Biochemistry for Life Sciences Test Bank
Course Introduction
Biochemistry for Life Sciences provides students with a fundamental understanding of the molecular principles that underpin biological processes. The course explores the structure and function of important biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids, and examines how these molecules interact within the cell to drive metabolism, gene expression, and signal transduction. Emphasis is placed on connecting biochemical concepts to physiological processes and health-related applications, equipping students with the knowledge required for advanced studies in life and health sciences. Laboratory exercises and problem-solving sessions are incorporated to reinforce theoretical concepts and develop practical skills in biochemical analysis.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 8th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Five Kingdom classification system, Escherichia coli would be considered
A) animals.
B) protists.
C) monera.
D) none of the above.
Answer: C
Q2) amino acid
A)nucleic acids
B)proteins
C)carbohydrate
Answer: B
Q3) Chloroplasts
A) contain no DNA
B) are bounded by a single membrane
C) are relatively small organelles
D) are the site of photosynthesis in green plants
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water: the Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?
A) The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a less electronegative atom then hydrogen.
B) The more linear the bond, the stronger the attraction.
C) The acceptor must contain a non-bonded pair of electrons.
D) It is a type of non-covalent bond.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?
A) C
B) H
C) N
D) O
E) P
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) most substances contract when they freeze.
B) water expands when it freezes.
C) hydrogen bonding is related to water's tendency to expand as it freezes.
D) all of these are true
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chiral objects
A) are cyclic compounds in the chair form.
B) are not superimposable on their mirror images.
C) never occur in nature.
D) do not form crystals.
Answer: B
Q2) The pK<sub>a</sub> values of the alpha carboxyl groups of common amino acids are around
A) pH 2
B) pH 5
C) pH 7
D) pH 9
Answer: A
Q3) Refer to Exhibit 3B. The point labeled #1 represents:
A) The fully protonated form
B) The pH with maximum negative charge
C) The end point of titration with base (OH )
D) The pI of the amino acid
E) None of these
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) prevents scurvy because
A) it is involved in the formation of the proper -sheet structure of collagen.
B) it is involved in the metabolism of heme used in hemoglobin.
C) it encourages the formation of disulfide linkages in collagen.
D) it is an unusual amino acid found in the primary structure of collagen.
E) it is used to hydroxylate prolines in the primary structure of collagen.
Q2) Adult hemoglobin is half saturated with oxygen at what partial pressure of oxygen?
A) 5 torr
B) 10 torr
C) 25 torr
D) 50 torr
E) 100 torr
Q3) Which of the following can result in protein denaturation?
A) heat
B) extremes of pH
C) detergents
D) all of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ammonium sulfate is useful in protein purification because
A) it contains nitrogen and sulfur, both of which occur in proteins
B) it is sparingly soluble in water, causing proteins to co-precipitate with it
C) very pure proteins are obtained when it is used
D) it forms ion-dipole interactions with water, making proteins less soluble and more likely to precipitate
Q2) Two dimensional separation methods
A) lead to unreliable results
B) are not widely used because of their complexity
C) do not improve separation
D) consist of two separation methods applied in sequence
Q3) Which would be best to separate proteins of similar size?
A) Gel filtration
B) Affinity chromatography
C) Cation exchange
D) Anion exchange
E) Cation or anion exchange
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has two substrates and substrate A must bind before substrate B, the mechanism is called
A) a ping-pong mechanism
B) a random mechanism
C) an ordered mechanism
D) a suicide mechanism
E) none of these is true
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 6A. What is the equilibrium constant for the uncatalyzed reaction?
A) 0.9
B) 1.1
C) 2.5
D) Cannot be determined from the information provided.
Q3) Which of the following diseases has not been successfully treated using the principles of enzyme inhibition?
A) AIDS.
B) Lactose intolerance
C) Virus infection
D) Neither AIDS nor virus infection.
E) All of these have been successfully treated using enzyme inhibitors.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kinases usually transfer phosphates from
A) ATP.
B) inorganic phosphate.
