Biochemistry for Medical Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biochemistry for Medical Sciences provides an in-depth exploration of the chemical processes underlying human physiology and disease. The course covers fundamental topics such as the structure and function of biomolecules, enzymatic mechanisms, metabolic pathways, and the regulation of metabolism. Special emphasis is placed on the biochemical basis of cell signaling, genetic information flow, and how these processes relate to medical conditions and therapeutics. Through a combination of lectures, problem-solving, and case studies, students will gain a solid foundation in biochemistry as it applies to human health and disease, preparing them for advanced study or professional work in the medical and health sciences fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Q1) Which of the following describes the integration of viral genetic elements into the host chromosome and subsequent quiescence?
A)cytolytic
B)lysogeny
C)propagational
D)autonomy
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding prion diseases?
A)They include atherosclerosis.
B)They are genetic and infectious.
C)Their occurrence may be sporadic.
D)They are dominantly inherited.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A)Some have flagella.
B)They have a simple plasma or cell membrane.
C)They possess a distinct nuclear area,but no nucleus.
D)They have mitochondria,but no ribosomes.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is a trait of hydrogen bonds in ice?
A)weak
B)non-directional
C)straight
D)responsibility for the higher density of ice over liquid water
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the purpose of the physiological mechanism of hyperventilation?
A)to lower [CO (g)] in the blood and increase blood pH
B)to raise [CO (g)] in the blood and increase blood pH
C)to lower [CO (g)] in the blood and decrease blood pH
D)to raise [CO (g)] in the blood and decrease blood pH
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to buffers?
A)They have relatively flat titration curves at the pH(s)where they buffer.
B)They resist changes in their pH as acid or base is added.
C)They are typically composed of a weak acid and its conjugate base.
D)They buffer best for polyprotic acids half-way between the 2 pKa values.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes living systems?
A)They are closed systems exchanging only energy with the surroundings.
B)They are isolated systems that are totally contained.
C)They are open systems exchanging only energy with the surroundings.
D)They are open systems exchanging both energy and matter with their surroundings.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these values is a widely used "consensus value" for G°' of ATP hydrolysis in biological systems?
A)-2-30.5 kJ/mol
B)-2-21 kJ/mol
C)3 kJ/mol
D)21 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Q3) Which of these metabolites has a lower G°' of hydrolysis than ATP?
A)pyrophosphate
B)phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP)
C)phosphocreatine
D)adenosine-5'-phosphate
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of stereoisomers?
A)A diastereomer is a non-superimposable mirror image.
B)An enantiomer is a superimposable mirror image.
C)Diastereomers rotate plane-polarized light in equal magnitude but opposite directions.
D)Diastereomers have different melting points
Q2) Which of the following amino acids has more than 1 chiral carbon?
A)serine
B)lysine
C)threonine
D)cysteine
Q3) Which of the following has partial double-bond character?
A)hydrogen bond
B)peptide bond
C)phosphoanhydride bond
D)van der Waals bond
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological Functions
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Q1) Which of the following amino acid residues is destroyed by acid hydrolysis and must be estimated by other means?
A)tyrosine
B)tryptophan
C)valine
D)isoleucine
Q2) Suppose that the peptide Ala-Met-Lys-Ser is reacted with phenylisothiocyanate at pH 8.0,followed by mild acidification,which is the first cycle of Edman method? Which of the following would be released?
A)the labelled peptide Ala-Met-Lys-Ser-PTH
B)PTH-Ala,PTH-Ser,PTH-Lys,and PTH-Met
C)PTH-Ser and the peptide Ala-Met-Lys
D)PTH-Ala and the peptide Met-Lys-Ser
Q3) Which level of structural organization contains all the information necessary for a protein to achieve its intricate architecture?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which of the following in NOT a characteristic of triose phosphate isomerase's tertiary structure?
A)Its a-helices are in the interior core of the molecular structure.
B)It contains a b-barrel in the centre of its structure.
C)It is composed entirely of alternating a-helices and b-strands.
D)Hydrophobic residues are buried between concentric layers.
Q2) Which non-covalent interaction between tightly packed amino acid side chains in the interior of the protein is a major contributor to protein structure?
