Behavioral Science
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Behavioral Science explores the principles and theories underlying human and animal behavior, integrating insights from psychology, sociology, anthropology, and related disciplines. This course examines how individuals and groups make decisions, interact, and are influenced by cultural, biological, and environmental factors. Students will analyze behavioral data, consider the impact of social norms and personality, and evaluate research methods used in behavioral studies, preparing them to apply behavioral science concepts to real-world scenarios and interdisciplinary problems.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by David G. Myers
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2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humanistic psychologists focused attention on the importance of people's A) childhood memories.
B) genetic predispositions.
C) unconscious thought processes.
D) potential for healthy growth.
Answer: D
Q2) Many studies,including those conducted in college classrooms,confirm that frequent quizzing and self-testing boost students' retention.This provides support for A) the benefit of introspection.
B) the effectiveness of cramming.
C) the testing effect.
D) the SQ3R method.
Answer: C
Q3) The survival of organisms best suited to a particular environment is known as A) functionalism.
B) natural selection.
C) behavior genetics.
D) structuralism.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brandon reads his psychology text regularly and attends class most days,so he felt prepared when he took the midterm exam.He just knew he aced the test.When his Professor returned his exam,he found that he earned a C.What happened?
A) Brandon experienced hindsight bias.
B) Brandon was overconfident.
C) Brandon engaged in scientific inquiry.
D) Brandon perceived a pattern in random events.
Answer: B
Q2) In a drug-treatment study,participants given a pill containing no actual drug are receiving a A) random sample.
B) double blind.
C) replication.
D) placebo.
Answer: D
Q3) Explain how research in psychological science is used to create,test,and verify or disprove various theories.
Answer: no answer
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4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which measure of central tendency is used to calculate the average of your school grades?
A) standard deviation
B) median
C) mean
D) mode
Answer: C
Q2) If a set of standardized test scores is normally distributed,having a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 6,approximately 95 percent of the scores are somewhere between
A) 72 and 78.
B) 75 and 87.
C) 69 and 81.
D) 63 and 87.
Answer: D
Q3) Five students received the following test scores: 7,11,5,6,and 11.Calculate the mode,median,mean,and range of this distribution of scores.Which measure of central tendency would change the most if an additional test score of 2 was included in the distribution?
Answer: no answer
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endorphin agonists are likely to ________ one's immediate pain,and endorphin antagonists are likely to ________ one's immediate pain.
A) decrease;increase
B) increase;decrease
C) increase;increase
D) decrease;decrease
Q2) The cells that serve as the basic building blocks of the body's information system are called
A) neurons.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) ventricles.
D) genes.
Q3) Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) endocrine system.
D) central nervous system.
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animal research has revealed a general reward system related to the release of the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine.
B) GABA.
C) dopamine.
D) epinephrine.
Q2) Newer research reveals that stimulating the brain's reward circuits in humans produces more ________than pure enjoyment.
A) desire
B) fatigue
C) agitation
D) pain relief
Q3) Which brain structure receives information from all of the senses except smell?
A) hippocampus
B) amygdala
C) pons
D) thalamus
Q4) Describe specific functions of our older brain structures,which reveal that our brains are responsible for much more than simply our capacity to think.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If primed with the flashed word foot,the ________ hemisphere will be especially quick to recognize the word heel.If primed with foot,cry,and glass,the ________ hemisphere will be especially quick to recognize the word cut.
A) right;left
B) left;right
C) right;right
D) left;left
Q2) When a person speaks,brain waves and bloodflow are especially likely to reveal increased activity in the A) cerebellum.
B) left hemisphere.
C) hippocampus.
D) right hemisphere.
Q3) Master stem cells that can develop into any type of brain cell have been discovered in the human A) embryo.
B) corpus callosum.
C) association areas.
D) somatosensory cortex.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because she was listening to the news on the radio,Mrs.Schultz didn't perceive a word her husband was saying.Her experience best illustrates
A) change blindness.
B) blindsight.
C) dual processing.
D) the cocktail party effect.
Q2) In the dual-processing system of vision,the ________ enables us to recognize things and to plan future actions.
A) visual action track
B) visual processing track
C) visual planning track
D) visual perception track
Q3) Texting and talking on the cell phone while driving is responsible for ________ percent of traffic accidents.
A) 12
B) 28
C) 45
D) 76
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Freud,the dreams of adults can be traced back to A) erotic wishes.
B) stressful life events.
C) biological needs for brain stimulation.
D) random bursts of neural activity.
Q2) The disorder involving uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness is known as
A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paradoxical sleep.
Q3) Hypnagogic sensations are most closely associated with ________ sleep.
