Biochemical Techniques
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental techniques used in biochemistry laboratories, emphasizing both theoretical understanding and practical skills. Topics covered include buffer preparation, spectrophotometry, chromatography (such as HPLC, ion exchange, and affinity), electrophoresis, centrifugation, and protein and nucleic acid quantification. Students will gain hands-on experience in sample preparation, analysis, and data interpretation, fostering proficiency in the experimental methods essential for biochemical research and biotechnology applications. The course also discusses the principles underlying these techniques, their applications in current scientific investigations, and best practices for ensuring accuracy and reproducibility in experimental results.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of membranes?
A)They have identical protein and lipid composition in the major organelles.
B)They are micromolecular assemblies.
C)They define boundaries of a select few cellular components.
D)They are spontaneous assemblies resulting from hydrophobic interactions.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following regarding the nature of the hydrogen bond is correct?
A)The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a carbon.
B)The more linear the bond,the stronger the interaction.
C)The acceptor must be similar in electronegativity to hydrogen.
D)A hydrogen bond is weaker than van der Waals forces.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following groups of interactions is in the correct order by INCREASING strength?
A)ionic,hydrogen bond,van der Waals,covalent single bond
B)hydrogen bond,van der Waals,ionic,covalent single bond
C)van der Waals,ionic,hydrogen bond,covalent single bond
D)covalent single bond,van der Waals,ionic,hydrogen bond
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is a trait of hydrogen bonds in ice?
A)weak
B)non-directional
C)straight
D)responsibility for the higher density of ice over liquid water
Answer: C
Q2) How many hydrogen bonds can a single liquid water molecule make?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of micelles?
A)Hydrocarbon tails form hydrophobic interactions with water.
B)Polar ends form hydrophobic interactions with water.
C)Hydrocarbon tails are excluded from the water into hydrophobic domains.
D)Polar ends are hydrophobic,and non-polar ends are hydrophilic.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An interaction between 2 subunits of a protein was determined to have a ?G°'= -57.05 kJ/mol.What is the K?q for the reaction at 25°C?
A)10-10
B)1.02
C)1.32
D)10<sup>10</sup>
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best describes living systems?
A)They are closed systems exchanging only energy with the surroundings.
B)They are isolated systems that are totally contained.
C)They are open systems exchanging only energy with the surroundings.
D)They are open systems exchanging both energy and matter with their surroundings.
Answer: D
Q3) At what temperature is entropy,S,exactly zero?
A)0K
B)0°C
C)25K
D)25°C
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids has more than 1 chiral carbon?
A)serine
B)lysine
C)threonine
D)cysteine
Q2) Based on their properties,which amino acids are correctly classified?
A)Alanine and valine are neutral,nonpolar amino acids.
B)Aspartic acid and asparagine are acidic amino acids.
C)Serine and glutamine are polar,charged amino acids.
D)Lysine and arginine are basic,uncharged amino acids.
Q3) Which of the following amino acids has a side-chain pK near neutrality and therefore plays an important role as proton donor and acceptor in many enzyme-catalyzed reactions?
A)histidine
B)cysteine
C)aspartic acid
D)arginine
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological Functions
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Q1) Using a cation-exchange resin,a mixture of 4 amino acids is separated using an elution gradient of increasing NaCl solution.What would be the correct elution sequence?
A)Arg,Asp,Lys,Ser
B)Lys,Arg,Asp,Ser
C)Asp,Ser,Lys,Arg
D)Ser,Asp,Lys,Arg
Q2) Which of the following is a property common to fibrous proteins?
A)They are highly soluble in water.
B)Their hydrophilic residues are directed into the interior of the protein.
C)They exhibit enzymatic activity.
D)They serve structural roles in cells.
Q3) Which of the following is determined by amino acid analysis of a protein?
A)the amino acid sequence of the protein
B)the number of residues of each amino acid in the protein
C)the identification of the N-terminal and C-terminal amino acids
D)the percentage of the various amino acids in the protein
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) What is the "Greek key" topology composed of?