C) NADP<sup>+</sup>/NADPH.
D) amino acids.
Q2) Which of the following can function as coenzymes?
A) lead ion, biotin, and lipoic acid.
B) copper ion, p-hydroxymercuribenzoate, diisopropylphophofluoridate.
C) zinc ion, pyridoxal phosphate, and nicotinamide adenine nucleotides.
D) lead ion, p-hydroxymercuribenzoate, diisopropylphophofluoridate.
Q3) Which of the following is true about salicylate?
A) it is a natural compound from the bark of a tree
B) it is structurally similar to aspirin
C) it stimulates the protein kinase, AMPK
D) it has therapeutic effects in lowering the risk of heart disease
E) all of these
Q4) Generally speaking, enzymes involved in pathways which generate ATP will be activated by addition of phosphate groups to the enzyme.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between active transport and passive transport is that
A) concentration gradients are involved in one and not in the other.
B) glycolipids play a role in one and not in the other.
C) one requires expenditure of energy by the cell and the other does not.
D) ions are transported into and out of the cell by one process and not by the other.
Q2) Which of the following is true?
A) Fatty acids with trans double bonds may be particularly unhealthy because they increase the ratio of LDLs to HDLs.
B) A fatty acid with 14 carbons and one trans double bond will behave more like a saturated fatty acid with 14 carbons than will an unsaturated fatty acid with a cis double bond.
C) Fatty acids with trans double bonds can be formed by hydrogenation reaction of polyunssaturated fatty acids
D) fatty acids with trans double bonds tend to have higher melting points than those with cis double bonds all else being equal
E) All of these are correct
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Histones contain large amounts of which of the following amino acids?
A) histidine
B) glutamic acid
C) lysine
D) leucine
E) tryptophan
Q2) Which of the following best describes the structure of a nucleosome?
A) DNA wrapped around an octomer containing two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 with H1 on the outside.
B) DNA wrapped around an octomer of H1 with H2A,B, H3 & H4 on the outside.
C) DNA wrapped around a octomer of either H2A/H2B or H3/H4 with H1 on the outside.
D) DNA wrapped around a tetramer of either H2A/H2B or H3/H4 with H1 on the outside.
E) None of these
Q3) Comparison of DNA sequences between widely diverse organisms indicates that all organisms have genetic similarity.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repair of DNA is usually carried out by
A) hydrolysis of the entire damaged DNA molecule and synthesis of new DNA
B) hydrolysis of one strand of the damaged DNA molecule and synthesis of a new strand
C) a cut-and patch process
D) introducing additional supercoiling in the molecule
Q2) Which of the following describes a difference between DNA polymerases in eukaryotes and bacteria?
A) Some eukaryotic polymerases include a primase.
B) All the eukaryotic enzymes are polymeric.
C) Eukaryotes require a special enzyme to remove the RNA primer.
D) Some eukaryotic polymerases include a primase and all are polymeric.
E) All of these are correct.
Q3) In Escherichia coli, the enzyme principally responsible for the synthesis of new DNA strands is
A) DNA polymerase I
B) DNA polymerase III
C) DNA ligase
D) primase
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about micro RNAs?
A) They are a type of non-coding RNA
B) They are a type of small interfering RNA
C) They have been found only in simple organisms like roundworms
D) All of these are true
Q2) Which of the following is true concerning the first nucleotide incorporated into an RNA chain?
A) The first nucleotide incorporated into the RNA chain retains its 5'-triphosphate
B) The first nucleotide is always GMP
C) The first nucleotide is always cleaved off post-transcriptionally
D) The first nucleotide is always modified after transcription
Q3) Attenuation mechanisms rely on alternative secondary structures forming in the mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA binding domains are distinct from transcription-activation domains.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Sample Questions
Q1) The actual functions of the factors in eukaryotes are similar to the functions of these factors in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the wobble phenomenon, the base that wobbles is found in
A) the tRNA.
B) the mRNA
C) either the tRNA or the mRNA.