A)hydrogen bonding
B)electrostatic interactions
C)covalent ester bonding
D)van der Waals interactions
Q3) Which of these characteristics does NOT apply to a-keratin?
A)primary component in hair,claws,fingernails,and horns of animals
B)consists of 4 helical strands arranged as twisted pairs of 2-stranded coiled coils
C)has associated hydrophobic strips on the 2 coiled coils
D)principal constituent of connective tissues in animals
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which of the following represents an example of a proteoglycan?
A)attachment of several molecules of heparin to the peptide antithrombin III
B)attachment of a Gal- (1,3)-GalNAc disaccharide to the fish antifreeze protein
C)attachment of a small oligosaccharide to an immunoglobulin
D)attachment of a small antigenic determinant to a membrane-bound protein of a cell
Q2) Which of the following are proteoglycans,a group of macromolecules,formed from?
A)proteases and monosaccharides
B)proteases and glycosaminoglycans
C)proteins and monosaccharides
D)proteins and glycosaminoglycans
Q3) Which of the following does NOT apply to both cellulose and chitin?
A)Both are polymers of glucose.
B)Both are structural polysaccharides.
C)Both have extended ribbon conformations.
D)Both have extensive hydrogen bonding.
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Chapter 8: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A)progesterone
B)dolichol
C)epinephrine
D)histamine
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of dolichols?
A)They are carriers of carbohydrate units in the biosynthesis of pyruvate.
B)They form dolichyl carbamates.
C)They are a class of glycerophospholipids.
D)They are polymers of 16-22 isoprene units
Q3) Which of the following diets should be used to reduce coronary heart disease?
A)low in trans-fatty acids and low in saturated fatty acids
B)low in trans-fatty acids and high in saturated fatty acids
C)high in trans-fatty acids and high in saturated fatty acids
D)high in trans-fatty acids and low in saturated fatty acids
Q4) Which of the following does NOT contain cholesterol?
A)lipoproteins
B)plant cell plasma membranes
C)membranes of intracellular organelles
D)animal cell membranes
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which lipoprotein has the highest density?
A)chylomicrons
B)HDL
C)LDL
D)VLDL
Q2) Which product is formed in E.coli when b-hydroxydecanoyl-ACP is dehydrated by b-hydroxydecanoyl thioester dehydrase,and subsequently elongated further?
A)acetoacetyl-ACP
B)palmitoleoyl-ACP
C)butyryl-ACP
D)crotonyl-ACP
Q3) Which compound in eukaryotes can phosphatidic acid be directly converted into?
A)triacylglycerols
B)acylglycerols
C)monoacylglycerols
D)diacylglycerols
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11
Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following is a component of the Ca² -ATPase?
A)transmembrane domain of 12 a-helical segments
B)an actuator domain
C)a large extracellular domain with nucleotide binding domain
D)a hydrolytic domain
Q2) Which of the following structural motifs are utilized by the porin proteins?
A)single transmembrane a-helix
B)multiple transmembrane a-helices
C)single ?-sheet
D)multiple ?-sheet
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of the gastric proton pump?
A)It is a H ,K -ATPase.
B)It requires high levels of dietary K to create a K gradient.
C)It maintains a pH gradient of about 4.6 across the mucosal cell membrane.
D)It produces a net efflux of HCl into the stomach.
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a unilamellar vesicle?
A)a monolayer
B)a bilayer
C)a liposome
D)a micelle
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms do steroid hormones such as glucocorticoids use to effect their action?
A)by binding to a plasma membrane receptor and then entering the cell
B)by binding the plasma membrane receptor,which stimulates the receptor to enter the cell
C)by entering into the cell and effecting the production of secondary messengers
D)by entering into the cell and then acting as transcription regulators
Q2) Which of the following occurs when voltage-gated Na channels have just closed in a neuron?
A)The membrane becomes less polarized than when at rest.
B)The membrane becomes more polarized than when at rest.
C)The membrane becomes polarized to the same degree as when at rest.
D)The membrane becomes hyperpolarized.
