Course Introduction
Behavioral Neuroscience
Pre-Test Questions
Behavioral Neuroscience explores the biological foundations of behavior, examining how the brain and nervous system influence actions, emotions, and cognitive processes. This course covers the structure and function of neural circuits, neurotransmission, and the physiological bases of sensation, perception, learning, memory, motivation, and emotion. Students will investigate the relationships between neural mechanisms and complex behaviors, consider the impact of genetics and environment, and review current methods in brain research. Through lectures, discussions, and practical examples, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how biological processes underpin human and animal behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Sensation and Perception 10th Edition by E. Bruce Goldstein
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Perception
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Q1) If a person sees the unambiguous "rat" stimulus, and then views the ambiguous "rat-man" figure, the person will most likely report seeing _____.
A) a rat, because of the effect of knowledge
B) a man, because we tend to see things that match our species
C) a rat, because of the effect of action
D) a rat or a man equally
Answer: A
Q2) Abdel works for a company that designs adapted products to help people who have trouble grasping items. Today he is meeting with children who have difficulty grasping as a result of traumatic brain injury and has provided them with a supply of crayons that have been adapted in various ways. Abdel watches as the children color with the crayons. Which question is he most likely asking
A) How quickly do the children react to the crayons?
B) How do the children interact with the crayons?
C) How do the children describe the crayons?
D) Can the children identify the crayons?
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Beginning of the Perceptual Process
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Q1) What is the "blind spot"
(b) Discuss two reasons why we are not usually aware of the blind spot.
Answer: There is one area in the retina where there are no receptors. This occurs where the nerve fibers that make up the optic nerve leave the eye. Because of the absence of receptors, this place is called the blind spot. One reason we are not usually aware of the blind spot is that the blind spot is located off to the side of our visual field, where objects are not in sharp focus. Because of this and because we don't know exactly where to look for it, the blind spot is hard to detect. But the most important reason that we don't see the blind spot is that some mechanism in the brain "fills in" the place where the image disappears.
Q2) Visible light is between _____ and _____ nm within the electromagnetic spectrum.
A) 100; 400
B) 400; 700
C) 500; 1000
D) 900; 1500
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Neural Processing
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Q1) In the 1990s, researchers discovered an area on the underside of the temporal lobe of the human cortex that was named the _____ face area because it responded strongly to faces.
A) fusiform
B) cingulate
C) geniculate
D) occipital
Answer: A
Q2) You can create a version of the _____ by illuminating a light-colored surface with a desk lamp and casting a shadow with a piece of paper.
A) Hermann Grid
B) Mach bands
C) Benary Cross
D) illusory square
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cortical Organization
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Q1) Zghsx#8j, a visitor from another planet, is curious about cars. She takes the battery out of the car, and finds out that the car won't start and the lights and stereo don't work. Her "research" is most closely related to the method called _____.
A) ablation
B) transcranial magnetic stimulation
C) transcendental mediation
D) microstimulation
Q2) The brain imaging technique that creates images of structures in the brain, but cannot indicate neural activity, is _____.
A) fMRI
B) Ablation
C) PET scan
D) MRI
Q3) Summarize the Ganel et al. (2008) research on length estimation and grasping tasks, and what the implication of this research is for different processing streams.
Q4) Describe the procedure, results, and implications of the Quiroga et al's (2005) "Halle Berry neuron" study.
Q5) Describe how an object such as a tree is represented in the striate cortex.
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Chapter 5: Perceiving Objects and Scenes
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Q1) Naselaris et al. (2009) developed the _____ decoder, which is used to make predictions about characteristics of a scene such as contrast and shape.
A) form
B) structural?
C) orientation?
D) semantic?
Q2) Global image features are _____.
A) individualistic
B) slowly perceived?
C) slowly processed
D) holistic?
Q3) Humans need approximately _____ to perceive the gist of a scene.
A) 250 milliseconds
B) 1000 milliseconds?
C) 2 seconds?
D) 5 seconds?
Q4) State, define, and give an example (in words and/or drawings) for each of five Gestalt principles of perceptual organization.
