

Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Behavioral Neuroscience explores the biological foundations of behavior, focusing on how the brain and nervous system influence actions, emotions, and cognitive processes. This course examines the structure and function of neural systems, the biological mechanisms of sensation, perception, learning, memory, motivation, and emotion, as well as the impact of genetics and environment on behavior. Students will gain insight into experimental methods used in neuroscience research and consider real-world applications and implications for understanding mental health, neurological disorders, and human behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W. Kalat
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15 Chapters
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Q1) Biological psychologists are primarily interested in the study of the physiological, evolutionary, and ____.
A) social influence on attitudes
B) developmental mechanisms of behavior and experience
C) use of reinforcement to change behavior
D) mental well-being of plants
Answer: B
Q2) Chalmers' fundamental "hard problem" is:
A) knowing why we sleep.
B) understanding how neurotransmitters are created.
C) wondering how someone could be a dualist.
D) why and how brain activity is associated with consciousness.
Answer: D
Q3) The view of the brain from above is called the ____ view.
A) anterior
B) ventral
C) dorsal
D) posterior
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The endoplasmic reticulum is a:
A) network of thin tubes that transport newly synthesized proteins.
B) site where the cell synthesizes new protein molecules.
C) structure that separates the inside of the cell from the outside.
D) structure that contains the chromosomes.
Answer: A
Q2) When the potential across a membrane reaches threshold, the sodium channels:
A) open to let sodium enter the cell rapidly.
B) close to prevent sodium from entering the cell.
C) open to let sodium exit the cell rapidly.
D) close to prevent sodium from exiting the cell.
Answer: A
Q3) Protein channels allow ____ to cross the cell membrane.
A) large charged molecules
B) small charged molecules
C) large uncharged molecules
D) small uncharged molecules
Answer: B
Q4) List the parts of a neuron.
Answer: Dendrites, a soma (cell body), an axon, and presynaptic terminals.
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Q1) Which neurotransmitter has been repeatedly connected with addictive drugs?
A) epinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
Answer: D
Q2) Simultaneous weak stimuli at different locations produce a greater reflexive response than one of the stimuli by itself. What is this phenomenon called?
A) Sherrington's law
B) temporal summation
C) spatial summation
D) the all-or-none law
Answer: C
Q3) What is the function of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase?
A) It synthesizes acetylcholine from the diet.
B) It increases the sensitivity of the postsynaptic cell to acetylcholine.
C) It blocks further release of the transmitter acetylcholine.
D) It breaks acetylcholine down into components for recycling.
Answer: D
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Q1) In which area of the brain would one find the tectum, tegmentum, superior and inferior colliculi, and substantia nigra?
A) Midbrain
B) Hindbrain
C) Reticular formation
D) Forebrain
Q2) Lamina IV is prominent in:
A) all the primary sensory areas.
B) the secondary sensory areas.
C) primary motor areas.
D) spinal cord.
Q3) Monkeys with Kluver-Bucy syndrome fail to show normal fears and anxieties after damage to the:
A) temporal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) occipital lobe.
D) frontal lobe.
Q4) Name the major parts of the ventricular system.
Q5) Briefly discuss some of the limits of brain research methods.
Q6) Describe the Bell-Magendie law.
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Q1) In response to nervous system injury, neurotrophins:
A) cause the neuron's death.
B) reduce inflammation due to this injury.
C) increase regrowth of damaged axons.
D) promote apoptosis.
Q2) The number of neurons in the brain is continually increasing throughout life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common cause of brain damage in young people is:
A) infection.
B) gunshot wounds.
C) stroke.
D) closed head injury.
Q4) Axons sort themselves over the surface of the target area:
A) by following a gradient of chemicals.
B) through apoptosis.
C) through necrosis.
D) based on their size.
Q5) Define differentiation during neural development.
Q6) Describe the relationship of sensory representation and phantom limb sensation.
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Q1) According to research on visual development in animals, probably the best way to treat amblyopia is to cover:
A) both eyes for a few months early in life.
B) the strong eye for a period of time early in life.
C) the lazy eye for a period of time early in life.
D) the strong eye for a period of time during adulthood.
Q2) The retinex theory accounts for the principle of color constancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At the level of rods and cones, the ____ theory seems to fit best, while at the level of the bipolar cells, the ____ theory seems to fit best.
A) opponent process; volley
B) volley; trichromatic
C) opponent process; trichromatic
D) trichromatic; opponent process
Q4) Damage to area V4 would likely cause problems with color constancy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is blindsight?
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Q1) Pheromone receptors in humans are located in the:
A) tongue.
B) VNO.
C) olfactory mucosa.
D) cochlea.
Q2) After hurting your elbow in a biking accident, the gate-control theory of pain suggests that to reduce the pain, you could:
A) eat hot peppers.
B) rub it gently.
C) focus on how painful it is.
D) block endorphin release.
Q3) The function of the semicircular canals is to:
A) locate the source of low frequency tones.
B) locate the source of high frequency tones.
C) detect movement of the head.
D) establish a sense of direction while traveling.
Q4) Opiates exert their pain relieving effects by their action in the periphery of the body.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When are the cells in the premotor cortex (in contrast to the primary motor cortex) most active?
A) In preparation for movements
B) During movements
C) At or after the end of movements
D) During inhibition of movements
Q2) The posterior parietal cortex:
A) is the main area for touch and other body information.
B) keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world.
C) is active during preparations for a movement and less active during movement itself.
