Behavioral Neuroscience Mock Exam - 2012 Verified Questions

Behavioral Neuroscience

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Behavioral Neuroscience explores the biological foundations of behavior, focusing on the structure and function of the nervous system and its influence on human and animal actions. The course examines how brain processes, neural mechanisms, and neurotransmitter systems govern functions such as perception, emotion, learning, memory, and motivation. Through an integration of biological, psychological, and experimental perspectives, students investigate key topics including neural plasticity, sensory processing, the neural correlates of mental disorders, and the effects of brain injury. Emphasis is placed on critical analysis of research methods and current findings in the field, preparing students for advanced study or diverse careers in neuroscience, psychology, or health sciences.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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84 Chapters

2012 Verified Questions

2012 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Neuropsychology uses information from many disciplines. Which discipline is NOT one of those?

A) ethology

B) pharmacology

C) biophysics

D) mycology

Answer: D

Q2) Sherrington's studies of the reflex arc in dogs led him to conclude that:

A) there are gaps between individual communicating neurons.

B) communicating neurons are directly connected with one another.

C) all neural communication is electrical in nature.

D) reflexes are coordinated by the pineal body, even in dogs.

Answer: A

Q3) A person who cannot understand how the brain ties together past perceptions and actions in a unified memory is pondering:

A) apraxia.

B) the binding problem.

C) aphasia.

D) the neuron theory.

Answer: B

Page 3

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the contributions of psychometrics to the field of neuropsychology.

Answer Key

Answer: The standardization of measures of various abilities developed for IQ testing has been employed to objectively evaluate the effects of dysfunction in specific brain regions. These data provided the first details of functional models of the human brain.

Q2) Sherrington ___

A)chemical neurotransmission

B)electrical stimulation of muscle contractions

C)ionic conduction of nerve impulse

D)synapse

Answer: D

Q3) Fritsch and Hitzig ___

A)conduction aphasia

B)recovery of function

C)electrical excitability of the cortex

D)left hemisphere localization for speech

Answer: C

Q4) Sketch and label the main parts of a neuron.

Answer: See Figure Answer: 9 Major Parts of a Neuron in the text.

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for the transmission of sensory signals from the body to the contralateral side of the brain?

A) the somatic

B) the autonomic

C) the spinal

D) the parasympathetic

Answer: A

Q2) Who thought that mental processes came from the heart, not the brain?

A) Plato

B) Aristotle

C) Hippocrates

D) Galen

Answer: B

Q3) Who coined the term "synapse"?

A) Bernstein

B) Galvani

C) Huxley

D) Sherrington

Answer Key

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) I left footprints over 3 million years ago. I was found by R. A. Dart. He named me:

A) Homo habilis.

B) Bigfoot.

C) Homo erectus.

D) Australopithecus.

Q2) I made simple stone tools. I am about 2 million years old. Louis Leakey found me in the Olduvai Gorge. My name is _____.

A) Australopithecus.

B) Homo erectus.

C) Homo habilis.

D) Homo sapiens.

Q3) The evolutionary adaptation by which juvenile features of predecessor species become the adult features of descendent species is:

A) phylogeny.

B) monotony.

C) neoteny.

D) ontogeny.

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) H. erectus ___

A)toolmakers

B)appeared in the past 200,000 years

C)larger brain and migrated to Europe and Asia

D)smaller brain but probably used tools

Q2) How does the field of human neuropsychology benefit from the study of nonhuman animals?

Q3) toolmakers ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q4) routinely unexpressed as a trait ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q5) What is meant by the term "encephalization quotient"? How is it calculated? What is the approximate value for humans?

Q6) Define species - typical behaviors. Page 7

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Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) The MOST appropriate alternative for Jane Goodall is _____.

A) chimpanzees

B) Louis Leakey

C) human adults, young chimps

D) southern ape

Q2) The theory that the genus Homo (human) began in Africa is based primarily on data from which of the following?

A) the fossil record

B) tools presently used in various locations around the world

C) the DNA of extinct hominids

D) historical records

Q3) The _____ has the largest encephalization quotient.

A) elephant

B) rat

C) chimpanzee

D) dolphin

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The brain originates from a single cell termed a _____.

A) blast cell

B) neuron

C) mother cell

D) neural stem cell

Q2) A cortical region with a relatively thick layer IV would MOST likely be associated with:

A) motor processing.

B) sensory processing.

C) emotional processing.

D) the frontal cortex.

Q3) The stage at which neurons and glial cells are first differentiated from one another is the _____ stage.

A) stem cell

B) blast cell

C) progenitor cell

D) migrational

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) contralateral ___

A)carries messages toward a given structure

B)on the same side

C)carries messages from a given structure

D)on the opposite side

Q2) corpus callosum ___

A)interhemispheric connections

B)controlling movements and associative learning

C)personal memory formation

D)sensory relay

Q3) What is the relationship between primary, secondary, and tertiary regions of the cortex in information processing?

Q4) List six cranial nerves with their function and one typical symptom of dysfunction.

