Biochemistry Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Biochemistry explores the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. This course covers the structure, function, and interactions of biological macromolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. Students will gain an understanding of enzyme kinetics, metabolic pathways, bioenergetics, and the regulation of biochemical processes. Through theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory techniques, the course provides insight into how molecular mechanisms underlie biological functions and how these processes are fundamental to health, disease, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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29 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) While there are many ways to compare biochemical similarities in organisms, the molecular tree of life is based predominantly on similarities in what biological molecule?
A)DNA
B)proteins
C)ribosomal RNA
D)transfer RNA
E)lipids of cell membranes
Answer: C
Q2) The genetic information of viruses is contained within __________ .
A)DNA
B)DNA or RNA
C)specialized proteins with defined amino acid sequence
D)specialized carbohydrates with defined sequence
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways. Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid. Based upon this name, draw the molecule.
Answer: 11ea7cd4_c4a7_7062_a2ab_79f56db8dc5b_TB2679_00
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Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs. With a pK<sub>a</sub> of 7.0, what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?
Answer: 2.5 11ea7cd4_c4a8_33b6_a2ab_b9ca760947d7_TB2679_00
Q2) Citric acid is a triprotic acid with three carboxylic acid groups having pK<sub>a</sub> values of 3.1, 4.8, and 6.4. If a solution of citric acid has a pH of 5.5, what can be said about the predominant protonation state of the citric acid?
A)1 carboxylic acid group is deprotonated, 2 are protonated
B)2 carboxylic acid groups are deprotonated, 1 is protonated
C)all 3 carboxylic acid groups are deprotonated
D)all 3 carboxylic acid groups are protonated
E)the protonation state cannot be determined
Answer: B
Q3) Lactic acid is a common product of actively working muscle. It is transported via the bloodstream to the liver. What percent of lactic acid is ionized in the bloodstream if the pH is 7.40 and the pK<sub>a</sub> is 3.86?
Answer: 99.97% (100% using correct SF) 11ea7cd4_c4a8_33b5_a2ab_b57cb5e7ed82_TB2679_00
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Q1) Which of the following reactions, if coupled to the reduction of \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate, would give the most exergonic overall reaction? \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate + CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\rarr\) isocitrate (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = - 0.38 V)
A)ubiquinol \(\rarr\) ubiquinone + 2H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = - 0.04 V)
B)FADH<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) FAD + 2H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = + 0.22 V)
C)NADH \(\rarr\) NAD<sup>+</sup> + H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = + 0.32 V)
D)H<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\)2H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = + 0.42 V)
E)pyruvate + CoA \(\rarr\) acetyl CoA + CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> (E<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = + 0.48 V)
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Show the typical hydrogen bonds that from when adenine pairs with its complimentary base.
Q2) Which of the following is a major difference between B-DNA and A-DNA?
A)B-DNA has a right-handed helix, A-DNA has a left-handed helix
B)B-DNA has 10 residues per helix turn while A-DNA has 9
C)B-DNA base pairs are stacked almost parallel to one another while A-DNA base pairs are significantly tilted with respect to each other
D)the major groove of A-DNA is much larger than that in B-DNA
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following techniques was used to determine the double helical structure of DNA?
A)NMR spectroscopy
B)X-ray diffraction
C)Raman spectroscopy
D)UV/Vis spectroscopy
E)IR spectroscopy
Q4) Draw the two forms of a phosphodiester bond that can occur under physiological pH. If the pK<sub>a</sub> for this conversion is 6.2, what form predominates in the lysosome where the pH is about 5?
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of Protein Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the following peptide, what pair of protease enzymes would be able to produce three smaller peptides?
Gly-Ser-Ala-His-Phe-Pro-Asn-Ala-Val-Glu-Cys-Ala-Ser
A)chymotrypsin and thrombin
B)trypsin and chymotrypsin
C)thermolysin and chymotrypsin
D)trypsin and thermolysin
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following undergoes an oxidation reaction to form a disulfide bond?
A)serine
B)cysteine
C)methionine
D)threonine
E)tyrosine
Q3) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu
Q4) Hydrolysis of a peptide bond produces:
A)an alcohol and an amine
B)an amine and a carboxylic acid
C)a carboxylic acid and an anhydride
D)an amide and a carboxylic acid
E)an alcohol and an amide
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of interaction occurs between the \(\beta\)-sheets of fibroin?