A) NREM-1
B) NREM-2
C) NREM-3
D) REM
Q4) Sleep is a necessity for all humans.What are the reasons we sleep,and what happens if we are deprived of sleep? Be sure to provide examples to support your answer.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent or reduce marijuana use,young people should be educated about
A) the tendency for teens to underestimate marijuana usage among their peers.
B) the increased self-consciousness caused by marijuana use.
C) the need for increasingly larger doses of marijuana to produce the desired high.
D) the long-term costs of regular marijuana use.
Q2) Brandon smokes cigarettes despite the risks associated with use.Which of the following is NOT an effect that smoking has on his body?
A) increased alertness
B) reduced circulation to extremities
C) increased heart rate
D) increased appetite
Q3) Girls with a history of physical abuse are at ________ risk for problematic substance use.Those with a history of eating disorders are at ________ risk for problematic substance use.
A) increased;decreased
B) decreased;increased
C) increased;increased
D) decreased;decreased
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing ________ with ________.
A) identical twins raised together;identical twins raised apart
B) fraternal twins raised together;identical twins raised apart
C) identical twins raised together;fraternal twins raised together
D) fraternal twins raised apart;identical twins raised together
Q2) The diversity of human traits is most clearly enabled by our shared A) moral values.
B) temperament.
C) epigenetic molecules.
D) adaptive capacity.
Q3) Identical twins are most likely to share a similar prenatal environment if they share the same A) placenta.
B) adaptive capacity.
C) temperament.
D) uterus.
Q4) Mark and Paul are identical twins.Explain what can be expected in terms of similarities and differences (their personality,for instance).Use research findings to support your answer.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that A) more people are biologically predisposed to fear guns than to fear snakes.
B) children are more likely to be valued by their biological fathers than by their stepfathers.
C) people are the most romantically attracted to those who are the most genetically dissimilar to themselves.
D) genetic predispositions have little effect on our social relationships.
Q2) Compared with men,women are ________ likely to desire more frequent sex and ________ likely to misperceive simple friendliness as a sexual come-on.
A) more;less
B) more;more
C) less;more
D) less;less
Q3) Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to attribute the human tendency to fear spiders and snakes to A) a universal moral grammar.
B) domestication.
C) social scripts.
D) genetic predispositions.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) A collectivist culture is especially likely to emphasize the importance of A) social harmony.
B) personal privacy.
C) innovation and creativity.
D) racial diversity.
Q2) Concepts that organize our experience of characteristics associated with being male or female are called A) gender roles.
B) sexual orientations.
C) gender schemas.
D) primary sex characteristics.
Q3) While sex refers to our ________ influenced characteristics,gender refers to our ________influenced characteristics.
A) epigenetically;molecularly
B) individualist;collectivist
C) biologically;socially
D) primary;secondary
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Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elaina is in the fourth month of her pregnancy.At this point,her developing baby would be referred to as a(n)
A) genome.
B) embryo.
C) zygote.
D) fetus.
Q2) Day-old American and Swedish newborns were observed to pause more in their pacifier sucking when listening to
A) familiar vowels from their mother's language.
B) unfamiliar words from their father's language.
C) the voice sounds of a sibling.
D) musical instruments over a radio.
Q3) Design an experiment to show how the process of habituation can help us to demonstrate human infants' capacities for perception,learning,and memory.
Q4) Organs such as the stomach develop enough to enable survival during A) conception.
B) the first week after birth.
C) the embryonic stage.
D) the fetal period.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those who incorrectly blame inadequate parental nurture for a child's insecure attachment should be reminded of the impact of a child's A) critical periods.
B) temperament.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) sense of object permanence.
Q2) When 1-year-old Andrea tries to talk,her mother talks back;when she smiles,her mother smiles in return.These maternal reactions are most relevant to Andrea's development of A) a secure attachment.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) object permanence.
Q3) When tethered to a mobile,infants learned the association between A) looking and the mobile's smell.
B) rooting and the mobile's sound.
C) swallowing and the mobile's color.
D) kicking and the mobile's movement.
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16
Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "we" aspect of our self-concept that comes from our group membership is our A) moral intuition.
B) role confusion.
C) social identity.
D) preconventional morality.
Q2) Psychologist Jonathan Haidt has described our moral intuitions as
A) formal operations.
B) a pruning process.
C) quick gut feelings.
D) postconventional judgments.
Q3) Menarche is a maturational milestone most directly associated with A) postconventional morality.
B) dual processing.
C) role confusion.
D) puberty.
Q4) According to Erikson,________ follows identity development.
A) trust
B) integrity
C) intimacy
D) generativity
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alzheimer's disease involves a deterioration of neurons that produce
A) dopamine.
B) telomeres.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
Q2) In recall and recognition tests of memory for recently learned material,older adults are more likely than young adults to have difficulty
A) recalling meaningful material.