A)adjacent a-helices oriented in the opposite direction
B)discreet regions of -sheet oriented in an antiparallel fashion
C)discreet regions of -turns
D)parallel -sheet structures connected by a-helices
Q2) What defines tertiary structure?
A)the sequence of amino acids
B)the folding of a single polypeptide chain in 3-dimensional space
C)hydrogen-bonding interactions between adjacent amino acid residues into helical or pleated segments
D)the way in which separate,folded,monomeric,protein subunits associate to form oligomeric proteins
Q3) Which amino acid commonly comprises flexible,disordered segments of proteins?
A)Leu
B)Lys
C)Ser
D)Asp
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Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which of the following statements explains why cooked starch is more digestible than uncooked starch?
A)It has been partially hydrolyzed during cooking.
B)The amylopectin is converted to amylose during cooking.
C)The enzymes that hydrolyze the starch are active only when the starch is hot.
D)The starch granules take up water,swell,and are more accessible to the enzymes.
Q2) Osmotic pressure is greatly reduced by formation of polysaccharide molecules from monosaccharide molecules.Which of the following does osmotic pressure depend on to accomplish this?
A)molecular weight
B)number of hydroxyl groups
C)numbers of molecules
D)numbers of hydrogen bonds
Q3) In plant cells,starch is hydrolyzed by starch phosphorylase.Which of the following is released upon hydrolysis?
A)glucose-1-phosphate and a starch molecule with 1 less glucose unit
B)glucose-6-phosphate and a starch molecule with 1 less glucose unit
C)maltose-1-phosphate and a starch molecule with 2 less glucose units
D)maltose-6-phosphate and a starch molecule with 2 less glucose units
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following steroid hormones participate in the control of carbohydrate,protein,and lipid metabolism?
A)progestins
B)androgens
C)estrogens
D)glucocorticoids
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of dolichols?
A)They are carriers of carbohydrate units in the biosynthesis of pyruvate.
B)They form dolichyl carbamates.
C)They are a class of glycerophospholipids.
D)They are polymers of 16-22 isoprene units
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a designation for a fatty acid with 18 carbons and 1 double bond?
A)linoleic acid
B)cis-9-octadecenoic acid
C)oleic acid
D)elaidic acid
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT affect the regulation of fatty acid synthesis in humans?
A)malonyl-CoA binding to carnitine acyltransferase and inhibiting available substrate for ?-oxidation
B)acyl-CoAs as inhibitors of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
C)insulin receptor binding maintaining acetyl-CoA carboxylase in the inactive form
D)glucagon promoting phosphorylation and inactivation of acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Q2) What is the primary site,but not the only site,of cholesterol synthesis?
A)intestine
B)muscle
C)liver
D)adipose tissue
Q3) Which hormone has been implicated in male baldness,prostate hyperplasia,and prostate cancer?
A)cortisol
B)stanozolol
C)dihydrotestosterone
D)cholesterol
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11
Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following is a property of integral membrane proteins?
A)They only have hydrophobic surfaces.
B)They have significant lateral mobility.
C)They remain in the membrane when treated with salt solutions.
D)They get exposed to one aqueous surface of the membrane.
Q2) Which of the following variables influences transport by mobile carriers and pores (or channels)?
A)pH
B)ionic strength
C)proton gradient
D)temperature
Q3) Which of the following properties of lipids allows them to spontaneously form micelles,monolayers,and bilayers?
A)polyisoprenoid nature
B)polar nature
C)amphipathic nature
D)bipolar nature
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12
Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) Phosphorylation of Tyr ² in the SH domain of protein tyrosine kinase pp60 inhibits tyrosine kinase activity.By which of the following mechanisms does it do this?
A)by moving an "activation loop" away from the active site
B)by moving an "activation loop" into the active site
C)by phosphorylating an "activation loop"
D)by covalent linkage to an "activation loop"
Q2) Which of the following hormones is correctly paired with its function?
A)FSH: to stimulate processes within the gonads
B)ACTH: to promote production of thyroxin
C)calcitonin: to regulate plasma Na² and Ca²
D)insulin: to regulate metabolism and proton concentration
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms do steroid hormones such as glucocorticoids use to effect their action?