Q5) Purkinje cell ___

A)axon bundle in the CNS

B)groups of cell bodies in the CNS

C)netlike

D)cerebellum

Q6) Diagram the functional divisions of the human nervous system.

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The _____ is NOT part of the basal ganglia.

A) putamen

B) globus pallidus

C) caudate nucleus

D) hippocampus.

Q2) The _____ is located in the epithalamus.

A) hippocampus

B) pineal body

C) septum

D) pituitary gland

Q3) How many thoracic segments are in the spinal cord?

A) 8

B) 12

C) 5

D) 10

Q4) The _____ is a major way station between the sensory organs and the neocortex.

A) cerebellum

B) amygdala

C) thalamus

D) putamen

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) The main ion responsible for the restoration of the resting potential is _____.

A) sodium

B) calcium

C) potassium

D) magnesium

Q2) A long, myelinated axon lacking nodes of Ranvier would probably:

A) propagate nerve impulses faster than one with nodes of Ranvier.

B) propagate impulses at the same rate as one with nodes of Ranvier.

C) not propagate nerve impulses more slowly than one with nodes of Ranvier.

D) propagate nerve impulses backward.

Q3) The biochemical process by which the information encoded in RNA is used to make proteins is:

A) translation.

B) transcription.

C) transduction.

D) transliteration.

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) axon hillock ___

A)carries information to terminal buttons

B)collects information

C)integrates information

D)sends information to another neuron

Q2) Describe the interaction between concentration and voltage gradients in the establishment of the membrane potential.

Q3) lysosomes ___

A)contains degrading enzymes; stores and moves wastes

B)contains genetic code for proteins

C)protein molecule assembly site

D)builds proteins

Q4) Draw a simple diagram of a phospholipid bilayer, with "heads" and "tails" properly oriented.

Q5) A- ___

A)depolarization

B)protein anions (molecules)

C)hyperpolarization

D)maintains resting potential

Page 14

Q6) Distinguish between concentration gradient and voltage gradients.

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The "power plants" of the cell, which provide most of the energy for cell functions, are the _____.

A) Golgi bodies

B) endoplasmic reticula

C) mitochondria

D) lysosomes

Q2) The phrase "Halle Berry neurons" refers to _____.

A) the most attractive neurons in the brain

B) the neurons responsible for identifying people

C) the neurons that are the last to break down with old age

D) the implication that people have separate neurons for detecting and representing every object

Q3) Membrane pumps exchange Na⁺ ions for _____ ions.

A) Ca²⁺

B) K⁺

C) Cl^-

D) H²⁺

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) The substance that Otto Loewi found slowed the heart is now called _____.

A) epinephrine

B) acetylcholine

C) glutamate

D) norepinephrine

Q2) Reuptake of a neurotransmitter is accomplished by _____.

A) the postsynaptic neuron

B) surrounding glial cells

C) nearby capillaries

D) the presynaptic neuron

Q3) The amount of neurotransmitter released from the presynaptic terminal in response to a single action potential depends, in part, on _____.

A) the amount of Ca²⁺ that enters the presynaptic terminal

B) the amount of Na⁺ that enters the presynaptic terminal

C) the size of the synaptic vesicles

D) the length of the axon

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) synaptic vesicles ___

A)vesicle clusters

B)postsynaptic potentials

C)neurotransmitter release

D)neurotransmitter molecule containers

Q2) GABA ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q3) locus coeruleus ___

A)norepinephrine

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

Q4) Discuss the differences between classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides. Give two examples of each.

Q5) somatostatin ___

A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.

Q6) What are the four criteria for identifying a substance as a neurotransmitter?

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between

Neurons

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Q1) Which neurotransmitter is primarily affected by the drug Viagra?

A) met-enkephalin

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) nitric oxide

Q2) Transmitter - activated receptors are located _____.

A) on the presynaptic membrane

B) on the postsynaptic membrane

C) on both the pre- and postsynaptic membranes

D) in the nuclear membrane only

Q3) The loss of neurons whose main neurotransmitter is _____ is thought to be involved in the memory deficits seen in Alzheimer's disease.

A) dopamine

B) norepinephrine

C) acetylcholine

D) serotonin

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Antipsychotic drugs are thought to exert their effects, at least in part, by blocking one type of:

A) glutamate receptor.

B) thought process.

C) dopamine receptor.

D) action potential.

Q2) The blood-brain barrier is established by:

A) neurons and astrocytes.

B) neurons and smooth muscle cells.

C) endothelial cells and neurons.

D) endothelial cells and astrocytes.

Q3) Which of the following factors is more associated with the development of sensitization than with the development of tolerance for a particular drug?

A) fatigue during task performance

B) neuroplastic brain changes only at the drug's site of action

C) regular use

D) occasional use

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is it potentially dangerous to simultaneously take benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

Q2) caffeine ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q3) heroin ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q4) chlorpromazine ___

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)acetylcholine

D)dopamine

Q5) Why does curare produce paralysis but not affect consciousness?

Q7) Identify and describe the three kinds of drug tolerance. Page 21

Q6) What characterizes drugs that can easily reach the brain?

