Course Introduction
Biochemistry
Final Exam Questions
Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. This course examines the structure, function, and interactions of biological macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids, as well as key metabolic pathways and regulatory mechanisms. Through lectures and laboratory work, students will explore the molecular basis of life, gain insight into enzyme kinetics and bioenergetics, and understand how biochemical principles underpin health, disease, and biotechnological applications.
Recommended Textbook Beckers World of the Cell 8th Edition by Jeff Hardin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Preview of the Cell
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Q1) Scanning electron microscopy
A)uses a laser to view a single plane of a specimen
B)detects electrons passing through a specimen
C)light passes directly through specimen
D)detects electrons deflected from the surface of the specimen
E)shows specific molecules
F)amplifies variations in density
Answer: D
Q2) Which laws were formulated by Mendel?
A)thermodynamics
B)gravity
C)ideal gas laws
D)heredity
E)diffusion
Answer: D
Q3) The total protein content of the cell is called the ________.
Answer: proteome
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is not an activated monomer?
A)adenosine triphosphate
B)glucose-6-phosphate
C)aminoacyl tRNA
D)amino acid
E)uracil triphosphate
Answer: D
Q2) The hierarchical nature of cellular structure is accurately illustrated in which of the following lists of substances (from smallest to largest)?
A)nucleotides, chromosome, DNA, nucleus, cell
B)cellulose, glucose, cell wall, cell
C)nucleotides, nucleus, DNA, chromosome, cell
D)nucleotides, DNA, chromosome, nucleus, cell
E)protein, membrane, amino acids, chloroplast, cell
Answer: D
Q3) Macromolecules can be assembled into ________ that are components of organelles and other subcellular organelles.
Answer: supramolecular structures
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Chapter 3: The Macromolecules of the Cell
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Q1) To which of the following classes of sugars does glucose belong?
A)pentose
B)hexose
C)tetrose
D)heptose
E)triose
Answer: B
Q2) Starch,cellulose,and glycogen are all polysaccharides composed of glucose.What makes each of these polysaccharides unique in spite of the fact that all are composed solely of glucose?
Answer: Starch: is produced by plants and is a nutritional form; linear structure with glucose molecules connected by (1 4)linkages.
Cellulose: is produced by plants and is a structural form; linear structure with glucose molecules connected by (1 4)linkages; mammals do not have the enzyme needed to break this type of linkage.
Glycogen: is produced by animals and is a nutritional form; branched form with (1 4)linkages with (1 6)linkages at the branch points.
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Chapter 4: Cells and Organelles
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Q1) The hallmark feature of peroxisomal diseases is the presence of A)hydrolases.
B)very long chain fatty acids.
C)long chain gangliosides.
D)an abundance of myelin.
E)amyloid plaques.
Q2) Which of the following processes would be most likely to occur in the Golgi complex?
A)synthesis of steroids
B)production and packaging of lipids
C)glycosylation of proteins
D)synthesis of DNA
E)detoxification of drugs
Q3) In your own words and with your own examples,explain fully how cells are limited in size and how some cells have modifications that allow them to be larger or more adapted to a particular function in spite of these limitations.
Q4) The pathway that a secretory protein takes from inside to outside is: rough endoplasmic reticulum,________,Golgi complex,________,outside the cell.
Q5) The matrix is to the mitochondrion as the ________ is to the chloroplast.
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Chapter 5: Bioenergetics: the Flow of Energy in the Cell
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Q1) Muscle contraction is an example of which of the following types of work?
A)heat
B)mechanical
C)bioluminescent
D)electrical
E)concentration
Q2) In your own words,describe how energy flows through an ecosystem and how this contributes to a continuous increase in enthalpy.
Q3) ________ reactions require an input of energy when electrons are gained,such as in the conversion CO CH .
Q4) ________ is the partial measure of the internal energy of a system,also known as the heat content.
Q5) Which of the following is an endothermic process?