A)by binding to a plasma membrane receptor and then entering the cell
B)by binding the plasma membrane receptor,which stimulates the receptor to enter the cell
C)by entering into the cell and effecting the production of secondary messengers
D)by entering into the cell and then acting as transcription regulators
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the relationships between [S],K<sub>m</sub>,and V<sub>m </sub>?
A)As the [S] is increased,v approaches the limiting value,Vmax.
B)K<sub>m</sub> = V<sub>max</sub>/2.
C)The rate of the reaction,v,follows a first-order rate equation: v = K'[A] and K' = V<sub>max</sub>/K<sub>m</sub>.
D)The rate of product formed,v,is at V<sub>max</sub> when [S] >> K<sub>m</sub>.
Q2) Where on the enzyme does the substrate bind in order for catalysis to occur?
A)at hydrophobic residues
B)at the active site
C)at the regulatory site
D)on the surface
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct for catalysts?
A)They work by lowering the energy of activation.
B)The average energy of the reaction is unchanged.
C)They combine transiently with the reactants,promoting a reactive transition state condition.
D)They are regenerated after each third reaction cycle.
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Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following regarding for low-barrier hydrogen bonds is correct?
A)The barrier that the hydrogen atom must surmount to exchange oxygens becomes higher.
B)The interactions are not like covalent bonds.
C)The bond order approaches 2 for both O-H interactions.
D)The hydrogen is centred between the 2 heteroatoms.
Q2) The catalytic triad common to many serine proteases involves shuttling of protons between the amino acids in the catalytic triad.Which of the following amino acid sequences is in the correct order for this process?
A)Ser-His-Asp
B)His-Ser-Asp
C)Ser-His-His
D)Asp-His-Ser
Q3) How does HIV-1 protease differ from most mammalian aspartic acid proteases?
A)It has 2 subunits,each with a 2-aspartate active site.
B)It has 2 subunits,each contributing an aspartate to the active site.
C)It has 2 active sites on 1 protein.
D)It has 2 subunits,1 with an active site and the other with a regulatory activity.
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Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following amino acid residues of the PDH complex is the target of phosphorylation?
A)serine of E<sub>1</sub>
B)tyrosine of E<sub>1</sub>
C)serine of E<sub>2</sub>
D)tyrosine of E<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the regulation of metabolism by activation of the gene encoding a particular enzyme?
A)covalent modification
B)repression
C)induction
D)allosteric activation
Q3) Which of the following components of the eukaryotic PDH complex has the largest number of subunits?
A)lipoate
B)E<sub>2</sub>
C)TPP
D)E<sub>3</sub>
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16
Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following troponin subunits is responsible for inhibiting actin-myosin binding?
A)troponin C
B)troponin M
C)troponin G
D)troponin I
Q2) Which structural component houses a high concentration of Ca² and releases it to trigger muscle contraction?
A)sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)sarcomere
C)t-tubule
D)sarcolemma
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of microtubules?
A)They are made up of 2 repeating subunits.
B)They grow at one end and are degraded at the other end.
C)They are static,helical structures.
D)They are hollow,cylindrical structures.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) The dehydrogenase enzymes facilitate the direct transfer of hydride anion.Which of the following coenzymes is required for this transfer?
A)biotin
B)folic acid
C)NAD
D)lipoic acid
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metabolism?
A)a process that synthesizes either energy or complex cellular substances
B)a process of intermediates
C)the conversion of food energy into energy of motion
D)a free-flow unregulated process
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding nutrition?
A)Dietary protein is a source of essential amino acids.
B)Organisms can produce all of the essential energy-yielding nutrients and micronutrients needed.
C)Complex carbohydrates can provide simple sugars for the glycolytic pathway.
D)Essential fatty acids are components of biological membranes.
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Addition of water across a double bond,or removal of water to form a double bond,is catalyzed by a subclass of the lyase class of enzymes.Which of the following enzymes would be a lyase?