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cannabis seems to act on receptors for the neurotransmitter _____.

A) psilocybin

B) serotonin

C) anandamide

D) glycine

Q2) Which kind of tolerance causes the body to create more enzymes to break a drug down?

A) learned

B) cellular

C) metabolic

D) desensitization

Q3) Which statement is NOT true of antidepressant drugs?

A) They have selective and very specific actions on the brain.

B) They improve chemical transmission in noradrenaline and histamine synapses.

C) It takes several weeks for their users to exhibit antidepressant effects.

D) Their use can result in increased anxiety and memory impairment.

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) The readiness potential is associated with activity in the _____ indicating _____.

A) motor cortex; an impending movement

B) visual cortex; an impending movement

C) somatosensory cortex; stimulus expectancy

D) frontal cortex; stimulus expectancy

Q2) The signal measured in a PET scan is generated by:

A) blood oxygen levels.

B) magnetic fields.

C) radioactive decay.

D) transmembrane ion flux.

Q3) The basis for many dynamic imaging systems is that active brain regions _____.

A) are warmer than less active brain regions

B) consume more glucose than less active regions

C) have more dendrites than less active regions

D) move slightly more than less active regions.

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) What are the most desired characteristics of a dynamic imaging system? Which existing technology comes closest to meeting these characteristics?

Q2) PET ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q3) magnetoencephalography ___

A)sum of graded potentials of cortical neurons

B)stimulus-linked brainwave

C)individual action potentials

D)SQUID

Q4) How does diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) produce images of axon fibers?

Q5) What has been found with using fNIRS to monitor the brain activity of newborns while listening to familiar and unfamiliar languages?

Q6) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of single - cell and electroencephalographic recording techniques?

Q7) What are some theoretical limitations to data gathered via single - cell recording?

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Which is a method of enhancing conventional X - ray radiography by taking advantage of the fact that X - rays are not absorbed by air?

A) pneumoencephalography

B) computerized tomography

C) positron emission tomography

D) magnetic resonance imaging

Q2) The use of annihilation events is part of the _____ technique of brain imaging.

A) PET

B) MEG

C) fMRI

D) EEG

Q3) Tom was in a car accident. He was given a series of tests to see if his skull or brain were damaged in the accident. Which tests may he have been given?

A) an X-ray to assess skull damage and a CT scan to assess brain damage

B) an X-ray to assess brain damage and a CT scan to assess skull damage

C) an X-ray to assess skull damage and cerebral angiography to assess cognitive function

D) a CT scan to assess brain damage and cerebral angiography to assess skull damage

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) The Müller - Lyer illusion shows the importance of _____ in perception.

A) concentration

B) sensation

C) contextual cues

D) accommodation

Q2) The area of the somatosensory cortex devoted to an area of the body surface is proportional to the:

A) density of sensory receptors on the area.

B) size of the area relative to the rest of the body.

C) number of somatotopic maps for that region of the body.

D) the number of relay nuclei between the body surface and cortex.

Q3) Which of the following relays in the auditory system is the MOST peripheral (closest to the ear)?

A) the primary auditory cortex

B) the inferior colliculus

C) the medial geniculate

D) the cochlear nucleus

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Identify four subsystems in the visual system, and describe their postulated functions.

Q2) Golgi tendon organs ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Q3) What functional properties are shared by all sensory systems?

Answer Key

Q4) area 3 ___

A)taste

B)vision

C)somatosensation

D)audition

Q5) otolith organs ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Page 28

Q6) How might synesthesia occur? (Hint: there is no definitive answer to this one.)

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) The main thalamic nucleus that sends signals about taste to the cortex is the _____.

A) lateral geniculate

B) medial geniculate

C) ventral posteromedial

D) ventral basal lateral

Answer Key

Q2) Pitch is MOST closely related to _____.

A) loudness

B) frequency

C) location

D) timbre

Q3) To communicate with the brain, the sensory systems use:

A) different codes depending on the type of receptors.

B) different codes depending on the target in the brain.

C) different codes depending on the reflexes and movements made in relation to the stimulation.

D) a common code to communicate, sending information to the brain with action potentials.

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons.

A) Renshaw

B) bipolar

C) mirror

D) copycat

Q2) The flocculus is part of the _____.

A) basal ganglia

B) brainstem

C) cerebellum

D) thalamus

Q3) Exaggerated, excessive movements are characteristic of degeneration of the:

A) temporal cortex.

B) substantia nigra.

C) caudate putamen.

D) nucleus accumbens.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) What is meant by the term "movement lexicon"?

Q2) Michael Graziano ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q3) primary motor cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q4) Wilder Penfield ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q5) Describe how motor cortex and corresponding parietal cortex topograghical regions produce movement.

Q6) From medial to lateral locations in the cerebellar hemispheres, how do cerebellar neurons encode movements for different body regions?

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) The sequencing of movements is handled by neurons located primarily in the

A) premotor cortex

B) primary motor cortex

C) cerebellum

D) prefrontal cortex

Q2) In Evarts's experiment, when are neurons in the wrist region of the motor cortex inactive?