A)charge-dipole interaction
B)dipole-dipole interaction
C)dipole-induced dipole interaction
D)van der Waals interaction
E)hydrogen bonding
Q2) In an \(\alpha\)-helix, a hydrogen bond is formed between the carbonyl oxygen of the i<sup>th</sup> residue and the amide hydrogen _____ residues away
A)i + 1
B)i + 2
C)i + 3
D)i + 4
E)i + 5
Q3) Which of the following would contribute to tertiary structure?
A)charge-charge interaction between lysine and aspartic acid
B)disulfide bond
C)hydrogen bond between serine hydroxyl group and amide of glutamine
D)hydrophobic interaction between leucine and valine
E)all of the above
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the effectors of hemoglobin-oxygen binding?
A)an increase in blood pH will cause hemoglobin to bind more tightly to oxygen
B)increased CO<sub>2</sub> from increased muscle activity will result in an increase in the R state of hemoglobin
C)increased Cl<sup>-</sup> will cause the formation of a salt bridge between two Lys residues, one on an \(\alpha\) subunit, the other on a \(\beta\) subunit
D)the binding site of 2,3-BPG contains several Asp and Glu residues which are repelled by the similar charge, pushing the two \(\beta\) subunits away from each other E)all of the above
Q2) In sickle cell hemoglobin, a Glu is mutated to a _______. This causes the formation of _______ between hemoglobin molecules, ultimately forming large aggregates.
A)Arg; salt bridges
B)Cys; disulfide bonds
C)Val; hydrophobic interactions
D)Pro; disrupted \(\alpha\)-helix, resulting in several H-bonds and salt bridges
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Q1) Under typical conditions within a muscle cell, the \(\Delta\)G for hydrolysis of ATP is about -51 kJ/mol. If the energy required to move through one power stroke is 1.2 * 10<sup>-20</sup> J, what is the percent utilization of the energy from ATP hydrolysis?
Q2) Which of the following motor proteins is correctly paired with its primary function?
A)myosin V: muscle contraction
B)myosin II: cargo transport
C)cytoplasmic dynein: bending of cilia or flagella
D)axonemal dynein: cargo transport
E)none of the above
Q3) Which protein of the thin filament is responsible for calcium binding?
A)tropomyosin
B)troponin C
C)troponin T
D)calmodulin
E)actin
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Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars, Saccharides, Glycans
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Q1) The two most common amino sugars, \(\beta\)-D-glucosamine and \(\beta\)-D-galactosamine are formed from their respective carbohydrates by substitution of an amine group for the hydroxyl on carbon _____.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)6
Q2) Antibiotic inhibition of cell wall synthesis can be facilitated by a number of agents. The crosslinking of peptidoglycan strands is inhibited by _________ while polymerization of the growing peptidoglycan is inhibited by __________.
A)penicillin; bacitracin
B)penicillin; vancomycin
C)vancomycin; bacitracin
D)vancomycin; penicillin
E)bacitracin; vancomycin
Q3) Show the interaction that would take place between the R-group of asparagine in a protein and the substituent on C-2 of an N-acetylglucosamine residue of a glycan.
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11
Chapter 10: Lipids, Membranes and Cellular Transport
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Q1) Fatty acids are _______ meaning that they have both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic region of the molecule
A)aliphatic
B)amphipathic
C)saturated
D)unsaturated
E)phosphorylated
Q2) Which of the following does not specifically cause a membrane to be more rigid or fluid, but rather causes the T<sub>m</sub> to occur over a greater range?
A)increasing the content of unsaturated fatty acids
B)raising the temperature
C)increasing the cholesterol content
D)decreasing the phosphatidylcholine content while increasing the phosphatidylethanolamine content
E)all of the above
Q3) Draw a molecule of phosphatidylserine with palmitic acid (16:0)and oleic acid (18:1c\(\Delta\)9)present. Make sure to put the saturated and unsaturated fatty acids in their proper location.
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Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Q1) What term describes an inactive precursor of an enzyme such as the precursors to protease enzymes produced by the pancreas?
A)allosteric enzyme
B)zymogen
C)isozyme
D)ribozyme
E)hydrolase
Q2) In noncompetitive inhibition, which of the following best explains how the inhibitor binds to the enzyme?