A)combustion reactions
B)adding a strong acid directly to water
C)oxidation of metals
D)ice melting
E)neutralization reactions of the addition of strong acid directly to a strong base
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Chapter 6: Enzymes: the Catalysts of Life
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Q1) The site on an enzyme that is designated for the substrate bind is called the
Q2) ________ inhibitors bind reversibly at the active site of an enzyme.
Q3) Which of the following is an enzyme?
A)iron
B)histidine
C)carboxypeptidase A
D)ATP
E)N-acetylmuramic acid
Q4) The induced-fit model
A)was proposed by Hans Buchner.
B)involves a conformational change in the shape of the enzyme.
C)is also called the lock-and-key model.
D)states that enzyme-substrate interactions are rigid.
E)proposes that very strong covalent bonds are formed upon substrate binding.
Q5) Two specific coenzymes we need to obtain from our diet are niacin and ________,as our bodies cannot synthesize them.
Q6) The ________ velocity of an enzymatic reaction is the velocity at substrate concentration.
Q7) Nonprotein catalysts are known as ________.
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Chapter 7: Membranes: Their Structure, function, and Chemistry
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Q1) In E.coli the enzyme responsible for creating unsaturated bonds from saturated ones in the fatty acids of the cell membrane is ________.
Q2) A prokaryotic organism is isolated from a glacier,where it was thriving.Based on your knowledge of the plasma membrane,you would expect to find a predominance of
A)largely saturated fatty acids.
B)equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, as long as the chain was close to 12 carbons in length.
C)cell wall to define the cell because the cell membrane would not be present.
D)largely unsaturated fatty acids.
E)none of the above
Q3) ________ are small peptide molecules (10-50 amino acids in length)that affect membrane permeability.
Q4) Which of the following is not a function of membranes?
A)define cell boundaries
B)compartmentalization
C)information storage
D)regulation of transport
E)cell-cell communication
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Chapter 8: Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the
Permeability
Barrier
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Q1) The graph above shows the initial rate of transport for each substance when the cells are placed in solutions of different concentrations of A,B,and C.Based on these data,substance A is transported via
A)active transport.
B)facilitated transport.
C)passive transport.
D)simple diffusion.
E)choices A, B, and C
Q2) Brucella abortus is a bacterium that utilizes an unusual sugar,erythritol.The concentration of erythritol within the B.abortus cell is 10 mM,while the external erythritol concentration is at very low levels,such as 0.20 mM.What is the energy requirement for the inward transport of erythritol at 37°C under these conditions?
Q3) Which of the following is not a mechanism of active transport?
A)coupled transport
B)ATP hydrolysis-driven pump
C)unidirectional movement with gradients
D)light-driven pumps
E)both choices C and D
Q4) In the capillaries of the lungs,O diffuses ________ and is bound to ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
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Q1) In the first step of glycolysis,glucose can be phosphorylated because
A)a phosphoanhydride bond has higher energy of hydrolysis than a phosphoester bond.
B)the transfer of a phosphate from ATP to glucose is exergonic.
C)both the number 2 and 3 carbons can be spontaneously phosphorylated.
D)the ketosugar is rapidly phosphorylated at the carbon 1 hydroxyl group.
E)both choices A and B
Q2) During strenuous exercise,you may notice that your muscles burn.Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?
A)Proteins are being digested to provide energy.
B)Carbon dioxide is building up in muscle and changing the pH.
C)Without oxygen, pyruvate is being converted to lactic acid.
D)ADP is accumulating, which produces a burning sensation.
E)Pyruvic acid causes muscle pain.
Q3) How many enzymatic steps are involved in converting glucose to pyruvate?
A)3
B)6
C)8
D)10
E)12
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Chapter 10: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Aerobic Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following structures serves the same purpose as the inner membrane and matrix of the mitochondrion with regard to their roles in aerobic respiration?
A)ribosomes
B)cell membrane
C)cytoplasm
D)nuceloid
E)both choices B and C
Q2) In prokaryotes,aerobic respiration generates ________ ATP molecules.
A)2
B)15
C)38
D)42
E)0
Q3) The site of DNA replication is localized to the ________ within the mitochondrion.
Q4) NAD contains the B vitamin ________ as part of its structure,whereas FAD contains another B vitamin,________,as part of its structure.
