Biochemistry Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. This course explores the structure, function, and interactions of biological macromolecules such as proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids. Students will learn about enzyme mechanisms, metabolic pathways, bioenergetics, and the regulation of biochemical processes that are fundamental to life. The course integrates concepts from chemistry and biology to provide an understanding of cellular function at the molecular level, preparing students for advanced studies in health sciences, biotechnology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a major precursor for the formation of biomolecules?
A)nitrate
B)water
C)carbon dioxide
D)iron
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following arrays of filaments in eukaryotic cells give the cell its shape and its capacity to move?
A)Golgi body
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)cytoskeleton
D)lysosome
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a distinctive property of living systems?
A)Biological structures play a role in the organism's existence.
B)Living organisms are relatively simple.
C)The living state is characterized by the flow of glucose through the organism.
D)Living organisms are uncomplicated.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of water?
A)high surface tension
B)high dielectric constant
C)positive volume of melting
D)high capacity to form hydrogen bonds
Answer: C
Q2) How many hydrogen bonds can a single liquid water molecule make?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Answer: C
Q3) The pK s of phosphoric acid are 2.1,7.2,and 12.Which of the following ionic form(s)of phosphoric acid is/are present at pH 7.0?
A)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>-2</sup>
B)H PO<sub>4-</sub>
C)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>-2</sup> and PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-3</sup>
D)H PO<sub>4-</sub> and HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>-2</sup>
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) Which thermodynamic property of a biochemical process is measured by calorimetry?
A)heat absorbed or given off,?H
B)overall change in ?G°
C)entropy change,?S
D)volume change,?V
Answer: A
Q2) Which equation defines a system at equilibrium?
A) G > 0
B) G° = G
C) G = 0
D) G° = 0
E) G = RT ln ([products]/[reactants])
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a feature of thermodynamics?
A)It describes the flow and interchange of heat,energy,and matter.
B)It allows the determination of whether a reaction is spontaneous.
C)It provides information on the rate of a reaction.
D)It considers heat flow and entropy production.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of stereoisomers?
A)A diastereomer is a non-superimposable mirror image.
B)An enantiomer is a superimposable mirror image.
C)Diastereomers rotate plane-polarized light in equal magnitude but opposite directions.
D)Diastereomers have different melting points
Q2) Which of the following amino acid derivatives is correctly derived from its corresponding commonly occurring amino acid?
A)GABA is a neurotransmitter derived from aspartic acid.
B)Histamine is a neurotransmitter derived from proline.
C)Epinephrine is a hormone derived from tyrosine.
D)Serotonin is a neurotransmitter derived from phenylalanine.
Q3) What type of thermodynamic reaction must be coupled to peptide bond formation in biological systems?
A)adverse
B)compatible
C)reverse
D)favourable
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological Functions
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Q1) Which of the following amino acid residues is destroyed by acid hydrolysis and must be estimated by other means?
A)tyrosine
B)tryptophan
C)valine
D)isoleucine
Q2) Which level of structural organization best describes the amino acid sequence of a protein?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q3) Which of the following protein terms describes the lac repressor?
A)regulatory
B)transport
C)storage
D)structural
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which of these characteristics does NOT apply to a-keratin?
A)primary component in hair,claws,fingernails,and horns of animals
B)consists of 4 helical strands arranged as twisted pairs of 2-stranded coiled coils
C)has associated hydrophobic strips on the 2 coiled coils
D)principal constituent of connective tissues in animals
Q2) Polylysine is a random coil when the pH is less than 11,while it forms an a-helix if the pH is raised to greater than 12.What happens at pH 12 to account for this?
A)The lysine residues are negatively charged,which electrostatically stabilizes the helix.
B)The positive charges on the lysine residues stabilize the a-helix.
C)The lysine residues are neutral,which eliminates electrostatic repulsion between the R groups.
D)The high concentration of OH ions in solution reduces the electrostatic repulsion between the R groups.