B) recognizing meaningful material.
C) recalling meaningless material.
D) recognizing meaningless material.
Q3) Johnny is 67 years old and is recently retired.He has three grandchildren.He is in the ________ years.
A) emerging adulthood
B) early adulthood
C) middle adulthood
D) late adulthood
Q4) Describe the cognitive decline that occurs with aging,and explain how brain changes are related to progressive cognitive decline.
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Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conscious evaluations of a facial image can be affected by subliminal priming.This best illustrates
A) Weber's law.
B) prosopagnosia.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) the two-track mind.
Q2) Three steps that are basic to all sensory systems include the ________ of information to the brain.
A) adaptation,context,and set
B) receiving,transforming,and delivering
C) priming,grouping,and masking
D) signal detection,transduction,and sensory adaptation
Q3) When holding a gun themselves,people become more likely to perceive another person as gun-toting rather than as simply holding a phone or wallet.This best illustrates that perceptions are influenced by
A) subliminal sensation.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) Weber's law.
D) context effects.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pedro recognized that his son was closer to him than his daughter because his son partially blocked his view of his daughter.Pedro's perception was most clearly influenced by a distance cue known as A) closure.
B) interposition.
C) relative height.
D) linear perspective.
Q2) The central focal point in the retina where cones are heavily concentrated is known as the
A) lens.
B) optic nerve.
C) cornea.
D) fovea.
Q3) When viewing an object,we typically assume that the light originates from ________ the object.
A) behind
B) in front of C) above
D) below
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For Andrew,the sight of specific letters such as L and P typically triggers specific taste sensations.Andrew's experience best illustrates
A) precognition.
B) synesthesia.
C) psychokinesis.
D) tinnitus.
Q2) Which theory suggests that large-fiber activity in the spinal cord can prevent pain signals from reaching the brain?
A) place theory
B) dissociation theory
C) gate-control theory
D) frequency theory
Q3) Place theory was first proposed by
A) Ronald Melzack.
B) Georg von Békésy.
C) Ernest Hilgard.
D) Harry McGurk.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pets who learn that the sound of an electric can opener signals the arrival of their food illustrate
A) operant conditioning.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) classical conditioning.
D) observational learning.
Q2) The diminishing of a conditioned response is known as A) extinction.
B) generalization.
C) acquisition.
D) spontaneous recovery.
Q3) Psychologists define learning as the process of A) adapting to the environment.
B) responding to external stimuli.
C) rewarding behavioral responses.
D) acquiring new information or relatively enduring behaviors.
Q4) Describe how our capacity for associative learning enables us to anticipate events,develop highly adaptive skills,and replace bad habits with beneficial ones.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) How could you use operant conditioning to condition an adventurous 2-year-old not to run across a busy street near her house?
Q2) Skinner developed a procedure to guide a rat's actions toward a desired behavior.The procedure is known as
A) shaping.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) secondary conditioning.
D) variable-interval scheduling.
Q3) A variable-interval schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n)
A) specified time period has elapsed.
B) unpredictable number of responses has been made.
C) specified number of responses has been made.
D) unpredictable time period has elapsed.
Q4) Which of the following is the best example of a conditioned reinforcer?
A) applause for an excellent piano recital
B) a spanking for eating cookies before dinner
C) a cold root beer for mowing the lawn on a hot day
D) termination of shock after removing one's finger from a live electrical wire
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea that any perceivable neutral stimulus can serve as a CS was challenged by A) Garcia and Koelling's findings on taste aversion in rats.
B) Pavlov's findings on the conditioned salivary response.
C) Rescorla's findings about the effects of expectations on an animal's conditioned response.
D) Bandura's findings on observational learning and aggression in children.
Q2) When Evie saw that her classmates got the teacher's attention after asking questions in class,Evie started asking questions in class.This best illustrates the impact of A) a fixed-interval reinforcement schedule.
B) cognitive maps.
C) classical conditioning.
D) vicarious reinforcement.
Q3) According to some researchers,a televised fistfight may lead viewers to mentally simulate fistfighting thanks to the activation of A) cognitive maps.
B) mirror neurons.
C) instinctive drift.
D) taste aversions.
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Highly durable memories can often be retrieved from ________ memory into ________ memory.
A) sensory;working
B) working;sensory
C) working;long-term
D) long-term;working
Q2) The process of getting information out of memory is called A) encoding.
B) relearning.
C) retrieval.
D) rehearsal.
Q3) What type of information is NOT automatically processed?
A) information about space
B) information about frequency
C) information about location
D) information about time
Q4) Describe two mnemonic techniques that would enable you to remember the following list of grocery items: milk,eggs,margarine,oranges,rhubarb,ice cream,eggplant,and sausage.Explain why each would be effective.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hippocampus helps process ________ memories for long-term storage.