A) when the monkey prepares to flex its wrist

B) when the monkey flexes its wrist

C) when the monkey has more weight to move with its wrist

D) when the monkey brings its wrist back to the starting position

Q3) The lexicon of elementary hand and mouth motor movements is contained in the

A) premotor cortex

B) posterior cortex

C) primary motor cortex

D) prefrontal cortex

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33

Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Based upon his studies of myelin development in the cortex, Paul Flechsig suggested that myelin forms earliest in _____ cortical zones and latest in _____ cortical zones.

A) secondary; primary

B) tertiary; secondary

C) tertiary; primary

D) primary; tertiary

Q2) Cortical areas influence the activity of the regions from which they receive input through:

A) disinhibition.

B) reentrant loops.

C) parallel processing.

D) hierarchical processing.

Q3) Bard found that in order to see sham rage it was necessary to leave intact the posterior portion of the _____.

A) superior colliculus

B) hypothalamus

C) spinal cord

D) neocortex

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Name the general anatomical targets of the outputs from each of the six neocortical layers.

Q2) Compare the behavioral capacities of high - and low - decerebrate animals.

Q3) superior temporal sulcus ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

Q4) Distinguish between decortication and low decerebration, in terms of the brain level of disconnection and typical behavioral differences.

Q5) List the major differences between pyramidal cells and aspiny neurons.

Q6) Distinguish between voluntary and automatic behaviors in terms of the level of the brain necessary for their production. Give two examples of each.

Q7) What are the behavioral similarities and differences between normal infants and mesencephalic infants, such as those examined by Gamper and Brackbill?

Q8) caudomedial auditory belt area ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

Page 35

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) When its brain is injured in such a way that the hindbrain and spinal cord are still connected but both are disconnected from the rest of the brain, an animal is called

A) diencephalic

B) decorticate

C) low decerebrate

D) high decerebrate

Q2) What does the binding problem ask?

A) Which anatomical criteria could be used to delineate a hierarchy of cortical areas?

B) Can an area modify its inputs from another area before it even receives them?

C) How do sensations in specific channels combine into perceptions that translate as a unified experience that we call reality?

D) How does the theory of mind emerge in the brain?

Q3) The paralimbic cortex is primarily concerned with _____.

A) visuomotor guidance

B) emotional responsivity

C) kinesthesis

D) memory formation

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The largest functional differences are found between _____ rather than _____.

A) cerebral sites; cerebral sides

B) cerebral sides; cerebral sites

C) cortical layers; cortical columns

D) genders; age groups

Q2) The most convincing experimental design for demonstrating the localization of a particular function to a brain region is the:

A) single dissociation.

B) double dissociation.

C) double association.

D) case study.

Q3) Which of the following is generally true of the left hemisphere, relative to the right hemisphere in humans?

A) It has a larger size and weight overall.

B) It has a larger Heschl's gyrus.

C) It has a smaller visible frontal operculum.

D) It has a larger planum temporale.

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Doreen Kimura ___

A)planum temporale asymmetry

B)behavior of commissurotomy patients

C)brain stimulation of conscious patients

D)auditory system asymmetry

Q2) Webster and Thurber ___

A)interaction model

B)preferred cognitive mode model

C)specialization model

Q3) Morse code perception ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q4) Why has it been so difficult for neuropsychologists to discover the functions of the right hemisphere?

Q5) rhythm perception ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q6) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."

38

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Which of the following usually shows a right - ear advantage?

A) perceiving environmental sounds

B) perceiving rhythms

C) understanding backward speech

D) learning new memories

Q2) If the left carotid artery is injected with an anesthetic drug, within a few seconds:

A) the arm and the leg on the same side will fall to the bed with flacid paralysis.

B) speech will probably be interrupted.

C) speech will invariably be interrupted.

D) the arm and leg on the same side will be hypertonic.

Q3) Right - handed people have their speech localized to the right hemisphere about _____% of the time.

A) 2

B) 10

C) 65

D) 95

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) A sex difference in aggressive social play observed in boys and girls has been associated with _____.

A) high levels of in utero anti-androgenic progestins

B) low levels of in utero anti-androgenic progestins

C) high levels of in utero testosterone

D) low levels of in utero testosterone

Q2) According to studies by Goldstein and colleagues, sex - dependent differences in human brain structures are greatest in regions in which the results of studies of nonhumans show:

A) developmental similarities in gonadal hormone-receptor expression.

B) a role in theory of mind.

C) a high ratio of gray matter to white matter.

D) developmental differences in gonadal hormone-receptor distribution.

Q3) Explanations of handedness that emphasize usefulness or conditioning fall into the category of:

A) evolutionary theories.

B) developmental theories.

C) hormonal theories.

D) environmental theories.

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Page 40

Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Identify three environmental theories of hand preference. Discuss one in detail.

Q2) What are the basic ideas in the Geschwind-Galaburda theory concerning the development of cerebral asymmetry?

Q3) better target - throwing and catching ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q4) What factors may account for the greater incidence of left - handedness in mentally disabled children?