Q5) Respiration includes glycolysis,the ________,electron transport,and ________.
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Chapter 11: Phototrophic Energy Metabolism: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Light behaves as a stream of discrete particles called ________,each carrying a ________ (indivisible packet)of energy.
Q2) The transfer of energy from a photoexcited electron to another electron of an adjacent pigment molecule is known as
A)photoexcitation.
B)quantum leap.
C)photophosphorylation.
D)resonance energy transfer.
E)photorespiration.
Q3) Which of the following is not an essential feature of electron transfer from water to NADP ?
A)photosystem II complex
B)photosystem I complex
C)coenzyme Q
D)plastocyanin (PC)
E)cytochrome b /f complex
Q4) ________ (PC)is a copper-containing protein that,like plastoquinol,is a mobile electron carrier.
Q5) 3-phosphoglycerate is to C plants as ________ is to C plants.
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Chapter 12: The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes
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Q1) V-________ and t-________ mediate final docking between target and vesicle.
Q2) A ________ is a short sequence of amino acids that targets a protein for translation across the endoplasmic reticulum.
Q3) The investigation of the movement of proteins and lipids to their appropriate location within a cell is known as ________.
Q4) If you were wanting to synthesize a particular protein in plants that allowed it to accumulate within the plant vacuole,how would you design your chimeric protein to concentrate within this vacuole? What features of the plant vacuole are unique?
Q5) Coated vesicles known as ________ are thought to potentially be associated with cholesterol uptake and/or have a role in signal transduction.
Q6) The continuous release of mucus by the epithelial cells lining the respiratory tract is an example of
A)regulated secretion.
B)constitutive secretion.
C)the mucus response.
D)the formation of clathrin-coated pits.
E)phagocytosis.
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Chapter 13: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Ielectrical and Synaptic Signaling in Neurons
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Q1) The technique that allows one to record ion currents passing through individual channels is known as
A)voltage-gating.
B)ligand-gating.
C)patch-clamping.
D)ion sensors.
E)ionophores.
Q2) Which of the following statements about action potentials is false?
A)Electrical signals are propagated along a dendrite.
B)They require rapid changes in membrane potential.
C)Due to leaking, membranes are subject to subthreshold depolarization, which is insufficient to produce the action potential.
D)At the end of the action potential, most neurons show a transient hyperpolarization.
E)A refractory period is always necessary following an action potential.
Q3) Acetylcholine receptors can be differentiated by their ability to be activated by substances such as ________ and ________.
Q4) ________ is a technique used to measure ion currents passing through individual channels along a nerve cell.
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Iimessengers and Receptors
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Q1) Compare and contrast cell signalling via receptor serine/threonine kinases and Ras.
Q2) ________ is the second messenger associated with the regulation of blood pressure.
Q3) Phosphatases are enzymes that
A)add phosphate groups.
B)are always inhibitory.
C)do not alter target activity.
D)remove phosphate groups.
E)all of the above
Q4) ________ produces the second messenger diacylglycerol (DAG).
Q5) With regard to hormones,responses occurring over the shortest distance would be classified as
A)paracrine.
B)endocrine.
C)autocrine.
D)juxtacrine.
E)All of the above choices work over similar distances.
Page 16
Q6) Explain how caffeine,a methylxanthine,works to stimulate bronchodilation in asthma.
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Chapter 15: Cytoskeletal Systems
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Q1) All of the following are moved by molecular motors except A)secretory vesicles.
B)cytoskeletal filaments.
C)the Golgi complex.
D)glucose.
E)chloroplasts.
Q2) The ________ model was proposed by Mitchison and Kirschner to explain how polymerization and depolymerization of microtubules occur simultaneously.
Q3) F-actin filaments
A)are composed of four linear strands.
B)are composed of polymerized G-actin monomers wound around each other in a helix.
C)are oriented similar to DNA, with strands helical and antiparallel to one another.
D)are composed of G-actin dimers.
E)polymerize at the same rate in both directions from both ends of the filament.
Q4) ________ are proteins that promote depolymerization of extant microtubules at the ends.