A)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B)triose phosphate isomerase (TPI)
C)phosphoglycerate mutase
D)enolase
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of type I diabetes mellitus?
A)glucokinase induction
B)low levels of glucokinase
C)excess insulin production
D)over production of liver glycogen
Q3) Which of the of the following covalent modifications does cAMP-dependent protein kinase carry out on pyruvate kinase?
A)carboxylation
B)phosphorolysis
C)phosphorylation
D)decarboxylation
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Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of succinyl-CoA synthetase?
A)Succinyl-CoA can be used to drive phosphorylation of GDP or ADP.
B)The enzyme is named for the forward reaction.
C)It provides an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
D)Succinyl-phosphate is an intermediate in the reaction catalyzed by succinyl-CoA synthetase.
Q2) Which enzyme is analogous to the multi-enzyme complex -ketoglutarate?
A)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B)isocitrate dehydrogenase
C)pyruvate dehydrogenase
D)lactate dehydrogenase
Q3) Why is it crucial that regulation occur at pyruvate dehydrogenase?
A)Pyruvate kinase is reversible.
B)Lactate dehydrogenase is the only other enzyme to use pyruvate.
C)The product acetyl-CoA is committed to oxidation in the citric acid cycle or fatty acid biosynthesis.
D)Alanine aminotransferase would use the pyruvate.
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of the binding charge mechanism?
A)Energy-driven conformational changes convert O-sites to L-sites.
B)One site is empty (L-sites).
C)One site contains ADP and Pi (O-sites).
D)T-sites become O-sites.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a property of the mitochondrial glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenases?
A)The mitochondrial enzyme family has bound coenzyme Q.
B)They work to carry electrons into mitochondria.
C)One is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D)There exists an FAD-dependent mitochondrial enzyme.
Q3) Which of the following percentages of the proton gradient energy to synthesize and transport ATP to the cytosol is involved in ATP-ADP transport?
A)10%
B)15%
C)25%
D)50%
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) When light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll,an electron is promoted to a higher orbital and then transferred to a suitable acceptor,resulting in light energy conversion to chemical energy.Which of the following terms describes this type of reaction?
A)isomerise
B)mutase
C)ligase
D)oxidation-reduction
Q2) Many of the enzymes of the Calvin cycle are also involved in glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway.Which of the following molecules is specific for the glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase of the Calvin cycle?
A)NADPH
B)NADH
C)FADH
D)FAD
Q3) Which of the following sets of pathways is similar between plants and animals?
A)electron transport and the dark reactions of photosynthesis
B)electron transport and pyruvate carboxylase
C)the Hatch-Slack pathway (C-4)and pyruvate carboxylase
D)the Hatch-Slack pathway (C-4)and the dark reactions of photosynthesis
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which of the following results can a blood test for "glycated hemoglobin" determine?
A)present blood glucose concentration
B)average glucose concentration in the blood over the past several months
C)level of AGEs in the blood stream
D)blood glucose concentration over the past month
Q2) What does the enzyme transketolase catalyze?
A)transfers of 3-carbon units from a ketose to an aldose
B)transfer of ketoses into aldoses
C)TPP-dependent transfer of 2-carbon units to the recipient aldose
D)keto-group transfer from C-2 to C-3
Q3) Which of these reactions is catalyzed by a transketolase in the pentose phosphate pathway?
A)erythrose-4-P + fructose-6-P sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P
B)sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P erythrose-4-P + fructose-6-P
C)fructose-6-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P xylulose-5-P + erythrose-4-P
D)glucose-6-P +2 NADP+ + H 0 ribose-5-P +2 NADPH +2 H
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Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Which of the following regarding for 2,4-dienoyl-CoA reductase is correct?
A)oxidizes trans-?<sup>?</sup>,cis-?<sup>4</sup> double bonds to trans-?<sup>3</sup>
B)uses NADH
C)cooperates with ?-oxidation in fatty acid oxidation
D)involved in saturated fatty acid catabolism
Q2) Which of the following is NOT involved with the transport of fatty acyl groups from the cytosol to the matrix?