Q3) Which of the following classes of tyrosine kinases classifies the insulin receptor?
A)Class I with 2 Cys-rich repeat sequences
B)Class II with <sub>2</sub> <sub>2</sub> tetrameric structure
C)Class III with multiple immunoglobulin-like extracellular domains
D)Class IV with a glycosylated protein domain
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) If the rate constant for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction is 2 × 10 /sec,and the rate constant for the uncatalyzed reaction is 2 × 10- /sec,what is the catalytic power of the enzyme?
A)2 × 10<sup>-11</sup>
B)10<sup>-1</sup>
C)2 × 10<sup>-1</sup>
D)10<sup>11</sup>
Q2) Which term defines the catalytically active complex of an apoenzyme and its prosthetic group?
A)catalytic duo
B)holoenzyme
C)prosthetic enzyme
D)dimeric enzyme
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct for catalysts?
A)They work by lowering the energy of activation.
B)The average energy of the reaction is unchanged.
C)They combine transiently with the reactants,promoting a reactive transition state condition.
D)They are regenerated after each third reaction cycle.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following structures has the greatest complementarity to enzyme active sites?
A)substrate
B)transition state
C)product
D)stable intermediate
Q2) Which of the following is the proposed mechanism of aspartate protease catalysis?
A)covalent nucleophilic
B)covalent electrophilic facilitated by a low-barrier hydrogen bond
C)specific base catalysis
D)general base-general acid facilitated by a low-barrier hydrogen bond
Q3) Aspartate proteases display a variety of substrate specificities.Which of the following peptide bonds,however,do they most actively cleave?
A)those on the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids
B)those on the amino side of aromatic amino acids
C)those between 2 small,neutral residues
D)those between 2 hydrophobic amino acid residues
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15
Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding enzyme regulation is correct?
A)Addition of an inhibitor to a V system results in kinetics similar to addition of a competitive inhibitor to a typical hyperbolic system.
B)Allosteric effectors are always more powerful than covalent modification.
C)Addition of an allosteric activator to a K system changes the plot of V versus [S] from a sigmoidal curve to a more hyperbolic curve.
D)The T state of an enzyme generally has more activity than the R state.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding isozymes is correct?
A)They catalyze the same reaction but have vastly different structures.
B)They are always monomeric proteins.
C)Their differences are based upon the type of metal ions needed for catalysis.
D)They often respond to different inhibitors and activators.
Q3) Which of the following regarding the differences between Hb and Mb is NOT correct?
A)Hb shows sigmoidal,whereas Mb shows hyperbolic oxygen saturation curves.
B)Hb shows cooperativity,whereas Mb does not.
C)Hb binds O more tightly than Mb.
D)Hb-oxygen binding is dependent on physiological changes in pH,whereas Mb-oxygen binding is not.
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Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) In the b-sheet of the - - - -segment of myosin,a particular sequence likely binds ATP and is found in other nucleotide-binding proteins.Which of the following represents that sequence?
A)Cys-X-X-Cys-X-His
B)Arg-X-X-His-X-Gly
C)Gly-X-X-Gly-X-Gly
D)Lys-X-Gly-X-X-Ser
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the bands observed by electron microscopy of myofibrils?
A)I bands show a hexagonal array of thick filaments.
B)Thin filaments are composed mainly of actin,troponin,and tropomyosin.
C)H zones contain an array of thick filaments that are composed mainly of myosin.
D)Thick filaments are joined by cross-bridges.
Q3) Kinesins are proteins that exhibit ATPase activity.What are they involved with?
A)A-tubule and B-tubule movement within an axoneme
B)movement of cilia
C)movement of muscles
D)intracellular movement of organelles and vesicles from the minus end to the plus end of microtubules
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) By which of the following mechanisms is energy generally extracted from phototrophs and chemotrophs?
A)hydrolysis reactions
B)condensation-cleavage reactions
C)oxidative-reduction reactions
D)acid-base reactions
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metabolon?
A)separate units of enzymes
B)discrete multi-enzyme complex
C)soluble enzymes associated into stable multi-enzyme complexes
D)membrane-bound multi-enzyme systems
Q3) Which of the following conditions does NOT have an increased risk associated with it when correlated with excess dietary fat levels?