Q5) A unique feature of ________ is that they are tissue specific.
Q6) Activation of the ________ G-protein results in the extension of lamellipodia.
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Chapter 16: Cellular Movement: Motility and Contractility
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Q1) Compare the sustained contraction of muscle cells in rigor mortis with that which results from the action of tetanospasmin (tetanus toxin)on motor neurons.
Q2) The neuromuscular junction is incorrectly described in which of the following statements?
A)Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in the axon terminal.
B)The sarcolemma is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell.
C)Acetylcholine binds receptors in the synaptic cleft.
D)T tubules carry action potentials into the muscle cell.
E)Acetylcholine binding allows sodium ions to enter the muscle cell.
Q3) ________ is a directional movement in response to a graded chemical stimulus.
Q4) ________ links the thick filaments to the Z line.
A)Troponin
B)Tropomyosin
C)Titin
D)Nebulin
E)Myosin
Q5) In electron micrographs,the appearance of the T tubule with the terminal cisternae on either side appears as three circles called a(n)________.
Q6) The ________ account for 1015% of microtubules.
Page 18
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Chapter
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Q1) Which of the following is false with regard to the extracellular matrix?
A)These structures are external to the cell membrane, but are still an integral component of cell function.
B)Extracellular matrices are only found in association with eukaryotic cells.
C)Extracellular matrices play a role in determining the shape of a cell.
D)Bone and cartilage are examples of cells that have specialized extracellular matrices associated with their function.
E)Extracellular matrices play a role in determining the mechanical properties of tissues and organs.
Q2) A newly defined autoimmune disorder has resulted in an immune response against Type V collagen fibers.As a result,the most likely organ to be targeted in this response would be the
A)skin.
B)heart.
C)lungs.
D)stomach.
E)tongue.
Q3) Cadherins are associated with ________ junctions.
Q4) ________ are cytoplasmic channels through openings in plant cell walls.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Structural Basis of Cellular Information:
DNA, chromosomes, and the Nucleus
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Q1) Two common transposable elements associated with interspersed repeated DNA are ________ and ________.
Q2) The normal gene for hemoglobin was isolated,cloned,and subjected to restriction enzyme digestion with BamHI.Following gel electrophoresis,three bands are routinely obtained.However,following the same procedure with the hemoglobin gene from an individual with sickle-cell anemia,four bands are routinely obtained.These data suggest that
A)the mutation associated with sickle-cell anemia results in DNA that breaks easily. B)the mutation associated with sickle-cell anemia results in the loss of a BamHI cut site. C)the mutation associated with sickle-cell anemia results in several new enzyme cut sites for a variety of restriction enzymes.
D)the mutation associated with sickle-cell anemia results in the gain of a BamHI cut site. E)the assay was not performed correctly.
Q3) ________ are the entire set of RNAs that can be produced by a genome.
Q4) SNPs located near each other on chromosomes are inherited as blocks known as ________.
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Chapter 19: The Cell Cycle, DNA Replication, and Mitosis
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding DNA replication is true?
A)Bacterial replication is faster than eukaryotic replication.
B)DNA replication during embryonic development occurs at a slower rate than in the early stages of neonatal life.
C)Early-replicating genes are those that are not actively transcribed.
D)The rate of DNA replication is constant at all stages of development in eukaryotes.
E)Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdk)are not involved in the DNA replication process.
Q2) A particular strain of yeast produces strains with a mutant cdC gene,resulting in little to no production of the CdC protein kinase.As a result,one would expect that these cells would
A)not enter M phase.
B)not have the nuclear envelope disperse.
C)lack chromosome condensation.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Why do eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication? Design an experiment that allows you to test your hypothesis.
Q4) Proteins bound to CEN sequences form a complex known as the ________.
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Chapter 20: Sexual Reproduction, meiosis, and Genetic
Recombination
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Q1) You have recently purchased a black angus bull named Maxwell,an advertised "pure-breeding" champion,for which you pay $1,000,000.You mate Max with several cows that are verified pure breeding black angus cows.Several years later,you mate different pairs of Max's offspring (F × F )and find that,with certain pairings,approximately one fourth of the progeny are red (F ).If B = black and b = red,what were the genotypes of the original cross (Maxwell × cow)?