A)the inhibitor binds to the active site only after the substrate binds
B)the inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site only before the substrate binds
C)the inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site only after the substrate binds
D)the inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site either before or after the substrate binds
E)none of the above
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13
Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Q1) The glycolytic reaction fructose-6-phosphate + ATP \(\rarr\) fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + ADP
Has an ATP-coupling coefficient of _____ while the gluconeogenic reaction Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) fructose-6-phosphate + P<sub>i</sub>
Has an ATP-coupling coefficient of _____.
A)1; 0
B)-1; 0
C)1; -1
D)-1; 1
E)none of the above
Q2) Molecules that are produced inside a cell in response to a hormone binding to its receptor are called _________.
A)internal messengers
B)second messengers
C)secondary messengers
D)intracellular messengers
E)transduction messengers
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14
Chapter 13: Carbohydrate Metabolism: Glycolysis,
Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose
Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) The oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway has _____ oxidation reactions, effectively oxidizing an ___________ to ____________.
A)2; alcohol; a carboxylic acid
B)2; aldehyde; a carboxylic acid
C)2; aldehyde; carbon dioxide
D)3; alcohol; a carboxylic acid
E)3; alcohol; carbon dioxide
Q2) Which isoform of hexokinase is found in the vertebrate liver?
A)hexokinase I
B)hexokinase II
C)hexokinase III
D)hexokinase IV
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is the fate of pyruvate in a blood cell?
A)acetyl CoA
B)carbon dioxide
C)lactate
D)ethanol
E)none of the above
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Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) The oxidation reactions that convert pyruvate to CO<sub>2</sub> are specifically catalyzed by ______ enzymes.
A)oxygenase
B)oxidase
C)decarboxylase
D)dehydrogenase
E)none of the above
Q2) In the citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA reacts with ________ to produce _________.
A)fumarate; \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
B)oxaloacetate; citrate
C)citrate; isocitrate
D)succinyl-CoA; oxaloacetate
E)malate; cis-aconitate
Q3) __________ activates __________, thereby inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase.
A)NADH; pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
B)Ca<sup>2+</sup>; pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>; pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
D)ATP; pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
E)pyruvate; pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Electron Transport, Oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) A(n)_______ incorporates oxygen from O<sub>2</sub> into its products while a(n)_______ uses another oxidizing agent to accomplish the oxidation of its substrate.
A)oxidase; dioxygenase
B)dehydrogenase; oxygenase
C)oxygenase; oxidase
D)dehydrogenase; oxidase
E)dioxygenase; oxygenase
Q2) The presence of 10 copies of the c subunit of the F<sub>0</sub> complex of yeast ATP synthase allows for the synthesis of 1 ATP for every ______ proton(s)that are translocated across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
A)10
B)4
C)3.3
D)2.5
E)1
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The energy available from the protonmotive force across the thylakoid membrane is about 20 kJ/mol of protons. How much energy per mole of photons absorbed by the two photosystems does this equal?
A)13 kJ/mol
B)30 kJ/mol
C)40 kJ/mol
D)60 kJ/mol
E)none of the above
Q2) For every 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate produced by rubisco, _____ are converted to hexoses while _____ are recycled to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.
A)2; 10
B)4; 8
C)6; 6
D)8; 4
E)10; 2
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18
Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty Acids, Triacylglycerols, and Lipoproteins
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Q1) The first three reactions of \(\beta\)-oxidation are analogous to which of the following reaction sequences of the citric acid cycle?
A)aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
B)isocitrate dehydrogenase, \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase
C)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase
D)succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, malate dehydrogenase
E)fumarase, malate dehydrogenase, citrate synthase
Q2) Which of the following enzymes of fatty acid synthesis is most analogous to thiolase when considering that fatty acid synthesis is analogous to a reversal of \(\beta\)-oxidation?
A)\(\beta\)-ketoacyl-ACP synthase
B)\(\beta\)-ketoacyl-ACP reductase
C)3-hydroxyacyl-ACP dehydratase
D)enoyl-ACP reductase
E)thioesterase
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following pathways is activated in response to phosphorylation of key enzymes by AMPK?