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8
Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Neither -amylase nor -amylase can cleave the (1 6)glycosidic bonds of amylopectin.Which of the following enzymes is required to completely hydrolyze starch?
A) (1 6)-glucosidase
B)glycogen phosphorylase
C)maltase
D)sucrase
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to a cyclic hemiacetal with a 6-membered,oxygen-containing ring?
A)aldehyde
B)pyranose
C)ketopentose
D)furanose
Q3) Which of the following terms classifies the enzyme cellulase?
A) (1 4)glucosidase
B) (1 4)glucosidase
C) (1 6)glucosidase
D) (1 6)glucosidase
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are lipids the biomolecules of choice for storage of metabolic energy?
A)They are soluble in water.
B)They yield a large amount of energy upon oxidation.
C)They are highly oxidized.
D)They are easily hydrolyzed and therefore offer quick energy yield.
Q2) Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A)progesterone
B)dolichol
C)epinephrine
D)histamine
Q3) Which of the following diets should be used to reduce coronary heart disease?
A)low in trans-fatty acids and low in saturated fatty acids
B)low in trans-fatty acids and high in saturated fatty acids
C)high in trans-fatty acids and high in saturated fatty acids
D)high in trans-fatty acids and low in saturated fatty acids
Q4) Which of the following fatty acids are essential for human diets?
A)\(\gamma\)-linolenic and oleic acids
B)oleic and linoleic acids
C)palmitic and oleic acids
D)linoleic and \(\gamma\)-linolenic acids
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) What are the coenzymes of acetyl-CoA carboxylase?
A)biotin and ATP
B)pyridoxal phosphate and TPP
C)NADH and FAD
D)TPP and folic acid
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of fatty acid synthase?
A)It occurs in cytosol.
B)All the enzymes are on separate polypeptides.
C)It has acyl carrier protein-linked intermediates.
D)It uses NADPH for oxidoreductase reactions.
Q3) Which enzyme catalyzes the following reaction?
Citrate + ATP + CoA acetyl-CoA + OAA + ADP + P
A)malate dehydrogenase
B)citrate synthase
C)pyruvate carboxylase
D)ATP-citrate lyase
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) How do micelles differ from lipid bilayers?
A)They are self-limiting structures.
B)They form spontaneously.
C)They are stable in aqueous solution.
D)They often transform into vesicles.
Q2) Which of the following is correct regarding the phase transitions of lipid bilayers?
A)Solutes interacting with membrane lipids affect transition temperatures.
B)The transitions are exothermic.
C)Pure phospholipid bilayers have wide transition ranges.
D)Functional group changes usually are associated with phase transitions.
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms associates the Ras proteins to the membrane?
A)thioester-linked fatty acyl anchor
B)thioether-linked prenyl anchor
C)carboxy-terminal ester-linked prenyl anchor
D)insertion of a portion of an amphipathic helix into the membrane
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Which of the following regarding hormones is correct?
A)Progesterone is a polypeptide hormone.
B)Epinephrine is an amino acid.
C)Steroid hormones can enter cells and regulate translation.
D)Insulin is a polypeptide hormone.
Q2) Which of the following molecule(s)is increased in the brain as a result of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor acting as an antidepressant?
A)insulin
B)tricyclics
C)catecholamine
D)tubulin
Q3) Lithium salts have been used for years for the treatment of manic depression.Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for Li ?
A)It alters the conformation of a number of plasma protein receptors.
B)It increases the GTPase activity of G proteins.
C)It inhibits a number of enzymes in phosphoinositide metabolism.
D)It inhibits Ca² release from cytoplasmic organelles.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding competitive inhibition?
A)For a group-specific enzyme,one substrate would be a competitive inhibitor of reactions of the other possible substrate.
B)Sometimes a product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is a competitive inhibitor of its own production.
C)Competitive inhibitors usually interact with the enzyme at the binding site for a substrate.
D)In the presence of a competitive inhibitor,the apparent Km would be altered and V<sub>max</sub> would be decreased.
Q2) Which of these antibiotics acts by forming a covalent derivative of the enzyme glycoprotein peptidase?
