Biochemistry Exam Review
Course Introduction
Biochemistry is an interdisciplinary course that explores the chemical foundations of living organisms by examining the structure, function, and interactions of biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. Emphasizing molecular mechanisms underlying cellular processes, the course covers topics including enzyme catalysis, metabolism, bioenergetics, and the regulation of metabolic pathways. Through lectures, laboratory work, and problem-solving exercises, students develop an understanding of how biochemical principles underpin life processes, preparing them for advanced study or careers in biological, medical, and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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26 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not common to all cells?
A)ribosomes
B)plasma membrane
C)nucleus
D)cytosol
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are eukaryotes,except .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)fungi
Answer: B
Q3) Cells that do not have a nucleus are .
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)not alive
D)animal cells
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homologous chromosomes contain the same genes for the same traits at the same loci.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Sex-linked genes only affect male carriers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which statement is false?
A)Individuals who are heterozygous for a defective gene are carriers of the defective allele.
B)Heterozygous individuals have the genetic disorder.
C)Heterozygotes have two different alleles for the same trait.
D)All of the above are false.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The monomers building blocks)of nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA are
A)amino acids
B)monosaccharides
C)fatty acids
D)nucleotides
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not correctly paired?
A)adenine:thymine
B)guanine:cytosine
C)adenine:uracil
D)guanine:adenine
Answer: D
Q3) In DNA,thymine base pairs with .
A)adenine
B)guanine
C)uracil
D)cytosine
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large amount of satellite DNA is found .
A)in euchromatin
B)around the centromeres of chromosomes
C)in loosely packed forms of chromatin
D)in Alu elements.
Q2) The melting temperature of DNA is the temperature at which .
A)half of the two strands are separated.
B)the two DNA strands are completely separated.
C)the DNA is completely degraded.
D)half of the DNA is degraded.
Q3) Homologous chromosomes .
A)are the same length
B)have the same genes at the same loci
C)pair up during cell division
D)are all of the above.
Q4) All of the following describe Z-DNA except .
A)left-handed helix
B)12 base pairs per turn
C)acid conditions
D)GC- or GT-rich tracts
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Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fragments of DNA would migrate closest to the wells during agarose gel electrophoresis?
A)1000 bp
B)150 bp
C)10,000 bp
D)650 bp
Q2) By what technique can individual DNA molecules be visualized?
A)electron microscopy and metal shadowing
B)light microscopy only
C)agarose gel electrophoresis
D)Northern blot
Q3) What types of labels are added to probes to enable detection during hybridization experiments?
A)fluorescence
B)chemical
C)radioactive
D)all of the above
Q4) FISH allows DNA or RNA to be visualized in its natural location.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In real time PCR,the presence of double-stranded DNA is detected by
A)fluorescence of SYBR Green
B)luminescence of SYBER Green
C)quenching of SYBR Green fluorescence
D)rapid decrease in the amount of SYBR Green fluorescence
Q2) In addition to DNA polymerase,a PCR reaction mixture contains all of the following except .
A)Buffer
B)Primers
C)Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
D)Ligase
Q3) Why is Escherichia coli DNA polymerase not very useful for PCR?
A)E.coli DNA polymerase cannot proofread during replication.
B)E.coli DNA polymerase only amplifies circular DNA.
C)E.coli DNA polymerase is heat labile.
D)E.coli DNA polymerase is too slow.
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Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collection of cloned DNA fragments is called a .
A)consortium
B)chromosomal database
C)chromosome library
D)gene library
Q2) The enzyme that links the ends of two DNA molecules is called .
A)reverse transcriptase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA ligase
D)DNA helicase
Q3) Why must a shuttle vector possess two origins of replication instead of one?
A)Shuttle vectors must replicate in multiple hosts with each host requiring a different origin.
B)Shuttle vectors must be able to replicate from two different origins of replication depending upon the specific growth conditions.
C)Shuttle vectors only have one origin of replication,not two.
D)Shuttle vectors use one origin for replication and the other origin for shuttling recombinant DNA into new hosts.
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9
Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA chip technology relies on the hybridization of .
A)DNA to DNA
B)DNA to RNA
C)RNA to DNA
D)RNA to RNA
Q2) Nanopore detectors contain pores that only allow to pass through.
A)hydrogen ions
B)single-stranded DNA
C)double-stranded DNA
D)dideoxy nucleotides
Q3) When DNA polymerase inserts a dideoxy nucleotide, .