A)glycogenolysis in the heart
B)glycolysis in the heart
C)gluconeogenesis in the liver
D)fatty acid synthesis in the liver
E)triacylglycerol synthesis in the liver
Q2) What is the general reaction type catalyzed by most of the sirtuins?
A)deadenylation
B)deacetylation
C)dehydrogenation
D)deamination
E)dehydration
Q3) Which of the following transporters is only present on the surface of muscle cells following insulin binding?
A)GLUT1
B)GLUT2
C)GLUT3
D)GLUT4
E)GLUT5
20
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Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, Steroids,
Isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids
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Q1) The synthesis of 1 molecule of cholesterol requires _____ molecules of isopentenyl pyrophosphate, with each molecule of isopentenyl pyrophosphate requiring _____ molecules of acetyl-CoA.
A)4; 2
B)5; 2
C)6; 2
D)5; 3
E)6; 3
Q2) Which of the following amino acids is critical for choline and phosphatidylcholine synthesis?
A)serine
B)\(\beta\)-alanine
C)homocysteine
D)methionine
E)homoserine
Q3) Show the reaction catalyzed by 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutrayl-CoA reductase.
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21
Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, Utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes of ammonia incorporation is the most highly regulated?
A)glutamate dehydrogenase
B)glutamate synthetase
C)glutamine synthetase
D)glutamine synthase
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents a correct flow of electrons for nitrogen fixation?
A)ferredoxin \(\rarr\) Fe protein \(\rarr\)MoFe protein \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>
B)Fe protein \(\rarr\) MoFe protein \(\rarr\) ferredoxin \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>
C)MoFe protein \(\rarr\) Fe protein \(\rarr\) ferredoxin \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>
D)ferredoxin \(\rarr\)MoFe protein \(\rarr\) Fe protein \(\rarr\) N<sub>2</sub>
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is seen in the transaminase mechanism?
A)aldimine formed between pyridoxal and lysine residue
B)Schiff base
C)pyridoxamine phosphate that reacts only with an \(\alpha\)-ketoacid
D)a carbanion that is resonance stabilized as a quinonoid intermediate
E)all of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds II:
Amino Acids, Porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) One route for tryptophan degradation leads to the coenzyme _____________.
A)pyridoxal phosphate
B)FAD
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>
D)tetrahydrobiopterin
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a role of spermine and spermidine, the polyamines derived from glutamate?
A)stabilization of tRNA duplex structure
B)neutralization of DNA negative charge
C)stabilization of double stranded DNA
D)stabilization of bacterial membranes
E)all of the above
Q3) Which pair of amino acids can be degraded to oxaloacetate and \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate, respectively?
A)aspartate, alanine
B)asparagine, histidine
C)histidine, serine
D)proline, arginine
E)threonine, glutamine
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which enzyme of the pyrimidine synthesis pathway is the most highly regulated?
A)carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
B)aspartate transcarbamoylase
C)orotate phosphoribosyltransferase
D)UMP kinase
E)nucleoside diphosphate kinase
Q2) While endonucleases cleave nucleic acids into smaller oligonucleotides, __________ are responsible for cleaving the oligonucleotides into nucleotides.
A)phosphodiesterases
B)nucleotidase
C)nucleoside kinases
D)phosphorylases
E)phosphoribosyl transferases
Q3) Which of the following describes the coenzyme involved with thymidylate synthase?
A)5-methyl-THF serves as the methyl donor
B)10-methyl-THF serves as the methyl donor
C)5,10-methylene-THF serves as both methylene donor and reducing agent
D)5,10-methenyl-THF serves as both methylene donor and reducing agent
E)S-adenosylmethionine serves as the methyl donor
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) Insulin activates glycogen synthase while glucagon inhibits glycogen synthase. Explain the intracellular mechanisms that are used to bring about this activity.
Q2) Inside a cell, glucagon ultimately results in the phosphorylation of a wide variety of enzymes to control their activity. For each of the following enzymes that is phosphorylated in response to glucagon binding, explain what happens to its activity and why that is important (considering the pathway that the enzyme is in and the overall goal of glucagon).
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase:
Pyruvate kinase:
Glycogen phosphorylase: Phosphofructokinase-2:
Q3) Which of the following hormones binds to a receptor tyrosine kinase?