A) procedural
B) explicit
C) automatic
D) implicit
Q2) Research by Kandel and Schwartz on sea slugs indicates that memory formation is associated with the
A) structure of DNA molecules.
B) release of certain neurotransmitters.
C) activity level of the hippocampus.
D) development of the cerebellum.
Q3) Infantile amnesia involves a lack of
A) implicit memories.
B) basal ganglia.
C) explicit memories.
D) automatic processing.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Sample Questions
Q1) While wandering through the streets of a foreign city for the first time,Maurice experienced a strange sense of familiarity with the city's landmarks as if he had been in this exact location before.His experience best illustrates A) anterograde amnesia.
B) proactive interference.
C) positive transfer.
D) déjà vu.
Q2) Austin can't remember Jack Smith's name because he wasn't paying attention when Jack was formally introduced.Austin's poor memory is best explained in terms of A) proactive interference.
B) encoding failure.
C) retroactive interference.
D) source amnesia.
Q3) Professor Markus is a brilliant mathematician,who is 70 years old and still enjoys teaching.Over the past few years,she has found it increasingly difficult to remember the names of her students.Suggest several possible explanations for the professor's memory problems.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anika resisted changing her answer to a test question after reminding herself that "it's always best to stick with your first answer." Anika's decision best illustrates the use of A) insight.
B) an algorithm.
C) trial and error.
D) a heuristic.
Q2) When we use the term Hispanic to refer to a category of people,we are using this word as a(n)
A) concept.
B) heuristic.
C) algorithm.
D) prototype.
Q3) The tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions is called A) the availability heuristic.
B) confirmation bias.
C) framing.
D) overconfidence.
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28
Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) Mentally segmenting other's spoken sounds into individual words best illustrates a 7-month-old's capacity for
A) telegraphic speech.
B) receptive language.
C) outcome simulation.
D) productive language.
Q2) After a skydiving accident,Laurie was unable to make sense of other people's speech.It is likely that she suffered brain damage to A) the motor cortex.
B) Broca's area.
C) the occipital lobe.
D) Wernicke's area.
Q3) Broca's area is typically located in the left ________ lobe.
A) frontal
B) occipital
C) temporal
D) parietal
Q4) Teo is an infant and has not yet learned language.Describe how he is likely to think.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) Howard Gardner is most likely to agree that the concept of intelligence includes
A) minimizing one's negative emotions.
B) spatially analyzing visual input.
C) a g factor.
D) a single ability that can only be measured by standardized testing.
Q2) Marisa has heard her mom say that she has "book smarts but not a lot of common sense." While this is an inappropriate way for a parent to talk about her child,the mother is conveying which of the following?
A) Marisa is high in practical intelligence but low in analytical intelligence.
B) Marisa is high in analytical intelligence but low in creative intelligence.
C) Marisa is high in analytical intelligence but low in practical intelligence.
D) Marisa is high in practical intelligence and high in analytical intelligence.
Q3) Those who emphasize the importance of the g factor would be most likely to encourage
A) discontinuing special programs for intellectually advantaged children.
B) deriving adult intelligence test scores from the ratio of mental age to chronological age.
C) using a small standardization sample in the process of intelligence test construction.
D) quantifying intelligence with a single numerical score.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Q1) The correlation is likely to be lowest between the A) Stanford-Binet IQ scores and grades of elementary-school children.
B) Wechsler intelligence scores and grades of high school students.
C) SAT scores and grades of first-year college students.
D) GRE scores and grades of graduate students.
Q2) Aptitude tests are specifically designed to A) predict ability to learn a new skill.
B) compare an individual's abilities with those of highly successful people.
C) assess learned knowledge or skills.
D) assess the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.
Q3) The test Vincente is taking includes questions such as "In what way are brass and steel alike?" Vincente is taking the A) WAIS.
B) SAT Reasoning Test.
C) Stanford-Binet.
D) GRE.
Q4) You have been hired by a large public school system to construct a musical aptitude test.Describe how you would standardize your test and assess its reliability and validity.Explain why it might be more difficult to develop a valid musical aptitude test than a reliable one.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) Which of the following was NOT one of the reasons Deary proposed to explain why those with higher intelligence tend to be healthier and live longer?
A) Intelligence facilitates more education,better jobs,and a healthier environment.
B) Intelligence encourages healthy living.
C) Illnesses in adolescence and early adulthood might have influenced both intelligence and health.
D) A well-wired body fosters intelligence and longevity.
Q2) To qualify for the office manager's job,55-year-old Mariel must take a series of psychological tests.Her performance on the test of ________ is likely to be poorer than if she had taken it as a 25-year-old.