A)chain elongation continues until the end of the template
B)energy is produced during the reaction
C)chain elongation is terminated
D)a primer is formed for the next round of sequencing
Q4) DNA moves across nanopore detectors because .
A)an electrical charge is applied
B)there is a high concentration of salt on one side of the channel
C)there is a difference in pH across the membrane
D)it is physically pulled across by enzymes
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following makes up more percentage of the human genome than the others listed in the answer choices?
A)protein coding genes
B)LINEs
C)heterochromatin
D)introns
Q2) Correlating individual genotypes with drug treatment is called .
A)genomics
B)pharmacogenetics
C)pharming
D)pharmacogenomics
Q3) Genes in the family are of particular interest due to their pharmaceuticals.
A)cytochrome P450
B)CYP2D6
C)Glutathione S-transferease
D)SNP
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11
Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Q1) All DNA replication results in two copies of double-stranded DNA,each copy having a parent strand and a newly synthesized strand.This is referred to as .
A)semi-conservative replication
B)conservative replication
C)antiparallelism
D)complementarity
Q2) The process of does not use mitosis.
A)gamete formation
B)embryogenesis
C)asexual reproduction
D)tissue repair/wound healing
Q3) Origins are replication are .
A)GC-rich
B)AT-rich
C)runs of adenine residues
D)heavily methylated
Q4) DNA is duplicated during mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcribe the following sequence of DNA located on the coding strand:
5'-ACGGTACATT-3'
A)5'-ACGGUACAUU-3'
B)3'-ACGGUACAUU-5'
C)5'-UGCCAUGUAA-3'
D)3'-UGCCAUGUAA-5'
Q2) Which statement about Rho protein is true?
A)Rho helps separate RNA polymerase from the DNA.
B)Rho protein is involved in Rho-dependent transcriptional termination.
C)Rho protein is frequently found in bacteriophages.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The is the site on the DNA where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.
A)promoter
B)enhancer
C)5' UTR
D)origin
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13
Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which modified nucleotide base is part of the 5' cap on eukaryotic mRNAs?
A)cytosine
B)guanine
C)adenine
D)uracil
Q2) In bacteria, is involved in processing tRNAs.
A)ribonuclease P
B)ribonuclease H
C)ribonuclease D
D)ribonuclease E/F
Q3) RNA processing includes .
A)base modification
B)intron removal and exon splicing
C)addition of extra bases
D)all of the above
Q4) Primary transcripts are in the final form for translation into protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Translation occurs in the of eukaryotes.
A)cytoplasm
B)nucleus
C)lysosomes
D)Golgi complexes
Q2) Which of the following is not associated with tRNA?
A)transfer of amino acids
B)anticodon loop
C)cloverleaf appearance
D)type of RNA translated into protein
Q3) Which types of RNA are never translated?
A)tRNA and rRNA
B)mRNA only
C)tRNA and mRNA
D)all types of RNA are translated
Q4) Release factors .
A)help terminate transcription
B)help terminate translation
C)help the ribosome to release uncharged tRNA molecules
D)help the ribosome release the amino acids on the charged tRNAs
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quarternary structure results when a single polypeptide chain folds into multiple domains.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The binding of a regulatory molecule to an allosteric site on a protein that results in the inhibition of the protein is an example of .
A)non-competitive inhibition
B)allosteric activation
C)competitive inhibition
D)positive regulation
Q3) Enzymes the activation energy of the reaction.
A)lower B)raise C)inhibit D)stabilize
Q4) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of proteins.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a virus displays multiple peptide sequences,this is termed .
A)phage array
B)yeast two hybrid system
C)phage display
D)protein microarray
Q2) How are proteins denatured in SDS-PAGE?
A)detergent and high temperature
B)high temperature only
C)acylamide
D)electrical charge
Q3) Why might proteins be tagged?
A)purification
B)identification
C)anchoring
D)all of the above
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17
Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are examples of transcriptional regulation in prokaryotes except
A)binding of a repressor to an operator
B)premature termination of RNA polymerase during transcription elongation
C)binding of cAMP-CRP complex to the lac operon of Escherichia coli
D)over-riding termination by anti-terminator proteins
Q2) Which of the following is an example of negative regulation?
A)A gene is switched on in the presence of an activator.
B)A gene is de-repressed.
C)A gene is induced.
D)A gene is switched off by a repressor protein.
Q3) Global regulators .
A)control large numbers of genes in response to a broad,general signals
B)control large numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
C)control small numbers of genes in response to broad,general signals
D)control small numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acetylated histones .