A)sickle cell anemia
B)heart disease
C)colon cancer
D)breast cancer
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18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following concerning the isomerase reaction of glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate is correct?
A)Zn² is required for activity.
B)It is a ketose-to-aldose isomerization.
C)Transferring the carbonyl from C-1 to C-2 creates a new primary alcohol group at C-1.
D)The reaction is irreversible with a large negative G.
Q2) Which of the following actions of phosphoglucoisomerase occurs when is secreted by T-cells?
A)It phosphorylates galactose.
B)It isomerizes galactose-6-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate.
C)It promotes the survival of certain spinal neurons and sensory nerves.
D)It glycosylates sphingolipids surrounding nerves.
Q3) Which enzyme is NOT involved in the first 5 steps of glycolysis?
A)phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
B)phosphoglycerate kinase
C)fructose bisphosphate aldolase
D)triose phosphate isomerase (TPI)
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Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is an allosteric activator of isocitrate dehydrogenase?
A)ATP
B)NADH
C)[FADH ]
D)ADP
Q2) What type of double bond does the succinate dehydrogenase-catalyzed reaction generate?
A)saturated
B)electrophilic cis
C)stereospecific
D)trans
Q3) How many NADH molecules are produced in the TCA cycle per molecule of acetyl-CoA oxidized?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur in the malate-aspartate shuttle?
A)OAA is transaminated to aspartate.
B)OAA is reduced to malate.
C)Malate is oxidized to OAA.
D)Aspartate is translocated to the matrix.
Q2) Which of the following is the effect of adding oligomycin and then 2,4-dinitrophenol to respiring mitochondria?
A)Electron transport speeds up and ATP synthesis stops.
B)Electron transport continues and ATP synthesis continues.
C)Electron transport stops and ATP synthesis stops.
D)Electron transport stops and ATP synthesis continues.
Q3) Which of the following classifies the phosphorylation of ADP that is NADH-dependent?
A)oxidative
B)electron
C)proton-gradient
D)substrate-level
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT contained in chloroplasts?
A)thylakoid membrane
B)ribosomes
C)DNA and RNA
D)calcium channels
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the enzyme rubisco is correct?
A)It releases 2 molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate as products.
B)Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate is the substrate and carbon dioxide is the product.
C)Its catalytic site has both carboxylase and oxygenase activity.
D)It is the least abundant enzyme in plants.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of CAM plants?
A)CO is fixed by rubisco during the night.
B)The stomata are closed during the night and open during the day.
C)They try to avoid loss of water by condensation.
D)During the night,dicarboxylic acid is stored within the vacuoles.
Q4) In which of the following organelles does photosynthesis take place?
A)chloroplasts
B)ribosomes
C)membranes
D)photoplasts
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which 2 enzymes must be carefully controlled in glycogen synthesis and degradation in order to properly serve the metabolic needs of the organism?
A)glucokinase and hexokinase
B)hexokinase and glycogen synthase
C)glycogen synthase and glucokinase
D)glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase
Q2) Which of the following results can a blood test for "glycated hemoglobin" determine?
A)present blood glucose concentration
B)average glucose concentration in the blood over the past several months
C)level of AGEs in the blood stream
D)blood glucose concentration over the past month
Q3) The polyol pathway is a suspected pathway for diabetes-induced cataract formation.Which enzyme does it involve?
A)aldose reductase
B)glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C)phosphopentose isomerase
D)transaldolase
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is the potential major source of energy for the brain during prolonged starvation?
A)ketone bodies
B)fatty acids
C)amino acids
D)glucose
Q2) Which of the following cellular locations is the site for where fatty acids are condensed with coenzyme A to form acyl-CoA for -oxidation?
A)mitochondrial matrix
B)cytoplasm
C)outer mitochondrial membrane
D)inner mitochondrial membrane
Q3) In ketone body biosynthesis,the HMG-CoA lyase reaction is mechanistically the reverse of the first half of the reaction catalyzed by a particular TCA enzyme.Which of the following TCA enzymes does it resemble?