A) general knowledge
B) spelling
C) abstract reasoning
D) vocabulary
Q3) Melody has a learning disability,Marla has normal intelligence,and Keith is considered "gifted." What traits would you expect each of these people to have?
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Q1) Tahir teaches ninth-grade science classes in a high school located in an economically deprived area of a large city.He stresses to his students that their effort is just as important,if not more important,than their current ability because their brain is still growing and developing.Tahir is trying to help his students through fostering A) their general intelligence.
B) epigenetics.
C) their growth mindset.
D) polygenetics.
Q2) In one massive study of 11,000 twin pairs in four countries,the heritability of general intelligence (g)________ between middle childhood and adolescence and it ________ between adolescence and young adulthood.
A) decreased;decreased
B) increased;increased
C) decreased;increased
D) increased;decreased
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Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state is known as
A) an incentive.
B) an instinct.
C) homeostasis.
D) arousal.
Q2) Need is to ________ as drive is to ________.
A) food deprivation;hunger
B) motivation;incentive
C) thirst;arousal
D) instinct;incentive
Q3) Which of the following is clearly NOT an example of an incentive?
A) $1000
B) threat of punishment
C) smell of popcorn
D) dehydration
Q4) Homeostasis,which is the goal of drive reduction,is defined as
A) a rigidly patterned behavior characteristic of an entire species.
B) an aroused state that is often triggered by a physiological need.
C) the body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state.
D) a physical need that usually triggers motivational arousal.
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Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A body that can store fat has the advantage of possessing A) low blood pressure.
B) stored energy.
C) a low set point.
D) reduced levels of serotonin.
Q2) An individual is considered obese if his or her body mass index (BMI)is
A) 20 and above.
B) 25 and above.
C) 30 and above.
D) higher than 50.
Q3) Marcia has had classes all morning.Because she hasn't eaten since breakfast,she is now extremely hungry.Marcia's hunger is being triggered by the hormone ________,which is secreted by the ________.
A) orexin;hypothalamus
B) leptin;hypothalamus
C) PYY;stomach
D) orexin;stomach
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a significant aspect of sexual intimacy?
A) It is an expression of human's social nature.
B) It is built on genetic tendencies.
C) Its sole purpose is reproduction.
D) It differs in gay and straight couples.
Q2) Which of the following is indicative of a sexual dysfunction?
A) nocturnal emissions
B) premature ejaculation
C) erotic plasticity
D) refractory periods
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about sexual fantasizing?
A) Our imagination can increase our sexual arousal and desire.
B) In some women sexual fantasies can lead to sexual orgasm.
C) Men fantasize about sex more often and less romantically.
D) Fantasizing about sex indicates a sexual problem or dissatisfaction.
Q4) The fraternal birth-order effect refers to a factor associated with A) pedophilia.
B) sexual dysfunction.
C) erectile disorder.
D) sexual orientation.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jackie has a strong sense of competence and autonomy,both in her personal life and professionally.Thus,Jackie is also likely to have a high level of A) self-esteem.
B) ostracism.
C) narcissism.
D) chain migration.
Q2) When asked what is most necessary for a happy and meaningful life,most people first mention the importance of satisfying their A) achievement needs.
B) safety needs.
C) sexual needs.
D) need to belong.
Q3) When Wong Chu was settled in the United States by a refugee resettlement agency,he was placed in an apartment complex with others from his country.This resettlement technique is called A) chain migration.
B) self-disclosure.
C) self-actualization.
D) ostracism.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sympathetic nervous system is to the parasympathetic nervous system as ________ is to ________.
A) inhibition of digestion;acceleration of digestion
B) decreasing heart rate;increasing heart rate
C) decreasing blood sugar;increasing blood sugar
D) contraction of pupils;dilation of pupils
Q2) While fear and joy both share similar ________,they have different ________.
A) levels of insula activation;physiological responses
B) physiological responses;facial expressions
C) facial expressions;levels of insula activation
D) activity in the parasympathetic nervous system;activity in the sympathetic nervous system
Q3) When Alex and Jason were confronted by a dangerous snake,Alex experienced a much greater level of autonomic nervous system arousal than Jason.Yet both reported being equally scared by the experience.If true,this fact would be most consistent with the A) two-factor theory.
B) Schachter-Singer theory
C) Cannon-Bard theory.
D) James-Lange theory.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repeatedly saying the word "me" puts people in a better mood than repeatedly saying "you." This best illustrates the
A) catharsis hypothesis.
B) feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
C) adaptation-level phenomenon.
D) facial feedback effect.
Q2) In a class demonstration,Mariah's psychology professor asked her first to walk for a few minutes with short,shuffling steps,keeping her eyes downcast;this caused her to feel sad.He then asked Mariah to walk around taking long strides,with her arms swinging and her eyes looking straight ahead;this improved her mood.Her different emotions best illustrate
A) natural mimicry.