A)carnitine acyltransferase I
B)fatty acyl-CoA in matrix
C)O-acylcarnitine
D)ATP
Q3) Which of the following hormones does NOT cause fatty acid mobilization in adipose cells?
A)ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
B)glucagon
C)insulin
D)epinephrine (adrenaline)
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Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction below?
N + 10 H + 8 e 2 NH + H
A)nitrate reductase
B)nitrogenase
C)glutamate dehydrogenase
D)glutamate synthase
Q2) Which of the following reactions are denitrifying bacteria NOT capable of?
A)reducing NO - to N
B)using NO - as an electron acceptor in their energy-producing pathways
C)oxidizing NH to NO -
D)reducing the combined-nitrogen levels
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is biosynthesized from aspartate?
A)serine
B)glycine
C)cysteine
D)lysine
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Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT necessary for restriction endonuclease mapping of DNA molecules?
A)determining the 5'- and/or 3'-ends of the molecule
B)protease digestion of fragments
C)hydrolysis with 2 or more endonucleases
D)knowing where each endonuclease hydrolyzes
Q2) Which of the following classifies eukaryotic mRNAs synthesized in the nucleus?
A)poly(A)RNAs
B)intervening RNA sequences
C)heterogeneous nuclear RNAs
D)RNA exons
Q3) Which of these molecules contains an acid anhydride bond?
A)ATP
B)DNA
C)UMP
D)RNA
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26
Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following types of structures potentially forms from DNA sequences that are inverted repeats?
A)a secondary structure known as a cruciform
B)a tertiary structure known as a cruciform
C)a secondary structure known as a palindrome
D)a tertiary structure known as a palindrome
Q2) Which of the following amino acids are rich in histones?
A)alanine and glycine
B)glutamic acid and aspartic acid
C)lysine and arginine
D)lysine and alanine
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a property of nucleosomes?
A)protein spools neatly wrapped with DNA
B)fundamental structural unit in chromatin
C)protein spools made up of single histones H2A,H2B,H3,and H4 octameric aggregates
D)DNA binding of histones by ionic bonds of positively charged amino acids and the negatively charged phosphate groups
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following enzyme activities is deficient in about 30% of severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCIDS)patients?
A)HGPRT
B)nucleosidase
C)nucleoside phosphorylase
D)adenosine deaminase
Q2) Which of the following is the function of phosphoribosyltransferases?
A)They are involved in the reversible reactions of purine salvage.
B)They mediate the degradation of AMP.
C)They are central to the resynthesis of nucleotides from bases in salvage reactions. D)They mediate the degradation of IMP.
Q3) Which of the following compounds are inhibitors of purine and pyrimidine biosynthesis?
A)eicosanoids and aspirin
B)NSAIDs and antibiotics
C)anticancer drugs and antibiotics
D)antibiotics and eicosanoids
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Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a part of the procedure associated with the Southern blotting (hybridization)technique?
A)hybridization with radioactive probe
B)agarose gel electrophoresis and visualize bands
C)transfer (blot)to nitrocellulose filter
D)digestion of DNA with DNA ligase
Q2) Which of the following steps is NOT involved with each cycle of amplification in PCR?
A)the addition of fresh dNTPs to the reaction mixture
B)annealing of oligodeoxyribonucleotide primers to DNA
C)thermal denaturation of the target duplex DNA
D)reaction with DNA polymerase at approximately 70°C
Q3) How are hybrid proteins or fusion proteins produced?
A)by incubation of 2 proteins with a protease
B)by expression of genes coding for multiple proteins
C)by translation of mRNAs without removing exons
D)by translation of recombinant sequences from expression vectors carrying cDNA inserts cloned directly into the coding sequence of a vector-born protein-coding gene
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Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) Which of the following explains how the termination of DNA replication in E.coli occurs?
A)Tag protein binds the oriC locus on the DNA and acts as a helicase.
B)Ter protein binds the tag locus on the DNA and acts as a polymerase.
C)DnaC protein binds the DnaG locus on the DNA and acts as a gyrase.