Q3) What is the maximum number of amino acids that can be specified by a codon consisting of a sequence of two bases?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 20
Q4) Which of the following codons does not code for an amino acid?
A) AUG
B) UAA
C) CAU
D) GUU
E) All of these code for an amino acid
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are methods used to determine where the DNA bands are located on an electrophoresis gel?
A) Radioactivity
B) Fluorescence
C) Dyes which bind to DNA
D) Luminescence
E) All of these can visualize the DNA
Q2) Enzymes that seal nicks in DNA are called
A) restriction enzymes.
B) bacteriophages.
C) ligases.
D) exonucleases.
Q3) Expression libraries are most often made from
A) the mRNA found with a given cell or tissue.
B) the genome of a given cell or tissue.
C) the promoters of a given cell or tissue.
D) the DNA of a single chromosome from cell type or tissue.
Q4) Antibiotic-resistance genes in vectors are often used as selectable markers.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies have two binding sites to react with antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The protein called p53 is especially important in cancer because:
A) Protein p53 has the ability to prevent cells from dividing.
B) Protein p53 has the ability to repair mutations.
C) Protein p53 can cause damaged cells to enter programmed cell death.
D) Protein p53 can prevent cells from dividing and cause to enter programmed cell death.
E) All of these.
Q3) Which of the following is not a reason that AIDS has been difficult to erradicate?
A) It is slow acting
B) the HIV reverse transcriptase is inaccurate
C) the gp120 protein makes a conformational change when it binds to the CD4 receptor causing antibodies to be ineffective
D) HIV evades the innate immune system
E) it gives the infected individual multiple symptoms within weeks of infection
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16
Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) I am performing a reaction, A B, with G°' = 5000 kJ/mol. I start the reaction with 10 mM A and no B. After allowing the reaction to proceed for 24 hrs at room temperature and atmospheric pressure, I analyze a sample of the reaction mix to find I now have 8 mM A and 2 mM B. Which of the following conclusions should I make?
A) The reaction has reached equilibrium.
B) I should come back again later; equilibrium has not yet been reached.
C) The formation of B from A is thermodynamically unfavorable, so I should find another starting material to make B.
D) I must've screwed up; there's no way I could get that result with that G°'
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 15A. Which molecule is reduced?
A) Ethanol
B) NAD<sup>+</sup>
C) Acetaldehyde
D) NADH
E) H<sup>+</sup>
Q3) The energy released during metabolism of nutrients can be used to synthesize ATP from ADP and phosphate.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycogen has a similar structure to amylopectin, but is less highly branched.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The and forms of the same sugar are called
A) anomers.
B) diastereoisomers.
C) enantiomers.
D) epimers.
E) none of these
Q3) In bacterial cell walls
A) polysaccharides form nonspecific mixtures with proteins
B) polysaccharides are hydrogen bonded together
C) peptides form crosslinks between polysaccharides
D) oligosaccharides form crosslinks between proteins
Q4) The following sugar is also called blood sugar:
A) Fructose
B) Glucose
C) Lactose
D) Sucrose
E) Maltose
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) What is the net ATP yield per glucose during glycolysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q2) How many different reactions involve substrate-level phosphorylation during glycolysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q3) Which of the following is not an end product of glucose metabolism via either aerobic or anaerobic means?
A) ethanol
B) carbon dioxide
C) lactate
D) fructose
E) all of these are end products of glucose metabolism
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) In the process of substrate cycling
A) different organs are responsible for the synthesis and breakdown of the same substance.
B) there is no net consumption of ATP.
C) allosteric control is not involved.
D) different enzymes, subject to independent control, are responsible for the synthesis and breakdown of the same substance.
Q2) UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase works by this mechanism:
A) It adds a phosphate group to glucose from UTP, leaving behind UDP.
B) It adds a UMP molecule to glucose-1-phosphate by splitting out pyrophosphate.
C) It adds a pyrophosphate group to glucose, using UTP.
D) It adds a UDP molecule to glucose by splitting out phosphate.