Q5) What are some male-female differences in human brain asymmetries?

Q6) Briefly describe some behavioral tests that reliably distinguish between males and females.

Q7) better computational ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q8) larger right planum parietale ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q10) At least five cognitive abilities show sex - related differences. Name four. Page 41

Q9) What is the significance of a larger corpus callosum for cerebral asymmetry?

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) According to Collins and Kimura, men outperform women at _____.

A) visual recognition memory

B) computation

C) mental rotation

D) fine motor skills

Q2) In men, compared with women, apraxia is more likely to be caused by damage to the _____ of the brain.

A) frontal left hemisphere

B) posterior left hemisphere

C) frontal right hemisphere

D) cingulate areas on both sides

Q3) In general, which is true of women when compared with men?

A) more left-handedness

B) larger splenium of the corpus callosum

C) larger isthmus of the corpus callosum

D) larger absolute cross-sectional area of the corpus callosum

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43

Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) The superior temporal sulcus is characterized by significant numbers of _____ neurons.

A) polysensory

B) color-coding

C) movement-sensitive

D) depth-perception

Q2) Neurons in the _____ sulcus are active during the perception of biologically relevant motion.

A) rhinal

B) posterolateral

C) inferior temporal

D) superior temporal

Q3) A patient who reports no conscious awareness of a visual stimulus, and yet can accurately report its location, is likely exhibiting:

A) macular sparing.

B) anosognosia.

C) apperceptive agnosia.

D) blindsight.

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44

Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is meant by the term "blindsight"? Give an example from one or more of the case studies given.

Q2) What is a scotoma? What do such phenomena tell us about the organization of the visual system?

Q3) lingual gyrus ___

A)includes V2, VP

B)divides upper and lower halves of visual world

C)first cortical relay for visual input

D)contains V4

Q4) bitemporal hemianopia ___

A)one optic nerve

B)medial visual cortex

C)one optic tract

D)optic chiasm

Q5) V5 ___

A)required for "dynamic form" perception

B)required for conscious vision

C)required for color perception

D)required for motion perception

Q6) Distinguish between "vision for action" and "action for vision."

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Neurons devoted to the perception of _____ are widespread, and their function is believed to be integral to the analysis of other features such as shape and motion.

A) position

B) size

C) depth

D) color

Q2) Milner and Goodale propose that the dorsal stream of visual processing is important for _____.

A) object recognition

B) color perception

C) depth perception

D) the visual control of action

Q3) Individuals with damage to area V1 can still receive visual input to higher levels, in part via a pathway involving the _____ nucleus of the thalamus.

A) medial geniculate

B) pulvinar

C) collicular

D) interstitial

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46

Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does NOT appear to receive significant cortical input from the parietal lobe?

A) the frontal lobe

B) the occipital lobe

C) the temporal lobe

D) the hippocampus

Q2) Which of the following is a behavioral phenomenon BEST associated with parietal lobe damage?

A) achromatopsia

B) anosmia

C) prosopagnosia

D) asomatagnosia

Q3) According to Posner, an important contribution of the parietal lobes to attentional processes is disengagement, which is the ability to:

A) end long-term relationships.

B) focus attention on a specific stimulus.

C) shift attention from one stimulus to another.

D) avoid paying attention to environmental stimuli.

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) Describe the proposed hemispheric asymmetry of function in the performance of spatial cognition tasks.

Q2) Describe at least four cognitive deficits which are more likely to occur with right parietal damage than with left parietal damage. Answer Key

Q3) Compare and contrast the roles of the parietal cortex in recognizing objects and guiding movement.

Q4) dysphasia ___

A)inability to write

B)inability to learn serial novel movements

C)impaired speech

Q5) apraxia ___

A)inability to write

B)inability to learn serial novel movements

C)impaired speech

Q6) How did the experiments by Andersen and colleagues suggest a role for the posterior parietal cortex in thought and intention?

Q7) Discuss the significance of the expansion of the polymodal areas of PG and STS in humans.

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) In Brodmann's mapping system, areas 5 and 7 correspond to von Economo's area

A) PE

B) PF

C) PG

D) PH

Q2) A patient shaves only one side of his face, reads only half of compound words, and dresses and uses only half of his body. Collectively, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of

A) topographic disability

B) anosagnosia

C) constructional apraxia

D) contralateral neglect

Q3) The close anatomical relationship between the parietal lobe and the prefrontal cortex is thought to be related to _____.

A) the elaboration of motor programs

B) grammatical constructions

C) spatially guided behavior

D) dissociation

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Page 49

Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) Brodmann's area 21 is most closely congruent with which of the following in the human brain?

A) the inferior temporal gyrus

B) the middle temporal gyrus

C) the superior temporal gyrus

D) Heschl's gyrus

Q2) Neural projections from the temporal lobe to the frontal lobe are hypothesized to be necessary for:

A) stimulus recognition and categorization.

B) long-term memory encoding and storage.

C) short-term memory and affect.

D) use of auditory cues to guide movement.