B) the behavior feedback effect.
C) emotional literacy.
D) subtle expressiveness.
Q3) In terms of ability to recognize others' facial expressions of emotion
A) introverts do better than extraverts and women do better than men.
B) introverts do worse than extraverts and women do better than men.
C) introverts do better than extraverts and women do worse than men.
D) introverts do worse than extraverts and women do worse than men.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Q1) Juan and Berta were millionaires who lost half their life savings due to a bad investment decision.Which of the following best explains why after three years Juan and Berta seem to have suffered no permanent loss of happiness?
A) relative deprivation
B) the concept of flow
C) the catharsis hypothesis
D) the adaptation-level phenomenon
Q2) Mrs.Chen asks her teenage son,Keith,to rake the leaves in the yard.Keith is most likely to want to help his mother after
A) losing an important athletic contest.
B) bringing home a less-than-satisfactory report card from school.
C) discovering that his cell phone had been stolen.
D) receiving news that he has just won $1000 in a state lottery.
Q3) Maria strives hard for intimacy,personal growth,and community contribution.Which of the following can be expected of Maria?
A) She will experience a higher quality of life.
B) She will be more likely to experience the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
C) She will experienced a lower quality of life.
D) She will be less likely to experience the feel-good,do-good phenomenon.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) AIDS is a disorder of the
A) circulatory system.
B) immune system.
C) reproductive system.
D) endocrine system.
Q2) One longitudinal study followed 1306 initially healthy men over a 10-year period.They found that ________ were more than twice as likely as ________ to develop heart disease.
A) introverts;extraverts
B) married men;single men
C) Type B personalities;Type A personalities
D) pessimists;optimists
Q3) Psychoneuroimmunology is most broadly concerned with how the psychological,neural,and endocrine systems together affect the
A) reproductive system.
B) cardiovascular system.
C) immune system.
D) respiratory system.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe two continuing sources of stress at this time in your life.For each source of stress,propose a specific problem-focused or a specific emotion-focused coping strategy that is likely to effectively reduce your stress.
Q2) One study found that people exhibited less obesity,lower blood pressure,and less distress at age 30 if they had expressed ________ at age 10.
A) a Type A personality
B) a more internal locus of control
C) self-control
D) social support
Q3) Alleviating stress using emotional,cognitive,or behavioral methods is known as A) coping.
B) control.
C) learned helplessness.
D) meditation.
Q4) Those who perceive an internal locus of control believe that A) world events are largely controlled by a few powerful people.
B) an excess of personal freedom decreases life satisfaction.
C) individuals can influence their own outcomes in life.
D) self-control grows permanently weaker with exercise.
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chan decides to make a positive change in his life.Instead of going to work with a frown on his face,he will force himself to smile when he walks into work.According to ________,by altering his behavior Chan is likely to change his negative attitude about work.
A) the foot-in-the-door phenomenon
B) the attitudes-follow-behavior principle
C) cognitive dissonance theory
D) attribution theory
Q2) Instead of providing arguments in favor of a political candidate,ads may build political support by associating pictures of the candidate with emotion-evoking music and images.This strategy best illustrates
A) central route persuasion.
B) cognitive dissonance.
C) peripheral route persuasion.
D) role playing.
Q3) To analyze how people explain others' behavior,Fritz Heider developed
A) cognitive dissonance theory.
B) role-playing theory.
C) attribution theory.
D) attitude theory.
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Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the participants in the Milgram obedience studies were informed of the deception and the real intent of the study,virtually none of them regretted taking part in the study.The lack of regret was most likely because of their reduced A) groupthink.
B) cognitive dissonance.
C) mood linkage.
D) deindividuation.
Q2) If you were a participant in Milgram's original obedience experiment,it is very likely that you would
A) play the role of the teacher and get to "shock" the learner.
B) play the role of the learner and be "shocked" by the teacher.
C) have an equal chance of being assigned to the role of either teacher or learner. D) be given a battery of psychological tests to determine whether you were high or low in conformity.
Q3) You have an assignment for one of your classes that requires you to work with a group of four other college students.Based on what you know about social loafing,what can you do to reduce the chance of some students not helping to complete this assignment?
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jonathan is from Georgia,is Christian,is married with two children,and is a construction worker.Which of the following is his outgroup?
A) Georgia Peach
B) Christian
C) Husband
D) Dentist
Q2) Which of the following would be the best advice to give parents who are concerned about the frequent aggressive outbursts of their 6-year-old son?
A) "Make a point of rewarding and praising your son whenever he is socially cooperative and altruistic."