A)form highly condensed heterochromatin
B)are a target of proteases
C)never occurs
D)allow nucleosomes to be less aggregated
Q2) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Xist is .
A)a gene encoding an untranslated RNA involved in X-inactivation
B)the heterochromatin of inactivated X chromosomes
C)is a gene that is only found on active X chromosomes
D)helps inactivate the X chromosome of males
Q4) Housekeeping genes are always .
A)off until needed
B)on
C)induced
D)repressed
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) Attenuation of RNA involves the formation of alternate stem-loop structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) RNA interference is triggered by .
A)dsDNA
B)dsRNA
C)ssDNA
D)ssRNA
Q3) Which nuclease is responsible for generating siRNA?
A)Ribonuclease P
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)RISC
Q4) Riboswitches .
A)can bind small molecules
B)are useful in translational control
C)are found on the 5' end of the mRNA
D)are all of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) A specific mRNA may be detected using hybridization.
A)Southern
B)Western
C)Northern
D)Southwestern
Q2) How might the potential binding of a protein to a specific fragment of DNA be investigated?
A)primer extension
B)western blotting
C)gel mobility shift assays
D)isoelectric focusing
Q3) DNA microarrays are appropriate for investigating the expression of one or a few genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Q1) Bidirectional replication for F-plasmids occurs at the .
A)origin of vegetative replication
B)origin of transfer
C)origin of chromosomal replication
D)linear ends
Q2) Which family of plasmids carries genes for antibiotic resistance?
A)R-plasmids
B)F-plasmids
C)P-plasmids
D)X-plasmids
Q3) Plasmids in the same family are incompatible because .
A)they are transferable
B)they produce toxins
C)they carry genes for antibiotic resistance
D)they have similar DNA sequences in the replication genes
Q4) Plasmids are self-replicating extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enveloped viruses only infect .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)yeast
Q2) Viral protein coats are called .
A)capsomeres
B)envelopes
C)capsids
D)cloaks
Q3) Plaques are the result of .
A)bacteria infecting viruses
B)viruses infecting bacteria
C)viruses lysing bacteria
D)lysogens
Q4) The largest virus is .
A)herpesvirus
B)poxvirus
C)mimivirus
D)HIV
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Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) All transposons have all of the following characteristics except .
A)the gene for transposase
B)inverted repeats
C)resolvase
D)antibiotic resistance genes
Q2) Where might mobile DNA elements be found?
A)plasmids
B)chromosomes
C)viral genomes
D)all of the above
Q3) Conservative transposition .
A)generates a copy of the transposon
B)generates double-stranded breaks in the DNA
C)occurs only for RNA transposons
D)has no detrimental effects on the host genome.
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24
Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation has no effect on phenotype.
A)frameshift
B)deletion
C)silent
D)nonsense
Q2) In some repair mechanisms,the parental DNA strand is used as a guide for repairing mistakes made in the newly synthesized DNA strand.The cell is able to distinguish the parental strand from the new strand because immediately following replication,the DNA is .
A)fully methylated
B)still single-stranded
C)hemi-methylated
D)non-methylated
Q3) DNA polymerases often proofread their recently inserted nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mutations occur more frequently in hotspots.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in RAD genes cause .
A)recombination to occur randomly
B)radiation sensitivity
C)excessive recombination events during meiosis
D)a decline in gamete production
Q2) Site specific recombination only occurs for homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A heteroduplex is a double helix with two strands from different DNA or RNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
Q5) The Holliday junction only forms during excision.
A)True
B)False
26
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Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) DNA transfer that occurs via a virus is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q2) A prophage .
A)only occurs when a viral genome is integrated into the host genome
B)is replicated along with host cell DNA
C)occurs in the lysogenic life cycle of viruses.
D)all of the above
Q3) The mechanism of transfer of the F-plasmid in conjugation involves A)viruses
B)donor cell death
C)bidirectional replication
D)rolling circle replication
Q4) During conjugation,the entire double-stranded F-plasmid is transferred into the recipient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) Life likely evolved under . A)a reducing atmosphere
B)cold conditions
C)oxidizing conditions
D)dehydrating conditions
Q2) Which was likely the first molecule of life?
A)DNA
B)RNA
C)protein
D)lipids
Q3) The transfer of genetic information from one species to another species is called A)recombination
B)vertical gene transfer
C)horizontal gene transfer
D)conjugation
Q4) Gene duplication generates new genes with novel roles.
A)True
B)False
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