A)antimycin
B)neomycin
C)oligomycin
D)penicillin
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Where is the initial bond formation located in the covalent intermediate in the chymotrypsin-catalyzed reaction?
A)between serine and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
B)between nitrogen and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
C)between histidine and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
D)between aspartate and the carbonyl carbon in the peptide backbone
Q2) The catalytic triad common to many serine proteases involves shuttling of protons between the amino acids in the catalytic triad.Which of the following amino acid sequences is in the correct order for this process?
A)Ser-His-Asp
B)His-Ser-Asp
C)Ser-His-His
D)Asp-His-Ser
Q3) Aspartate proteases display a variety of substrate specificities.Which of the following peptide bonds,however,do they most actively cleave?
A)those on the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids
B)those on the amino side of aromatic amino acids
C)those between 2 small,neutral residues
D)those between 2 hydrophobic amino acid residues
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following effects does the presence of a negative allosteric effector have on an allosteric protein?
A)causes a shift to the left in the sigmoidal curve
B)increases the number of R conformations
C)decreases the cooperativity of the substrate
D)raises the apparent value of the equilibrium constant,L
Q2) Which of the following competes with CoA-SH for binding to E PDH?
A)acetyl-CoA
B)NAD
C)NADH
D)ATP
Q3) Which of the following terms describes the regulation of metabolism by activation of the gene encoding a particular enzyme?
A)covalent modification
B)repression
C)induction
D)allosteric activation
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Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) In E.coli,which action powers the rotation of the flagella?
A)the hydrolysis of GTP by the flagella
B)phosphorylation of the motB protein by phosphoenolpyruvate
C)the hydrolysis of ATP by the motB protein
D)a proton gradient across the plasma membrane of the bacterium
Q2) Which of these actions is treadmilling,as carried out by microtubules?
A)ATP-hydrolysis-dependent movement over a plane
B)ATP-dependent addition of dimmers to the plus end
C)GTP-hydrolysis-dependent movement of -tubulin over -tubulin
D)GTP-dependent addition to the plus end and removal at the minus end
Q3) Which of the following does NOT occur during kinesin movement along a microtubule?
A)Leading head binds a new site on tubulin,with ADP dissociation.
B)The kinesin head with ADP is bound to tubulin,and the kinesin head with ATP is ready to move ahead.
C)Conformational changes in the neck linkers flip the trailing head to the next tubulin binding site.
D)ADP and Pi dissociate and ATP binds leading head.
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17
Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic difference between FAD and NAD ?
A)NAD is a stronger oxidizing agent than FAD.
B)NAD is reoxidized easily by molecular oxygen,while FAD is not.
C)NAD binds tightly to its enzyme,while FAD only binds loosely.
D)NAD transfers 2 electrons,while FAD can transfer 1 or 2.
Q2) Which of the following regarding metabolic pathways is correct?
A)Catabolic pathways are generally reductive,while anabolic pathways are generally oxidative.
B)Catabolic pathways use a wide variety of substrates to produce a small number of waste products.
C)An amphibolic pathway is extremely wasteful because it simultaneously operates as both an anabolic pathway and a catabolic pathway.
D)NAD is used as a reducing agent in catabolic pathways,while NADPH is used as an oxidizing agent in anabolic pathways.
Q3) Which of the following are the principal minerals in the human body?
A)iron and chloride
B)sodium and potassium
C)sulfur and phosphorus
D)calcium and phosphorus
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following substrate carbons is attacked by a cysteine -SH group during the reaction catalyzed by glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase,resulting in the formation of a hemithioacetal?
A)alpha
B)acidic
C)amino
D)carbonyl
Q2) How is lactose metabolized in lactase-deficient animals?
A)by intestinal enzymes
B)by intestinal bacteria
C)by intestinal viruses
D)by intestinal a-amylase
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)?
A)ATP increases the affinity of the enzyme for fructose-6-phosphate.
B)It is the most important regulatory site in glycolysis.