D)Tus protein binds the Ter locus on the DNA and acts as contrahelicase.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the 3'-exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I of E.coli?
A)It is relatively fast compared to polymerase activity.
B)It removes nucleotides that do not base pair at the 5'-end of the growing chain.
C)It is similar to the polymerase activity.
D)It is an editor of polymerase activity.
Q3) The repair of cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers involves bacterial photolyase.Which of the following cofactors does it use?
A)flavin and pterin
B)S-adenosylmethionine and ATP
C)CoA and CoQ
D)flavin and TPP
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following DNA-binding motifs common to many prokaryotic regulatory proteins is the lac repressor an example of?
A)a homeobox
B)a zinc finger
C)a basic region-leucine finger
D)a helix-turn-helix
Q2) Which of the following base locations in DNA specifies the first base in the RNA transcript designated,and what numerical value is it assigned?
A)promoter;-5
B)enhancer;-35
C)transcription start site;0
D)transcription start site;+1
Q3) Which of the following is a property of the lac repressor?
A)dimeric protein expressed constitutively
B)binding site for PKA
C)blocks elongation so initiation is aborted
D)binding site for mRNA
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Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ribosomal subunit assembly under appropriate conditions of pH and ionic strength?
A)Ribosomes assembly is energy dependent and not spontaneous.
B)No intervention by any additional factors or chaperones is required.
C)Ribosomal proteins bind in a specific order.
D)rRNA acts as a scaffold upon which various ribosomal proteins convene.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of isoacceptor tRNAs called suppressors?
A)They read suppressive codons and insert an amino acid.
B)They read nonsense codons and insert an amino acid.
C)They read anticodon codons and insert an amino acid.
D)They read mutated codons and insert an amino acid.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a dominant mechanism for control of eukaryotic peptide chain initiation?
A)allosteric regulation
B)cofactor availability control
C)phosphorylation/dephosphorylation
D)competitive inhibition
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following carriers of siRNA is NOT correctly paired with its mechanism of delivery?
A)chemically synthesized siRNA: transfection protocol
B)lentivirus: transfection only into dividing cells
C)adenovirus: transient expression with DNA integration
D)retrovirus: high transfection efficiency
Q2) Which of the following techniques can be used to identify RBP-mRNA interactions?
A)SDS-PAGE
B)Southern blot analysis
C)RNA-EMSA
D)RT-PCR
Q3) Which of the following do miRNAs binds?
A)GREs
B)seed elements
C)AREs
D)core promoters
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of chaperonin?
A)formed of 3 stacked rings of subunits
B)allows folding to proceed in a unprotected environment
C)small,cylindrical protein complexes
D)sequesters partially folded proteins
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of Hsp90 chaperones?
A)They comprise more than 20% of total cytosolic proteins in eukaryotes.
B)Their action depends on cyclic binding and hydrolysis of GTP.
C)They direct proteins toward degradation pathways.
D)Their major purpose is conformational regulation of signal transduction molecules.
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning protein folding is correct?
A)The GroES protein serves as the cap for GroEL.
B)The Hsp70 proteins bind to hydrophilic regions of the protein,thus preventing aggregation.
C)The Hsp60 proteins are rarely known as chaperonins.
D)The GroEL protein provides an environment that leads to possible aggregation.
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Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of resveratrol?
A)produced in plants,particularly in grape skins,in response to stress
B)activates SIRT1 NAD -dependent deacetylase activity
C)inhibits AMPK in the brain
D)has many of the same effects as caloric restriction
Q2) Which of these enzymes is activated upon phosphorylation by AMP-activated protein kinase?
A)acetyl-CoA carboxylase
B)phosphofructokinase-2
C)glycogen synthase
D)3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leptin?
A)It binds to hypothalamus,inhibits release of neuropeptide-Y,and is thus an anorexic agent.
B)It is a signal molecule that limits food intake and increases energy expenditure.
C)It communicates the status of triacylglycerol levels in the adipocytes to the central nervous system.
D)At low levels,appetite is suppressed;at high levels,appetite is increased.
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