A)thyroxine
B)epinephrine
C)epidermal growth factor
D)glucagon
E)cortisol
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Chapter 24: Genes, Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) The combination of histone proteins with DNA gives rise to what structure?
A)cohesins
B)telomeres
C)centromeres
D)nuclear scaffold
E)nucleosomes
Q2) In the event of DNA damage during mitosis, p53 is phosphorylated and prevents mitosis from continuing until the damage is corrected. If the damage cannot be corrected, what happens?
A)cell returns to G1 and mitosis stops with excess DNA being degraded
B)cell repeats S phase
C)cell repeats G2 phase
D)cell proceeds through mitotic division and the daughter cell with the damaged DNA is destroyed
E)apoptosis
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26
Chapter 25: DNA Replication
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Q1) How does the gp32 protein facilitate both stabilization of single-stranded DNA as well as its renaturation to double-stranded DNA?
A)gp32 is an enzyme and thus its reaction of separating DNA strands is freely reversible
B)gp32 binds only to regions of high A and T content so hydrogen bonding is reversible
C)gp32 displays cooperativity in binding to single stranded DNA
D)the gp32 C-terminal domain acts as a switch between weak and strong single stranded DNA binding
E)none of the above
Q2) In a type I topoisomerase, the active site amino acid _________ is covalently bound to the free _______ end of the cut in the DNA.
A)serine; 3'
B)serine; 5'
C)tyrosine; 3'
D)tyrosine; 5'
E)none of the above
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Chapter 26: DNA Restructuring: Repair, Recombination, Rearrangement, Amplification
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Q1) Which of the following coenzymes forms the photochemical reaction center of DNA photolyase?
A)NADH
B)thiamine pyrophosphate
C)biotin
D)FADH<sup>-</sup>
E)5-methyltetrahydrofolate
Q2) What is the causative agent in the formation of a cyclobutane thymine dimer?
A)benzo[a]pyrene
B)N-methyl-N'nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine
C)methylnitrosourea
D)ethylmethanesulfonate
E)ultraviolet radiation
Q3) The introduction of DNA into a bacterial cell by first packaging the DNA into a phage particle is referred to as _____________.
A)transduction
B)transformation
C)transposition
D)conjugation
E)illegitimate recombination
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rapid transcription of ribosomal RNA is thought to occur as a result of what unique feature in the DNA that encodes these genes?
A)high A-T content
B)highly repetitive sequence
C)multiple promoter sites that allow high affinity with RNA polymerase
D)presence of hairpin structures in the DNA
E)absence of nucleosomes
Q2) What type of enzyme activity is associated with the termination factor \(\rho\)?
A)topoisomerase
B)endonuclease
C)exonuclease
D)helicase
E)ligase
Q3) Which of the following events commonly occur in the processing of eukaryotic mRNA?
A)addition of a 5' cap
B)RNA editing
C)splicing to remove introns
D)alternative splicing to combine different exons into mature mRNA
E)all of the above
29
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the bases present on the ribosome participates in the peptidyltransferase reaction? A)A B)C C)G
D)T
E)U
Q2) Translate the following mRNA into a peptide using the standard genetic code: 5'-AUGCGGAUCCAUGUACAACUGGACGCAGUACCGUAACGCGAU-3'
Q3) Which position of the anticodon is called the wobble base and with which base of the codon does it pair?
A)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon
B)the 3' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon
C)the middle anticodon base which pairs with the middle base of the codon
D)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the first base of the codon
E)the 5' anticodon base which pairs with the last base of the codon
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) If both lactose and glucose are present in large amounts, which of the following scenarios would result?
A)lac repressor bound to promoter, CRP bound to promoter, no lac operon transcription
B)lac repressor bound to inducer, CRP bound to promoter, no lac operon transcription
C)lac repressor bound to inducer, CRP bound to promoter, lac operon transcribed
D)lac repressor bound to inducer, CRP not bound, no lac operon transcription
E)lac repressor bound to inducer, CRP not bound, lac operon transcribed
Q2) Lysine methylation in a histone protein produces a form of chromatin known as ________ with the genes being transcriptionally __________.
A)euchromatin; active
B)euchromatin; inactive
C)heterochromatin; active
D)heterochromatin; inactive
E)none of the above
Q3) Show how glutamine interacts with an A-T base pair as seen in the cI and Cro repressors.
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