Q3) Analyses of the Thatcher illusion suggest that when recognizing faces we pay particular attention to the:

A) upright configuration of the eyes and nose.

B) chin and hairline.

C) inverted configuration of the eyes and mouth.

D) upright configuration of the eyes and mouth.

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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the relationship between the stimuli that most strongly activate neurons in the STS and the construct of social cognition?

Q2) Choose one standard clinical neuropsychological test used to assess temporal lobe function, and describe it in some detail. Identify the specific cognitive function it is intended to evaluate.

Answer Key

Q3) Argue the case that the temporal lobe participates in the appreciation of contextual information.

Q4) periodicity pitch discrimination___

A)parahippocampal place area

B)Heschl's gyrus.

C)fusiform gyrus

D)Heschl's gyrus

Q5) perception of environmental scenes ___

A)parahippocampal place area

B)Heschl's gyrus

C)fusiform gyrus

D)Heschl's gyrus.

Q6) Distinguish between loudness and timbre.

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The temporal lobes are involved in each of these EXCEPT:

A) processing auditory input.

B) visual object recognition.

C) memory functions.

D) identifying tactile information.

Q2) Brodmann's areas 20, 21, 37, and 38 are often referred to collectively as _____, as designated by von Economo.

A) the angular gyrus

B) TE

C) V1

D) the extra-striate cortex

Q3) Damage to the superior temporal sulcus is often associated with a deficit in _____.

A) perceiving speech

B) perceiving biological motion

C) anterograde amnesia

D) interpreting auditory information

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following damage to the left supplementary speech area and medial frontal cortex, subjects would have great problems:

A) producing grammatically correct speech.

B) speaking with normal prosody.

C) speaking spontaneously.

D) speaking when prompted.

Q2) According to a study by Hsu and colleagues, decision - making tasks that are high in ambiguity activate the:

A) orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala.

B) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and amygdala.

C) superior temporal sulcus and hypothalamus.

D) orbitofrontal cortex and hippocampus.

Q3) Which of the following activities BEST exemplifies temporal memory?

A) recognizing your best friend from high school after having been away at college for a year

B) recalling which of your assignments you most recently worked on

C) riding a bicycle for the first time since last summer

D) All of these activities best exemplify temporal memory.

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Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) loss of fluent speech ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q2) Distinguish between pseudopsychopathy and pseudodepression, functionally and anatomically.

Q3) What are the general effects of frontal lesions on divergent thinking? On convergent thinking?

Q4) What is the "problem" for which the concept of corollary discharge is the "answer"?

Q5) behavioral spontaneity ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q6) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

Q7) Describe some data which suggest that the frontal cortex is important in shortterm memory.

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Defective performance in _____ is more likely following left, rather than right, frontal - lobe damage.

A) verbal fluency

B) block construction

C) time orientation

D) design copying

Q2) _____ memory is mediated by the prefrontal cortex and involves the recollection of recent events and their order.

A) Working

B) Temporal

C) Recency

D) Short-term

Q3) The term "corollary discharge" explains which frontal lobe phenomenon?

A) that we do not perceive movement in the environment when we move our eyes

B) that the right and left supplementary motor areas work antagonistically

C) the increased activity in the right prefrontal area in response to speech generation

D) the decrease in activation of the visual frontal cortex when auditory stimuli are received

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Commissurotomy is performed in humans primarily as a treatment for: A) schizophrenia.

B) severe migraine headaches.

C) Parkinson's disease.

D) epilepsy.

Q2) Most projections of the corpus callosum are:

A) organized topographically and project ipsilaterally.

B) diffusely distributed and project contralaterally.

C) organized topographically and project contralaterally.

D) organized homotopically and project subcortically.

Q3) A study by Steele and colleagues used DTI to examine white - matter organization in early - trained versus late - trained musicians. Results indicated which pattern of connectivity?

A) The size of the posterior corpus callosum increased in early-trained musicians.

B) The size of the anterior corpus callosum increased in late-trained musicians.

C) The size of the posterior corpus callosum decreased in early-trained musicians.

D) The size of the anterior and posterior corpus callosum was equivalent in both groups of musicians.

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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the therapeutic value of the severing of commissures in the treatment of epilepsy?

Q2) Geschwind ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q3) Describe the three general classes of projections of corpus callosal fibers.

Q4) Wernicke ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q5) What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization?

Q6) Why do the authors suggest that disconnection hypotheses are applicable in brain dysfunction?

Q7) Speculate in an informed manner as to why the corpus callosum evolved. (Not all mammals have one, by the way-marsupials do not have a corpus callosum.)

Q8) Explain the effects of early musical training on brain connectivity. Page 57

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) The patients studied by Sperry and his colleagues had undergone commissurotomy as a radical treatment for _____.

A) schizophrenia

B) psychotic depression

C) epilepsy

D) Parkinson's disease

Q2) Geschwind hypothesized that individuals who show right - hand apraxia have damage to which region or regions of the brain?