Q5) Describe the how Bayesian inference can be used to understand perception.
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Chapter 6: Visual Attention
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Q1) _____ can be generated based on saliency principles and used to predict early fixations in a scene.
A) Contrast maps
B) Salience decoders
C) Interest point files
D) Saliency maps
Q2) How is talking on a cell phone while driving different from talking to passengers while driving
Q3) What is the relationship between change blindness and continuity errors (b) Describe a specific example of a "continuity error".
Q4) In Grimes' 1996 study, _____ of subjects failed to notice a 180-degree rotation of Cinderella's Castle at Disneyland.
A) 15%?
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 45%
Q5) Discuss how Treisman's feature integration theory addresses the binding problem. (b) What are illusory conjunctions, and why are they support for feature integration theory?
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Chapter 7: Taking Action
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Q1) When expert gymnasts close their eyes while performing a somersault, they perform
A) better because they eliminated visual distractions
B) as well as with their eyes open, since doing the routine is automatic
C) more poorly, because they couldn't make "in-air" corrections
D) better because they usually train with their eyes closed
Q2) What are affordances
(b) Provide an example of an object and what action it affords.
(c) Describe whether or not an object could have more than one affordance associated with it.
Q3) The movement of elements of the environment relative to the observer is called
A) optic flow
B) the phi movement
C) an affordance
D) motion ecology
Q4) Describe the role landmarks play in wayfinding.
Q5) One researcher found that tennis players who have recently won a match perceive the net as being lower than those who have recently lost. Describe how these differences in perception might arise.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Perceiving Motion
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Q1) The _____ is demonstrated when you look through a circle you make with your fingers, and move a pencil either horizontally or diagonally behind your fingers.
A) kinetic depth effect
B) structure-from-motion phenomenon
C) correspondence problem
D) aperture problem
Q2) In the pooling solution to the aperture problem, MT neurons receive signals from a number of neurons in the _____ and then combine these signals to determine the actual direction of motion.
A) striate cortex
B) prefrontal cortex
C) cerebellum?
D) central sulcus
Q3) Brian looks at the moon and some clouds at night. He perceives the moon moving through the clouds. This is an example of _____.
A) induced motion
B) the stroboscopic effect
C) the Reichardt effect
D) the Shedlock effect
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Perceiving Color
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Q1) The pattern of firing of receptor activity in response to red would be _____.
A) large firing from the S receptor, medium firing from the M receptor, and little firing from the L receptor
B) large firing from the S receptor, large firing from the M receptor, and little firing from the L receptor
C) little firing from the S receptor, a moderate firing from the M receptor, and large firing from the L receptor
D) large firing from the S receptor, large firing from the M receptor, and large firing from the L receptor
Q2) Adding more white to a color changes the color's _____.
A) hue
B) wavelength
C) brightness
D) saturation
Q3) Hering's support for opponent-process theory was _____ in nature.
A) neurological
B) behavioral
C) physiological
D) phenomenological
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Perceiving Depth and Size
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Q1) According to Gregory's misapplied size constancy scaling hypothesis, we perceive the "arrows pointing out" version of the Muller-Lyer illusion as _____.
A) longer, because it is perceived as being further away
B) longer, because it is perceived as being closer
C) shorter, because it is perceived as further away
D) shorter, because it is perceived as being closer
Q2) Of the oculomotor depth cues, convergence is _____ than accommodation.
A) less effective
B) more effective
C) equally effective
D) less automatic
Q3) Deletion and accretion are _____.
A) especially effective when viewing non-moving displays
B) only important when both eyes are open
C) effective for detecting depth when moving sideways
D) ineffective for judging depth in natural environments
Q4) Describe the differences in how depth is perceived in cats, insects, and bats.
Q5) Discuss motion-based depth perception cues.
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Chapter 11: Hearing I: Basic Processes and Pitch Perception
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Q1) The wave form pattern of a pure tone is a(n) _____.
A) square wave
B) random wave
C) asymmetrical wave
D) sine wave
Q2) When listening to music, which method will help ensure you hear all of the frequencies represented in the piece
A) Hold volume constant throughout the piece.
