggered by the 50S subunit joining the 30S subunit,releasing IF-1,IF-2,and IF-3.
B)IF-2 delivers the initiator f-Met-tRNAifMet in a GTP-dependent process.
C)A-site of the 70S initiation complex is ready to accept an incoming aminoacyl-tRNA. D)IF-2 and IF-3 bind the 30S subunit.
Q2) Which of these reactions do amino-acyl-tRNA synthetases catalyze?
A)specific amino acid attachment to the 3'-OH at the 3'-CCA of a specific tRNA
B)specific amino acid attachment to the 5'-OH at the 5'-CCA of a specific tRNA
C)specific tRNA with ATP to form a so-called "charged tRNA" that interacts with a specific site on mRNA
D)specific tRNA with GTP to form a so-called "charged tRNA" that interacts with a specific site on mRNA
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of eukaryotic mRNA?
A)poly(A)tail
B)no Shine-Dalgarno sequence
C)codon binding directs for an initiator tRNA carrying met D)5'-7methyl-GTP cap
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following amino acid residues determine the binding specificity of AUBPs to RNP motif-1 (RNP1)and RNP motif-2 (RNP2)?
A)3 His/3 Lys
B)3 Lys/3 Cys
C)3 Arg/3 Lys
D)3 Cys/3 Arg
Q2) Which of the following best describes the term mRNA half-life?
A)the length of time an mRNA molecule takes to degrade
B)the length of time an mRNA molecule takes to be modified
C)the length of time an mRNA molecule is stable inside the cell
D)the length of time an mRNA molecule takes to be synthesized
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of siRNA?
A)introduced into tissue culture cells by transfection
B)chemically synthesized 10 nt dsRNA molecule
C)exhibits maximal RNAi activity approximately 7 days after transfection
D)enters the miRNA processing pathway at the level of the gene
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Chapter 32: Completing the Protein Life Cycle: Folding, processing, and Degradation
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of protein translocation systems?
A)Translocons passively move proteins across the membrane.
B)Proteins to be translocated are made as preproteins containing distal blocks of amino acid sequences that act as sorting signals.
C)Membranes involved in translocation have specific protein receptors exposed on their cytosolic faces.
D)Pre-proteins are maintained in a tightly folded,translocation-competent conformation through interaction with molecular chaperones.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT occur during ubiquitination degradation of proteins?
A)Multiple ubiquitinations may occur on a protein substrate.
B)Ubiquitin-protein ligase (E<sub>3</sub>)transfers ubiquitin to free amino groups on the protein.
C)E<sub>3</sub> selects a protein for degradation by the nature of the C-terminal amino acid.
D)Ubiquitin-carrier protein (E<sub>2</sub>)picks up ubiquitin.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which regulatory enzyme shows greater activity at low energy charge in an energy-producing pathway?
A)hemoglobin
B)phospholipase C
C)PKA
D)PFK-1
Q2) Which nucleotides are the principal energy source for protein,phospholipid,and polysaccharide synthesis,respectively?
A)UTP;GTP;CTP
B)GTP;CTP;UTP
C)CTP;UTP;GTP
D)UTP;CTP;GTP
Q3) What are the 2 metabolic roles served by ATP?
A)promoting increased reaction speed and dephosphorylation
B)changing both K<sub>m</sub> and V<sub>max</sub>
C)allosteric regulation and stoichiometric involvement
D)preventing futile cycles and changing K<sub>m</sub>
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