A)BB x BB
B)Bb x BB
C)Bb x Bb
D)BB x bb
E)bb x bb
Q2) Mitosis and meiosis differ in that
A)homologues are separated in prophase I of meiosis.
B)homologues are separated in prophase II of meiosis.
C)homologues are separated in prophase of mitosis.
D)sister chromatids are separated in prophase I of meiosis.
E)sister chromatids are separated in anaphase of mitosis.
Q3) The ________ plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is often used as a vector for cloning and introducing foreign genes into plants.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Gene Expression: Ithe Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) In some organisms,a normal stop codon,UGA, encodes for the amino acid
A)leucine
B)arginine
C)isoleucine
D)selenocysteine
E)pyrrolysine
Q2) You wish to design a drug that acts against a recently identified retrovirus.Based upon what you know about retroviruses,which of the following would be the best target for specifically interrupting the viral life cycle in eukaryotic cells?
A)primase
B)30S ribosomal subunits
C)reverse transcriptase
D)RNA polymerase
E)DNA polymerase
Q3) The coding regions of a gene are known as ________.
Q4) ________-driven promoters are comprised of an Inr sequence and a TATA box with or without an associated BRE.
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Q5) A more contemporary technique for identification of promoter sequences is the ________ assay.
Chapter 22: Gene Expression: Iiprotein Synthesis and Sorting
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Q1) The anticodon base ________ is able to bind U,C,or A,allowing for wobble in the anticodon region during translation.
Q2) In a mutant E.coli strain,there was a mutation in the malate dehydrogenase gene that resulted in a stop codon at amino acid position 14.From subcultures of this strain,a colony was obtained that was capable of making malate dehydrogenase.Your approach to examining this phenomenon should be to examine
A)the DNA sequence to see if a reversion has occurred.
B)the DNA sequence to see if a suppresor mutation has occurred.
C)other proteins to see if other stop codons are ignored, indicating the presence of a suppresor tRNA.
D)the DNA and plasmids for the incorporation of a second complete copy of the malate dehydrogenase gene.
E)all of the above
Q3) Segments of polypeptides that are retained following protein splicing are called A)introns.
B)exons.
C)inteins.
D)exteins.
E)cleaved.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The lac repressor is
A)active when glucose is present.
B)inactive when glucose is present.
C)active when both glucose and lactose are present.
D)induced when cAMP is present.
E)rarely active.
Q2) Within a genome,an enhancer may be located
A)upstream of the gene enhanced.
B)downstream of the gene enhanced.
C)within the gene enhanced.
D)choices A, B, and C
E)both choices A and B
Q3) Discuss how DNA methylation is associated with genomic imprinting.Be sure to use examples.
Q4) A bacteria has the following lac operon genes located on the chromosome: I P Z Y A .On a plasmid,this same bacterial cell has the lac genes I P Z Y A .Which Lac proteins will be made? What type of protein expression (induced or constituitive)will there be for each protein that is made ?
Q5) An individual that is XXY has ________ Barr body(ies)in their cells.
Page 25
Q6) Multiple operons may be controlled by ________ or ________.
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Chapter 24: Cancer Cells
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Q1) A new compound developed in the lab was tested as a DNA mutagen. When the Ames test was performed,the results were numerous bacterial colonies following exposure. This result means
A)the chemical is safe.
B)the chemical is radioactive.
C)the chemical is a carcinogen and a low-level mutagen.
D)the chemical is a mutagen and may also be a carcinogen.
E)the chemical can be moved to human trials.
Q2) In some forms of breast cancer,estrogen is a(n)
A)initiator.
B)promoter.
C)progressor.
D)inhibitor.
E)mutagen.
Q3) The enzyme ________ breaks down the extracellular matrix to facilitate angiogenesis.
Q4) How does genetic instability arise,and how might you test your hypothesis?
Q5) A ________ is a cancer of blood cells in which the cells proliferate in the bloodstream.
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