B) Turn the volume down (e.g., 20 dB) so the music is quiet.
C) Turn the volume up (e.g., 80 dB) so the music is loud.
D) Play white noise in the background to allow better discrimination.
Q3) The function of the muscles of the middle ear is to _____.
A) intensify sounds at high intensities
B) intensify sounds at high frequencies
C) dampen the ossicles vibrations at high intensities
D) divert high frequencies to the oval window and low frequencies to the round window
Q4) Describe the methods, results, and implications of research on the infant's ability to recognize the mother's voice.
Q5) Briefly describe the major principle of Békésy's place theory of hearing.
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Chapter 12: Hearing II: Location and Organization
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Q1) Infant studies reveal that the dominant stress patterns of their native language can influence perception grouping by _____.
A) 1 to 2 months of age
B) 5 to 6 months of age
C) 7 to 8 months of age
D) 10 to 12 months of age
Q2) Some people who are blind are able to use echolocation to locate objects and perceive shapes by making clicking noises and listening to the reverberations. When expert echolocators use this technique, _____.
A) they have 45% more activation in their frontal lobes than sighted individuals
B) they rely only on activation from the occipital lobe
C) the clicking sounds activate the auditory and visual cortices
D) the clicking sounds activate A1 but not subcortical structures
Q3) What did the designers of The Walt Disney Hall do to maximize acoustics
A) Seat cushions were designed to absorb the same amount as an average person.
B) Increased the middle frequency to high frequency ratio.
C) Designed the hall to have an ideal reverberation time of 2.0 seconds.
D) Eliminated any indirect sound so that direct sound is maximized.
Q4) What factors are important to consider when designing concert halls?
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Chapter 13: Speech Perception
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Q1) Saffran et al. (1996) found that the ability to use transitional probabilities to segment sounds develops around the age of _____.
A) 2 months
B) 8 months
C) 18 months
D) 2 years
Q2) A sound spectrogram is a plot of _____ as a function of _____, with darker areas representing greater intensity.
A) frequency; time
B) amplitude; frequency
C) time; amplitude
D) time; spatial location of sound source
Q3) Micelli et al. (1980) found that brain damage to the parietal lobe caused the patient to have difficulty discriminating between syllables. In addition, Micelli et al. found that
A) all these patients could not understand words
B) all these patients had "word deafness"
C) some of these patients could not hear pure tones
D) some of these patients could still understand words
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Cutaneous Senses
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Q1) Experience-dependent plasticity has been found to occur for _____.
A) the somatosensory system only
B) the auditory system only
C) only the auditory and somatosensory systems
D) the somatosensory, auditory, and visual systems
Q2) Which mechanoreceptor is located deeper in the skin and responds continuously to stimulation and is associated with perceiving stretching of the skin
A) Pacinian corpuscles?
B) Ruffini cylinders
C) Merkel receptors
D) Meissner corpuscles
Q3) Name and discuss the differences between the four types of mechanoreceptors.
Q4) Jan is a right-handed violin player - she bows with her right hand and fingers the strings with her left. The cortical representation for the fingers on her left hand is _____.
A) equal to the area for the fingers on her right hand
B) equal to the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician
C) larger than the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician
D) smaller than the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chemical Senses
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Q1) The "life-span" of olfactory receptors in humans is _____.
A) one day
B) five to seven weeks
C) seven years
D) 60 years
Q2) The substance amiloride _____.
A) blocks the flow of sucrose to taste receptors
B) blocks the flow of sodium to taste receptors
C) increases neural responses to salt detection
D) neutralizes bitter tastes by confusing the signal
Q3) The _____ papillae are mushroom-shaped and found on the tip and sides of the tongue.
A) filiform
B) fungiform
C) foliate
D) circumvillate
Q4) In one study, males were asked to rate the scent of a t-shirt worn by a woman three nights during ovulation or three nights when not in ovulation. Discuss the results of this study and relate them to reproductive fertility and the human ability to sense pheromones.
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