A)aconitase
B)citrate synthase
C)malate dehydrogenase
D)succinyl-CoA synthase
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following describes the role ATP plays in the nitrogenase complex?
A)breaks the N triple bond
B)provides electrons
C)phosphorylates the enzyme
D)transfers electrons from ferredoxin
Q2) Which of the following amino acids is classified as an essential amino acid?
A)proline
B)valine
C)glutamine
D)aspartate
Q3) Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase catalyze?
A)the reductive amination of a-ketoglutarate to yield glutamate
B)phosphorylation of carbamate to yield carbamoyl phosphate
C)the amidation of the g-carboxyl group of glutamate to form glutamine
D)the deadenylation of glutamine synthetase
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25
Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following purine derivatives is NOT found in nucleic acids?
A)guanine
B)adenine
C)xanthine
D)uric acid
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic of DNA?
A)adenine and uracil as a base pair
B)a 1:1 ratio between pyrimidine residues and purine residues
C)hydrogen bonding between base pairs
D)information accessed through transcription of the information into RNA
Q3) Which of the following are relatively stable acid hydrolysis?
A)pyrimidines
B)purines
C)dipeptides
D)polypeptides
Q4) In addition to the nucleus,what eukaryotic cellular structure also contains DNA?
A)ribosome
B)mitochondrion
C)peroxisome
D)vacuole
26
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is complementary to 5'-ATCGCAACTGTCACTA-3'?
A)5'-TAGCGTTGACAGTGAT-3'
B)5'-UAGUGACAGUUGCGAU-3'
C)5'-ATCACTGTCAACGCTA-3'
D)5'-TAGTGACAGTTGCGAT-3'
Q2) Which of the following conformations do double-helical DNA:RNA hybrids and double-stranded regions of RNA chains often assume?
A)A-like conformation
B)B-like conformation
C)Z-like conformation
D)triple-helix conformation
Q3) Which of the following is the function of DNA topoisomerases?
A)packaging DNA into nucleosomes
B)forming cruciform DNA
C)unwinding G:C-rich areas in DNA
D)breaking 1 or more strands of DNA,winding them tighter or looser,and rejoining the ends
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following is characteristic characteristic of xanthine oxidase?
A)present in small amounts in liver,intestinal mucosa,and milk
B)uses H O to produce molecular oxygen
C)possesses an electron-transport chain with FAD,Fe-S cluster,and molybdenum cofactor
D)involved in production of urea
Q2) Which of the following statements explains why sulfonamides are effective antibiotics?
A)They serve as analogs of p-aminobenzoic acid and block bacterial synthesis of folate.
B)They act as inhibitors of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase,thus preventing production of tetrahydrofolate.
C)They act as suicide substrates for the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase.
D)They do not affect humans because folate is a vitamin.
Q3) Which of the following is the mechanism of action of 5-fluorouracil?
A)competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase
B)competitive inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase
C)suicide substrate for thymidylate synthase
D)non-competitive inhibitor of thioredoxin reductase
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Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which vector would be most useful if DNA fragments of about 4 kb are to be cloned?
A)plasmid
B)cosmid
C)YACs (yeast artificial chromosomes)
D)bacteriophage lambda
Q2) Reporter genes such as those for green fluorescent protein (GFP)are found on many commercial plasmids.What are these genes used for?
A)to determine if the plasmid is in the host
B)to determine if a gene is present in a library
C)to determine if a foreign protein is being expressed on a vector
D)to determine the relative strength of a promoter sequence
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a step in the sequence for construction of a chimeric plasmid?
A)annealing the ends of the vector and foreign DNA
B)cutting the source of the foreign DNA with a restriction endonuclease
C)reannealing the ends of the vector back together
D)cutting the vector plasmid with the same restriction endonuclease
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Page 29
Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following explains how the vast diversity of immunoglobulin sequences are created?
A)by DNA rearrangement
B)by large sections of DNA devoted to immunoglobulin formation
C)by susceptibility of the immunoglobulin genes to mutation
D)by sensitivity of formed immunoglobulin proteins to environmental factors
Q2) Which of the following processes are B-cells,T-cells,and macrophages capable of that allows them to produce antibodies essential to the immune response?