C)PFK-1 activity is a function of the lipid content of the cell.
D)ATP decreases the K<sub>m</sub> of PFK-1 for fructose-6-phosphate.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct for pyruvate carboxylase?
A)It carries out an anaplerotic reaction.
B)It resides in mitochondria of plants,but not animals.
C)It contains covalently bound biotin.
D)It has an absolute allosteric requirement for acetyl-CoA.
Q2) Which of the following is an essential feature of the glyoxylate cycle that is NOT associated with the TCA cycle?
A)It utilizes condensation of acetyl-CoA with succinate.
B)It can produce a net synthesis of 4-carbon units,which are TCA cycle intermediates,from acetyl-CoAs.
C)It occurs in chloroplasts.
D)Mammals use the glyoxylate cycle for gluconeogenesis.
Q3) Which is NOT a feature of citrate synthase?
A)It catalyzes the first reaction in the TCA cycle.
B)OAA and acetyl-CoA bind to the active sites.
C)The citrate synthase reaction liberates a relatively large amount of energy.
D)It is not regulated.
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is the source for the energy that drives ATP synthesis?
A)the proton gradient
B)NAD and FAD
C)the electron gradient
D)molecular oxygen
Q2) Which of the following statements is a characteristic of the glycerophosphate shuttle?
A)It shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 2.5 ATP/ADH.
B)It shuttles "NADH electron equivalents" across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 1.5 ATP/NADH.
C)It operates efficiently only when the [NADH] in the cytoplasm is higher than in the matrix.
D)The molecule malate is a key component in the shuttle process.
Q3) Which of the following complexes reduces molecular oxygen?
A)Complex I
B)Complex II
C)Complex III
D)Complex IV
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Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following essential enzymes in C-4 plants is used to conserve CO and avoid photophosphorylation?
A)rubisco
B)PEP carboxylase
C)aldolase
D)ribulose-5-phosphate kinase
Q2) Light-dependent electron flow with the production of ATP can occur without the formation of NADPH.Which of the following photosystems is involved in this cyclic photophosphorylation?
A)P700
B)photosystem II
C)P680
D)ferredoxin
Q3) Which of the following products is generated when light energy is transduced into chemical energy during photosynthesis?
A)CO
B)hexose
C)acetyl CoA
D)NADP+
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which glycolytic enzyme is analogous to the transaldolase-catalyzed activity?
A)aldolase
B)phosphoglucomutase
C)enolase
D)PFK-1
Q2) How many ATP and GTP combined are required in gluconeogenesis for 2 pyruvate glucose?
A)4
B)5
C)6
D)7
Q3) Which of the following results when glucagon binds to its receptor?
A)Glycolysis is activated.
B)Protein synthesis is activated.
C)Glycogen synthesis is inhibited.
D)The citric acid cycle is inhibited.
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23
Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Which of the following regarding methylmalonyl-CoA mutase is correct?
A)does hemolytic cleavage of C-C bond
B)is vitamin B -dependent
C)has classic B -enzyme catalyzed rearrangement
D)produces succinyl-CoA
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of chylomicrons?
A)They are formed in adipose tissue.
B)They contain more phospholipid than triacylglycerol molecules.
C)They transport dietary triacylglycerols through the bloodstream.
D)They are formed in and secreted by the liver.
Q3) How are ketone bodies transported to the tissues for utilization?
A)complexed to serum albumin
B)incorporated into VLDLs
C)complexed to fatty acid-binding protein
D)freely dissolved in serum
Q4) How many NADH are generated from the complete oxidation of palmitoyl-CoA to CO ?
A)21 by TCA plus 7 by -oxidation
B)24 by TCA plus 7 by -oxidation
C)24 by TCA plus 8 by -oxidation
D)28 by TCA plus 7 by -oxidation
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following describes the role ATP plays in the nitrogenase complex?
A)breaks the N triple bond
B)provides electrons
C)phosphorylates the enzyme
D)transfers electrons from ferredoxin
Q2) Which of the following amino acids is classified as an essential amino acid?