A) the corpus callosum and the anterior commissure

B) the basal ganglia, especially the globus pallidus

C) the area that connects language areas and the motor cortex in the left hemisphere

D) the arcuate fasciculus and Broca's area

Q3) The _____ lobe has the fewest interhemispheric connections.

A) parietal

B) occipital

C) temporal

D) frontal

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Page 59

Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Falsely reporting a memory for words that are novel but semantically related to previously encountered words is:

A) more common for amnesic patients than for normal subjects.

B) more common for normal subjects than for amnesic patients.

C) equally common for normal subjects and amnesic patients.

D) more common for epileptics than for normal subjects.

Q2) Based on findings with herpes encephalitis patients, it appears that the ability to access previously acquired memories depends in part on the:

A) substantia nigra.

B) right parietal cortex.

C) insula.

D) anterior cingulate.

Q3) Memory impairments observed in amnesic individuals are MOST commonly observed in the domain of:

A) classical conditioning.

B) perceptual priming.

C) skills memory.

D) declarative memory.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Q1) What neural structures are thought to be involved in implicit memory? What is the evidence for or against including the motor cortex in this system?

Q2) Within the proposed anatomical model for explicit memory, different components may have different roles. Comment on the possible roles in explicit memory for each of the following: the amygdala, hippocampus, and perirhinal cortex.

Q3) fimbria fornix ___

A)location of granule cells

B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway

C)location of pyramidal cells

D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway

Q4) perforant path ___

A)location of granule cells

B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway

C)location of pyramidal cells

D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway

Q5) What is system consolidation? What is its relation to memory reconsolidation?

Q6) What is the evidence to support the concept of short - term memory as distinct from other forms of memory?

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) According to Petri and Mishkin, the _____ is NOT part of the proposed implicit memory system.

A) ventral thalamus

B) premotor cortex

C) hippocampus

D) basal ganglia

Q2) Which is NOT a part of explicit memory functioning?

A) semantic memory

B) bottom-up processing

C) intentional remembering

D) episodic memory

Q3) Evidence from Korsakoff's patients suggests that the _____ is(are) involved in global amnesia.

A) frontal lobes

B) medial thalamus

C) basal cholinergic system

D) perirhinal cortex

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who can comprehend speech, produce meaningful speech, and repeat speech but has great difficulty in finding the names of objects likely has sustained damage to the:

A) posterior parietal lobe.

B) inferior frontal lobe.

C) inferior temporal lobe.

D) superior temporal lobe.

Q2) Studies using transcranial magnetic stimulation have suggested a close relationship between areas responsible for:

A) language and eye movements.

B) language and mouth movements.

C) hand movements and mouth movements.

D) language and consciousness.

Q3) Although nonhuman primates most certainly can communicate orally with each other and with humans (if trained), these utterances seem to lack any significant:

A) syntax.

B) semantic aspects.

C) emotional overtones.

D) reliability from one time to another.

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Page 63

Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) anarthria ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q2) What is "Yerkish"? Is it really a language? If so, why? If not, why not?

Q3) How do PET scan studies on word generation differ from the Wernicke-Geschwind model of language production?

Q4) About how long ago did human language develop? Gather the evidence for your answer.

Q5) What are the four separate abilities necessary for language?

Q6) Discuss theories of language evolution that emphasize changes to the vocal tract with those that focus on the brain.

Q7) Distinguish, on the basis of the type of language errors produced, among fluent aphasia, nonfluent aphasia, and word deafness.

Q8) How would you answer a beginning psychology student who asks, "Where in the brain is language localized?"

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Q9) How does the dual - route theory account for deep and surface dyslexia subtypes? Answer Key

Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) Yerkish is _____.

A) a form of sign language

B) an artificial language involving keyboard symbols

C) the language spoken by ancient Yerks in Yerkey

D) a Pidgin language

Q2) According to Brodmann's neuroanatomical identification scheme, Broca's area is referred to as _____, and Wernicke's area is referred to as _____.

A) areas 44 and 45; area 22

B) the perisylvian region; the inferior frontal cortex

C) the arcuate fasciculus; the perforant pathway

D) IT; TE

Q3) Swadish based his hypothesis about the origins of human language on:

A) the relative positioning of the larynx in humans and apes.

B) the fossil record.

C) the rate of change of dialects.

D) X-rays of modern and ancient skulls.

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) The flehmen response seen in some species is associated with the forcing of stimuli into contact with:

A) Jacobson's organ.

B) the taste buds.

C) the amygdala.

D) pheromones.

Q2) The person who first performed frontal lobotomies in humans was:

A) Carlyle Jacobsen.

B) Paul Bucy.

C) Egas Moniz.

D) Philip Bard.

Q3) When evaluating a patient who expresses catastrophic reactions to situations, you would expect to find damage to the:

A) right hemisphere.

B) left hemisphere.

C) basal ganglia.

D) reticular formation.

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66

Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Goltz ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q2) Describe the evidence supporting a role for the orbitofrontal cortex, insula, and amygdala in understanding the intentions of other people.

Answer Key

Q3) Contrast Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis with LeDoux's cognitive-emotional interaction theory.