B) "Be consistent in spanking your child after every outburst so he'll realize that aggression never pays."
C) "Encourage your son to watch the devastating consequences of violence portrayed on TV."
D) "Don't be concerned about your child's aggressiveness,unless the behavior pattern continues beyond the fifth grade."
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Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Students judged an averaged,composite face as
A) less attractive than most individual faces because the averaged face was less symmetrical.
B) more attractive than most individual faces because the averaged face was more symmetrical.
C) less attractive than most individual faces because the averaged face was more symmetrical.
D) more attractive than most individual faces because the averaged face was less symmetrical.
Q2) Two social norms that influence altruistic behavior are
A) reciprocity and social-responsibility.
B) social-responsibility and social exchange.
C) reciprocity and equity.
D) social traps and social exchange.
Q3) Our first impressions of those we meet are most likely to be determined by their A) attitudes.
B) intelligence.
C) physical appearance.
D) superordinate goals.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) A boy's sexual desires for his mother and feelings of hostility toward his father constitute what Freud called
A) reaction formation.
B) the Oedipus complex.
C) regression.
D) an oral fixation.
Q2) Using the defense mechanism of projection,a person experiences an internal
A) threat as if it were an external virtue.
B) virtue as if it were an external threat.
C) threat as if it were an external threat.
D) virtue as if it were an external virtue.
Q3) According to Carl Jung,the collective unconscious
A) includes memories of our childhood social tensions.
B) triggers attempts to achieve superiority.
C) contains archetypes derived from our species' universal experiences.
D) is a reservoir for our sexual and aggressive motivations.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
Q5) Compare and contrast the projective tests described in the text.Give an example of an appropriate use of each test and provide criticisms of the Rorschach test in particular.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Features of ________ have been observed to be common among people from a wide variety of cultures.
A) emotional stability
B) genuineness
C) the Big Five traits
D) unconditional positive regard
Q2) Which tests were empirically derived?
A) MBTI and MMPI
B) Rorschach inkblot test and MBTI
C) MMPI and Binet's Scale
D) Eysenck personality questionnaire and MBTI
Q3) The MMPI was originally developed to identify
A) a hierarchy of needs.
B) the Big Five.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) emotional disorders.
Q4) Differentiate between the personality traits introversion and extraversion,and explain the differences between introversion and shyness.Discuss the evidence that suggests that Western cultures prize extraversion over introversion.What are some of the benefits of having an introverted personality?
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Carlson is a politician who credits his past election victories to his own effective communication and hard work;he attributes his past election losses to factors beyond his control.His assessments best illustrate
A) reciprocal determinism.
B) free association.
C) self-serving bias.
D) the spotlight effect.
Q2) Because people are biopsychosocial organisms,the study of personality most clearly benefits from the use of A) free association.
B) projective tests.
C) multiple levels of analysis.
D) unconditional positive regard.
Q3) Individuals with high self-esteem are more likely than those with low self-esteem to A) work persistently at difficult tasks.
B) experience the spotlight effect.
C) dismiss flattering descriptions of themselves as untrue.
D) underestimate the accuracy of their own beliefs.
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) ADHD is diagnosed ________ often in girls than in boys,and ________ percent of 4- to 17-year-olds receive the diagnosis.
A) more;9
B) less;5
C) more;18
D) less;11
Q2) The DSM-5 does NOT
A) include a classification of personality disorders.
B) explain the causes of the various psychological disorders.
C) include a very broad range of psychological disorders.
D) provide guidelines for diagnosing psychological disorders.
Q3) Which of the following is a better predictor of violence than simply having a psychological disorder?
A) the use of alcohol or drugs
B) having a history of previous violence
C) gun availability
D) all of these factors
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Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Panic attacks are most closely associated with A) depression.
B) anxiety disorders.
C) traumatic brain injuries.
D) compulsions.
Q2) Catherine was home alone one evening when someone broke into her home and robbed her.While this experience was traumatizing,she feels she has become a stronger person because of it.She is demonstrating A) posttraumatic growth.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) obsessive thoughts.
D) a specific phobia.
Q3) Indira,a third-grade teacher,frequently suffers from dizziness,heart palpitations,and fatigue.She is also continually agitated and unable to relax outside the classroom,but she cannot pinpoint a reason for her problems.Her behavior is most indicative of A) social anxiety disorder.
B) a phobia.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Hoffman has always been cautious with his money,but over the past two weeks he has developed grandiose plans to bet his entire life savings on a single horse race.With unrestrained exuberance he has also been giving everybody he sees unsolicited advice on how to make millions in the stock market.Mr.Hoffman's behavior is most indicative of A) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
B) persistent depressive disorder.
C) mania.
D) major depressive disorder.
Q2) The ________ explores how people's assumptions and expectations influence their perceptions.