A)proline
B)valine
C)glutamine
D)aspartate
Q3) The structural difference between serine and homoserine is the same as the structural difference between cysteine and homocysteine.How are homoserine and homocysteine different from their commonly occurring amino acid partners?
A)1 additional -CH - group
B)1 additional -COOH group
C)1 additional -NH group
D)2 additional -NH groups
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of these regions are attached to hnRNAs and mRNAs after transcription has been completed,and are essential for efficient translation and stability of the mRNAs?
A)exons
B)poly(A)tails
C)introns
D)poly(U)tails
Q2) What type of bond links the nitrogenous base to the nucleotide sugar?
A) -anhydride
B) -N-amide
C) -N-acetyl (glycosidic)
D) -N-hemiacetal
Q3) Which of the following best describes cAMP and cGMP?
A)inhibitors
B)phosphomonoesters
C)phosphodiesters
D)nucleosides
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a property of nucleosomes?
A)protein spools neatly wrapped with DNA
B)fundamental structural unit in chromatin
C)protein spools made up of single histones H2A,H2B,H3,and H4 octameric aggregates
D)DNA binding of histones by ionic bonds of positively charged amino acids and the negatively charged phosphate groups
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the linking number?
A)It is a basic parameter characterizing supercoiled DNA.
B)L = T + W.
C)It is the number of times that 2 strands are intertwined,providing both strands remain covalently intact.
D)L = 40 in a relaxed circular DNA duplex of 400 bp.
Q3) Which of the following is the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is complementary to 5'-ATCGCAACTGTCACTA-3'?
A)5'-TAGCGTTGACAGTGAT-3'
B)5'-UAGUGACAGUUGCGAU-3'
C)5'-ATCACTGTCAACGCTA-3'
D)5'-TAGTGACAGTTGCGAT-3'
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the regulation of the purine biosynthetic pathway?
A)PRPP competitively inhibits the enzyme Gln:PRPP amidotransferase.
B)ADP and GDP are feedback inhibitors of ribose-5-phosphate pyrophosphokinase.
C)"A" and "C" nucleotides allosterically inhibit glutamine phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate amidotransferase (Gln:PRPP amidotransferase).
D)The rate of IMP formation is dependent on the levels of the adenine and guanine nucleotides produced.
Q2) Which of the following statements explains why sulfonamides are effective antibiotics?
A)They serve as analogs of p-aminobenzoic acid and block bacterial synthesis of folate.
B)They act as inhibitors of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase,thus preventing production of tetrahydrofolate.
C)They act as suicide substrates for the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase.
D)They do not affect humans because folate is a vitamin.
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Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) How does RNA interference function?
A)siRNA binds to genes and prevents transcription.
B)A single strand of the siRNA binds to the gene transcript,preventing translation.
C)The double-stranded siRNA binds to mRNA to prevent ribosomal association.
D)siRNA binds to RNA polymerase,preventing mRNA production.
Q2) In the Southern hybridization procedure,after electrophoresis the gel is treated with NaOH and then neutralized before blotting.What is the primary function of the alkaline treatment?
A)to cleave the DNA into smaller fragments to permit greater efficiency of transfer
B)to inactivate any restriction endonucleases that may be in the gel
C)to denature the duplex DNA to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA)
D)to neutralize any acidic phosphate groups that might prevent hybridization
Q3) How does RT-PCR differ from basic PCR?
A)Reverse temperatures are used for annealing and transcription.
B)Transcription is reversed from 5'- to 3'-ends.
C)Reverse transcriptase is used to synthesize a cDNA strand complementary to an RNA strand.
D)Reverse transcriptase is used to synthesize an RNA strand from the DNA strand.
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Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following protein kinases acts on the prereplication complex (pre-RC)to trigger DNA replication in eukaryotic cells?
A)ORC
B)MCM
C)cyclin B-CDK
D)PKA
Q2) Which of the following carries out removal of RNA primer,followed by replacement with DNA?