A)replication rearrangement
B)complementarity modification
C)DNA replication
D)DNA rearrangement
Q3) Which of the following is a shared characteristic of DNA polymerases?
A)They are strongly processive.
B)Incoming bases are paired with corresponding bases on the complementary strand within the polymerase active site.
C)Polymerization proceeds in a 3'5' direction.
D)Polymerization is antiparallel to template strand.
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a component of the lac operon?
A)the structural genes for lacZ,lacY,and lacA
B)the operator and promoter sequences
C)a lacI gene
D)a separate operator for the lacI gene
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a part of the process that leads to the production of multiple transcripts from a single gene?
A)constitutive splicing
B)use of different promoters
C)selection of different polyadenylation sites
D)alternative splicing of the primary transcript
Q3) The stand of dsDNA that is read by RNA polymerase is termed the template strand with RNA polymerase moving 3'?5' along it.Which of the following does the polymerase form,and in which direction does it grow?
A)transcript;3'?5'
B)transcript;5'?3'
C)template;3'?5'
D)template;5'?3'
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) What type of ribosomes do mitochondrial and chloroplastic ribosomes resemble?
A)prokaryotic
B)lower eukaryotic
C)higher eukaryotic
D)viral
Q2) Which of the following is an important difference between a class I and a class II aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
A)The 2 classes proceed through different aminoacyl-AMP intermediates.
B)Class I synthetases first attach the amino acid to the 2'-hydroxyl on ribose,whereas class II attach them to the 3'-hydroxyl.
C)Class I synthetases attach amino acids to the 5'-end of the tRNA,whereas class II attach them to the 3'-end.
D)The 5'-end of the tRNA molecule is phosphorylated only for those tRNAs recognized by class I synthetases.
Q3) Which of these cellular components are the agents of protein synthesis?
A)nuclei
B)mitochondria
C)chloroplasts
D)ribosomes
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of P-bodies?
A)They are mitochondrial foci consisting of RNA-protein complexes.
B)Under stress conditions they typically reduce their sizes.
C)They are aggregates of messenger ribonucleoproteins (mRNPs)and P-body components.
D)They are aggregates of messenger ribonucleoproteins (mRNPs)and P-body components
Q2) Which of the following components protects mRNAs from cellular nucleases?
A)5'-GTP cap
B)introns
C)phosphorylation
D)TATA box
Q3) Which of the following do miRNAs binds?
A)GREs
B)seed elements
C)AREs
D)core promoters
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Page 33
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Q1) Which of the following are the primary driving forces for protein folding?
A)hydrogen bonds
B)van der Waals interactions
C)hydrophobic interactions
D)electrostatic interactions
Q2) Which of the following is a part of the folding cycle in the GroES-GroEL complex of E.coli?
A)GroES promotes GTP hydrolysis,and a-subunits undergo a conformational change that buries the hydrophobic patches.
B)GroES associates to the complex.
C)Partially folded,protein hydrophilic residues bind GroEL.
D)GroES is recruited to GroEL.
Q3) Which of the following is the primary function of Met-aminopeptidase?
A)to cleave large inactive pro-proteins
B)to remove leader peptides after translocation
C)to remove invariable Met and introduce N-terminal diversity
D)to transfer a Met to the C-terminal end for translocation
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ethanol metabolism in liver?
A)decreased pH levels due to lactic acidosis
B)2 oxidation steps to convert ethanol to acetate;both reactions produce NADH
C)increased acetaldehyde-protein adducts impairing protein function
D)decreased NADH/NAD ratio in the cell
Q2) In which area is glucose NOT pivotal to adipocyte metabolism?
A)formation of DHAP for reduction and esterification of fatty acids
B)provision of glucose-6-phosphate for generating NADPH from the pentose phosphate pathway
C)synthesis of ketone bodies
D)conversion of glucose to fatty acids for storage and export
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a fuel for contracting muscles during strictly anaerobic metabolism?
A)palmitic acid
B)creatine phosphate
C)glycogen
D)glucose
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