D) responds to lights, noises, and other signals for a movement.
Q3) Which of the following is a limitation of using L-dopa for Parkinson's disease?
A) It only helps those who are in the later stages.
B) It doesn't cross the blood-brain barrier.
C) It can contribute to a greater loss of dopamine neurons.
D) It blocks glutamate receptors.
Q4) A striated muscle controls movement of the body in relation to the environment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is a strong piece of evidence that the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) generates the circadian rhythm?
A) Stimulation of the SCN awakens an individual.
B) SCN neurons generate a circadian rhythm of impulses even after removal from the brain.
C) Different groups of SCN neurons reach their peak of activity at different times of day.
D) Certain animals that are born without an SCN are inactive throughout the day.
Q2) Another aspect of sleep's contribution to memory relates to:
A) delta waves
B) sleep spindles.
C) alpha waves.
D) PKO spikes.
Q3) European swifts sleep:
A) after a meal.
B) only in their nest.
C) during flight.
D) only at night.
Q4) Provide three explanations for why we sleep.
Q5) Describe how light resets the SCN.
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Q1) After damage to the lateral hypothalamus, animals:
A) show normal osmotic thirst but not hypovolemic thirst.
B) show normal hypovolemic thirst but not osmotic thirst.
C) eat less.
D) eat more.
Q2) What insulin levels would we expect to find when an animal is putting on extra fat in preparation for migration or hibernation?
A) very low, as in diabetes
B) normal
C) high
D) unstable and rapidly fluctuating
Q3) Newborn animals survive at first on mother's milk.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some cases of obesity can be traced to a single gene that affects melanocortin receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how bulimia nervosa resembles drug addiction.
Q6) Briefly describe the function of the lateral hypothalamus.
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Q1) In women, which hormone stimulates the growth of a follicle in the ovary?
A) FSH
B) ACTH
C) TSH
D) prolactin
Q2) Which is true of androgens and estrogens?
A) Only males have androgens; only females have estrogens.
B) Only males have estrogens; only females have androgens.
C) Males and females have androgens and estrogens in similar amounts.
D) Males and females both have androgens and estrogens, but in different amounts.
Q3) What does a coral goby fish do if its mate dies after eggs have been laid?
A) A male will abandon the eggs and find a new mate.
B) A female will care for her young and then die.
C) Either sex will care for the eggs and, if necessary, change sex to form a new mating pair.
D) Either sex will abandon the eggs to find a new mate.
Q4) Testosterone levels continue to increase throughout a human male's lifetime.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Prolonged high cortisol levels are associated with increased hippocampal damage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which brain area is essential for the extreme emotional impact that produces PTSD?
A) corpus callosum
B) substantia nigra
C) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
D) amygdala
Q3) Of the following choices, the most likely explanation for how testosterone may be associated with violent behavior is that it:
A) may induce greater attention to situations of aggression and conflict.
B) creates greater muscle mass.
C) reduces inhibitions.
D) inhibits cells in the amygdala.
Q4) After damage to the amygdala, what happens to a rat's startle reflex?
A) The rat shows no startle reflex.
B) The rat's startle reflex does not vary from one situation to another.
C) The rat shows an exaggerated startle reflex.
D) The rat shows a startle reflex only when in the presence of danger signals.
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Q1) H.M. was unable to form any kind of new memories after his surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Recent researchers have felt that Lashley's conclusions about the results of his search for the engram reflected some inappropriate assumptions. One of those assumptions was that:
A) memory involves a physical change in the nervous system.
B) all kinds of memory are physiologically the same.
C) more than one kind of memory exists.
D) different memories change different sets of neurons.
Q3) A long-term depression (LTD) in a neuron is a decreased response at synapses that occurs when:
A) axons fire rapidly.
B) axons fire slowly.
C) an excitatory synapse and an inhibitory synapse fire together.
D) an axon excites a synaptic receptor distant from its usual site.
Q4) Describe the difference between declarative and procedural memory.
Q5) What is habituation as it relates to memory research?
Q6) Describe Lashley's concept of an Engram.
Q7) What is Korsakoff's syndrome?
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Q1) People with right-hemisphere damage have particular trouble with tasks that require:
A) understanding sentences with a complex grammatical structure.
B) spatial processing.
C) control of the right hand.
D) memory of recent events.
Q2) Damage to the corpus callosum prevents:
A) hallucinations.
B) release of pituitary hormones.
C) the exchange of information between the two hemispheres.
D) the exchange of information between pre- and postsynaptic membranes.
Q3) Studies of nonhuman language abilities call attention to the:
A) ability of many species to learn language.
B) close relationship between language and classical conditioning.
C) difficulty of defining language.
D) close relationship between language and brain size.
Q4) People born without a corpus callosum can perform many tasks in which split-brain patients fail.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Bipolar patients show an increased expression of genes associated with:
A) inflammation.
B) memory loss.
C) proliferation.
D) insomnia.
Q2) The areas with the most consistent signs of abnormality in schizophrenics include the:
A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
B) medulla.
C) occipital lobes.
D) parietal lobes.
Q3) The use of electroconvulsive shock declined in the 1950's because:
A) it was outlawed.
B) a new theory of depression arose.
C) antidepressant drugs became available.
D) a federal report concluded that it was almost never effective.
Q4) Describe the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and give some examples of each.
Q5) Describe some of the alternate treatments for depression.
Q6) Discuss some of the leading theories on the neural causes of schizophrenia.
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