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA gyrase
C)DNA polymerase III
D)DNA ligase
Q3) Which of the following types of mutation causes misincorporation of all subsequent amino acids?
A)chemical
B)base shift
C)frameshift
D)transition
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of enhancer sequences in eukaryotic cells?
A)Enhancer function is dependent on recognition by a specific transcription factor.
B)They occur only upstream of the gene.
C)They can only be in one orientation.
D)Specific transcription factor binding at an enhancer inhibits transcription by reducting RNA polymerase II activity.
Q2) Which of the following is the structural motif found in a number of transcriptional factors that is not a DNA-binding domain,but rather is associated with protein-protein interactions?
A)a leucine zipper
B)a zinc finger
C)a helix-turn-helix
D)an enhancer element
Q3) Which of the following a feature of TATA boxes?
A)They are found outside the core sequence of a gene regulatory sequence.
B)They are found downstream of the gene being transcribed.
C)They reside in the enhancer regions.
D)They represent an area of DNA more easily opened than other areas.
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of these steps is required for termination of translation in prokaryotic cells?
A)displacement of EF-G by EF-Tu:aminoacyl-tRNA
B)ternary interaction of the release factor and the termination tRNA with the termination codon
C)interaction of release factors with the termination codon
D)release factor interaction with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence and subsequent dissociation of the 2 ribosomal subunits
Q2) Which inhibitor of protein synthesis competes with aminoacyl-tRNAs for binding to the A-site of the ribosome?
A)puromycin
B)erythromycin
C)cycloheximide
D)tetracycline
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ribosomes?
A)They are found in the endoplasmic reticulum of all cells.
B)Prokaryotic ribosomes consist of a 30S and a 50S subunit.
C)Ribosomes consist of both protein and ribonucleic acid.
D)The catalytic centre of the large subunit is a peptidyl transferase.
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following repeating nucleotide motifs are contained in AREs?
A)UAAAU
B)AUAUA
C)UAUAU
D)AUUUA
Q2) Which of the following is NOT stored in P-bodies?
A)CCR4-NOT
B)DCP1/DCP2
C)repressed mRNAs
D)AREs
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA inference (RNAi)?
A)It is conducted by non-coding RNA (miRNAs).
B)It is mediated by cis-acting,single-stranded RNA.
C)It is conserved in a few organisms.
D)It is no longer used for conducting biological research.
Q4) Which of the following techniques can be used to identify RBP-mRNA interactions?
A)SDS-PAGE
B)Southern blot analysis
C)RNA-EMSA
D)RT-PCR
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Q1) Which of the following are the primary driving forces for protein folding?
A)hydrogen bonds
B)van der Waals interactions
C)hydrophobic interactions
D)electrostatic interactions
Q2) Which of the following is the primary function of Met-aminopeptidase?
A)to cleave large inactive pro-proteins
B)to remove leader peptides after translocation
C)to remove invariable Met and introduce N-terminal diversity
D)to transfer a Met to the C-terminal end for translocation
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of Hsp90 chaperones?
A)They comprise more than 20% of total cytosolic proteins in eukaryotes.
B)Their action depends on cyclic binding and hydrolysis of GTP.
C)They direct proteins toward degradation pathways.
D)Their major purpose is conformational regulation of signal transduction molecules.
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Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of these enzymes catalyzes the reaction ATP + AMP 2 ADP?
A)adenylate phosphorylase
B)AMP-phosphotransferase
C)ADP mutase
D)adenylate kinase
Q2) What is the general order of available energy sources in muscles during strenuous exertion?
A)glycogen > ATP > glucose > fatty acids > phosphocreatine
B)ATP > phosphocreatine > glycogen >glucose > fatty acids
C)phosphocreatine > glucose > ATP > fatty acids > glycogen
D)fatty acids > phosphocreatine > ATP > glucose > glycogen
Q3) Under which of the following conditions are fatty acids released from adipocytes?
A)Insulin levels are high.
B)Glycerol-3-phosphate levels are high.
C)Adipose ATP levels are high.
D)Blood glucose levels are low.
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