A) biological perspective
B) social-cognitive perspective
C) behavioral perspective
D) linkage analysis model
Q3) The incidence of major depressive disorder is greatest among those
A) raised together with a nontwin sibling who suffers the disorder.
B) raised apart from a fraternal twin who suffers the disorder.
C) raised together with a fraternal twin who suffers the disorder.
D) raised apart from an identical twin who suffers the disorder.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chances for recovery from schizophrenia are considered to be greatest when the disorder develops
A) rapidly in response to a stressful life situation.
B) slowly over a period of years.
C) in reaction to abnormalities in brain chemistry.
D) during adolescence or early adulthood.
Q2) Schizophrenia is said to be acute when
A) it develops rapidly.
B) recovery is doubtful.
C) it is accompanied by immobility.
D) it is caused by a prenatal viral infection.
Q3) Environmental factors such as viral infections can "turn on" specific genes that predispose schizophrenia.This best illustrates the impact of
A) an impaired theory of mind.
B) selective attention.
C) epigenetic factors.
D) positive symptoms.
Q4) Terrance is receiving treatment for schizophrenia.Discuss some of the causes proposed to explain his development of the disorder.
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorders is more common among men than women?
A) binge eating disorder
B) antisocial personality disorder
C) dissociative identity disorder
D) anorexia nervosa
Q2) Thomas has been diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.He is most likely to show lower
A) emotional intelligence.
B) fugue states.
C) anxiety.
D) fearlessness.
Q3) Anorexia nervosa is typically characterized by
A) an unusually high rate of metabolism.
B) cyclical fluctuations between extreme thinness and plumpness.
C) frequent migraine headaches.
D) a fear of being fat.
Q4) Identify some of the biological and environmental factors associated with the development of antisocial personality disorder.Describe some specific strategies that could be used to encourage those with this disorder to exercise impulse control and behave in a socially responsible manner.
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The repeated association of pleasant relaxing states with stimuli that arouse fear is a central feature of
A) humanistic therapy.
B) systematic desensitization.
C) cognitive therapy.
D) stress inoculation training.
Q2) Client-centered therapists emphasize the importance of
A) interpreting the meaning of clients' nonverbal behaviors.
B) enabling clients to feel unconditionally accepted.
C) helping clients identify a hierarchy of anxiety-arousing experiences.
D) discouraging clients from using drugs.
Q3) Principles of operant conditioning have most directly influenced the development of A) cognitive therapies.
B) humanistic therapies.
C) behavior therapies.
D) psychodynamic therapies.
Q4) Brenda is attending group therapy with others who suffer from anxiety attacks.What are some of the benefits she will experience from group therapy?
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Page 55
Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Research on the effectiveness of psychotherapy indicates that A) clients are generally satisfied with the effectiveness of therapy.
B) clients' perceptions are the best evidence available for the effectiveness of therapy. C) clients tend to underestimate how much they have improved as a result of therapy.
D) therapy is no more effective than having a friend to talk to.
Q2) When a client ends therapy with Dr.Sachsen,he assumes it is because their problems have been resolved.Making the association between the ending of therapy and problem resolution,Dr.Sachsen may be
A) assuming a confirmation bias.
B) making an illusory correlation.
C) establishing resilience.
D) creating transference.
Q3) Which of the following is most clearly a key element shared by all effective psychotherapies?
A) desensitization
B) a need for self-justification
C) meta-analysis
D) a new perspective on life
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Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Q1) Several widely used antidepressant drugs are most often called ________ because they are used in treating disorders other than depression-from anxiety to strokes.
A) magnetic stimulators
B) mood-stabilizing medications
C) selective-serotonin-reuptake-inhibitors
D) norepinephrine blockers
Q2) One possible explanation for the delayed effect of antidepressant drugs is that the increased availability of serotonin seems to promote
A) increased metabolic rates.
B) tardive dyskinesia.
C) decreased norepinephrine levels.
D) neurogenesis.
Q3) Bolstering parents' and teachers' skills at nurturing children's achievements and resulting self-esteem best illustrates
A) exposure therapy.
B) biomedical therapy.
C) a therapeutic lifestyle.
D) preventive mental health.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Appendix
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Sample Questions
Q1) The practice of 360-degree feedback is especially likely to involve
A) a democratic management style.
B) the experience of flow.
C) behavior checklists and rating scales.
D) transformational leadership.
Q2) You attend a job interview that you have been extremely excited about.The interviewer is asking specific questions from a form and writing down your answers.What kind of interview is this?
A) casual conversation
B) unstructured interview
C) predictive interview
D) structured interview
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an interest type assessed by the U.S.Department of Labor Occupational Information Network?
A) realistic
B) investigative
C) conventional
D) interpersonal
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