E) None of these
Q3) What kind of enzyme catalyzes the reaction ribulose-5-P xylulose-5-P?
A) transketolase
B) epimerase
C) transaldolase
D) isomerase
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glyoxysomes are named for the fact that they contain the glyoxylate pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One round of the citric acid cycle generates about ten equivalents of ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Release of succinate from succinyl-CoA can be coupled to GTP synthesis because:
A) The amide bond between succinate and CoA has a large G of hydrolysis.
B) The thioester bond between succinate and CoA has a large G of hydrolysis.
C) The link between succinate and CoA involves an acid anhydride to phosphate.
D) Coenzyme A is a "high energy" compound, just like GTP.
E) None of these explains why GTP can be formed during this reaction.
Q4) Which of the following enzymes is not a control point of the citric acid cycle?
A) citrate synthase
B) isocitrate dehydrogenase
C) aconitase
D) the -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
Q5) Lipoic acid is a required vitamin in the human diet.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is not true?
A) The synthesis of ATP in mitochondria is driven by a proton or pH gradient.
B) The synthesis of ATP is directly linked to the oxidation of NADH
C) The reoxidation of NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> indirectly creates a proton gradient that is involved in ATP synthesis
D) All of these are true
Q2) The factor that couples electron transport to phosphorylation of ADP is
A) a protein oligomer
B) a protein monomer
C) gramicidin A
D) valinomycin
Q3) Creatine supplements work best for long distance exercise, rather than for quick spurts of energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mitochondrial membranes can be fragmented into small vesicles which still synthesize ATP; intact mitochondria are not required.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) A key intermediate in the catabolism of fatty acids with uneven numbers of carbon atoms is
A) malonyl-CoA
B) propionyl-CoA
C) oxaloacetate
D) phosphoenolpyruvate
Q2) The cis double bonds of naturally-occurring fatty acids react well with the hydratase enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compared to -oxidation, fatty acid synthesis requires this extra vitamin or cofactor.
A) Biotin
B) Riboflavin
C) Niacin
D) Pantothenic acid
E) All of these are used in both pathways.
Q4) Synthesis of fatty acids involves simple reversal of the -oxidation cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The synthesis of ATP in chloroplasts uses a proton gradient similar to the one used in mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After the CO<sub>2</sub> fixation step in photosynthesis, the production of sugars takes place
A) as a reversal of glycolysis.
B) as a reversal of the citric acid cycle.
C) in the same manner as gluconeogenesis.
D) as a reversal of the pentose phosphate pathway.
E) the same as in glycolysis
Q3) Wavelengths of what color are mostly responsible for the reactions in the light phase of photosynthesis?
A) Blue.
B) Green.
C) Red
D) Blue and red.
E) All three colors.
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24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) By a simple transamination reaction, intermediates in glycolysis or the Kreb's Cycle can be converted in one step to all of these amino acids, except:
A) Alanine.
B) Aspartic Acid
C) Glutamic Acid.
D) Serine.
E) All of these amino acids are only one step away from the major metabolic pathways.
Q2) Which of the following is not a component of the nitrogenase complex?
A) a molybdenum complex
B) a nonheme iron-sulfur protein (Fe protein)
C) ferredoxin
D) pyridoxal phosphate
Q3) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome involves a genetic error in the pyrimidine salvage pathways. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Which of the following best describes protein kinases?
A) Protein kinases act by transferring a phosphate from a protein to ADP to make ATP.
B) Protein kinases act by transfering a phosphate from a donor molecule, like ATP, to a protein molecule, thereby changing its activity
C) Protein kinases phosphorylate enzymes and activate them
D) Protein kinases phosphorylate key tyrosine residues on receptors
Q2) Which of the following is a lipid soluble vitamin?
A) biotin
B) niacin
C) folic acid
D) vitamin C
E) vitamin E
Q3) Which of the following is a second messenger?
A) Cyclic AMP
B) GTP-binding proteins.
C) Proteins kinases.
D) Phospholipase C.
E) All of these can act as second messengers.
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