Q4) If you were a neuropsychologist studying emotion in rats, what behaviors or responses would you measure? (Or answer the same question using monkeys, humans, or any other plausible species.)

Q5) Describe the four behavioral components of emotion, as described by the text.

Q6) What are the major symptoms of the Klüver-Bucy syndrome?

Q7) You are giving a lecture to an introductory class in neuropsychology. How do you define emotion for your students?

Q8) Describe the changes in social behaviors in monkeys with frontal cortex lesions.

Q9) What is sensory aprosodia? What is motor aprosodia?

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hypergraphia, hypermoralism, and sense of personal destiny are all characteristics of _____.

A) frontal lobe lesions

B) the "temporal lobe" personality

C) the catastrophic reaction of left-hemisphere damage

D) paranoid schizophrenia

Q2) Damage to _____ in the _____ hemisphere has been proposed to produce motor aprosodia.

A) Broca's area; left

B) the frontal orbital cortex; right

C) Broca's area; right

D) the temporal lobe; left

Q3) A bilateral anterior temporal lobectomy in monkeys (and in at least one human case) produces a syndrome that includes _____.

A) amnesia

B) lack of sexual desire

C) tameness

D) aggression

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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) A rat that finds its way around a radial arm maze by following odor trails left by other rats is engaging in:

A) piloting.

B) dead reckoning.

C) route following.

D) olfactory discrimination.

Q2) The Morris water task is commonly used to test the ability of rats and other small mammals, to navigate using either:

A) egocentric maps or a stimulus gradient.

B) emotional memory or visible landmarks.

C) dead reckoning or piloting ability.

D) piloting ability or visible landmarks.

Q3) Females with Turner's syndrome do not produce ______ and have ______.

A) gonadal hormones; impaired spatial abilities

B) stress hormones; impaired spatial abilities

C) gonadal hormones; enhanced spatial abilities

D) stress hormones; enhanced spatial abilities

Answer Key

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) landmark agnosia ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q2) What are the main symptoms of Bálint's syndrome?

Q3) Discuss the role of the parietal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q4) egocentric disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q5) Distinguish between egocentric disorientation and heading orientation.

Q6) heading disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q7) What is landmark agnosia?

Q8) In what ways do the spatial abilities of males and females differ?

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) A study conducted by Smith and Milner examined spatial abilities for patients with both left and right temporal damage. With respect to spatial memory, identify the pattern of results.

A) Patients with left hippocampal damage performed equal to those with right hippocampal damage.

B) Patients with right hippocampal damage performed significantly worse than those with left damage.

C) Patients with left hippocampal damage performed significantly worse than those with right damage.

D) Patients with right hippocampal damage performed significantly better than those with left damage.

Q2) Self - movement cues are apparently used by animals when they are using _____ to guide their movements.

A) dead reckoning

B) landmarks

C) odors

D) environmental cues

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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Moran and Desimone's experiment, they found attentional effects in the monkey brain cells in areas:

A) V4.

B) V1.

C) V1 and V4.

D) V4 and TE.

Q2) Taken together, the experiments of Corbetta and colleagues suggest that _____ cortex(ices) is(are) activated during tasks that call for attention to location.

A) the parietal

B) the occipitotemporal

C) both the parietal and occipitotemporal

D) neither the parietal nor the occipitotemporal

Q3) Simons and Chabris asked subjects to count the number of passes in a video of basketball players. Most subjects were surprised that they had failed to spot:

A) several passes.

B) a gorilla.

C) a cheerleader.

D) Superman.

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) What constitutes a feature?

Q2) Cite evidence that attention is not a "thing in a place" in the brain.

Q3) dual executive systems ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q4) What is the evidence that stress might have a detrimental effect on attention?

Q5) attention to shape

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q6) both selective and divided attention

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q7) What is "attentional blink"?

Q8) What are the paradigms of inattention?

73

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regarding attention, an example of an automatic process would be:

A) driving a five-speed (automatic shift) car

B) searching for a street sign

C) learning to play piano by ear

D) learning to read braille

Q2) When subjects fail to detect a second visual target if it is presented within half a second of the first one, this is called _____.

A) inattentional blindness

B) attentional blink

C) change blindness

D) retrograde amnesia

Q3) Bottom - up processing is associated with _____.

A) identification of "pop-out" stimuli in an array

B) the sort of search that one makes when trying to find a particular street

C) language development in children

D) searching for particular combinations of sensory information.

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concept that sparing of function follows infant brain lesions is known as the:

A) Hubel and Wiesel law.

B) Kennard principle.

C) Basser hypothesis.

D) Flechsig concept.

Q2) In humans, synaptic density is greatest at about age:

A) 2 months.

B) 12 months.

C) 6 years.

D) 16 years.

Q3) Dendrite growth differs from axonal growth in that:

A) axons grow much faster than dendrites in order to play a role in shaping dendritic growth.

B) axons grow much faster than dendrites in order to reach a larger maximum size.

C) dendrites grow much faster than axons in order to play a role in shaping axonal growth.

D) dendrites grow much faster than axons in order to reach a larger maximum size.

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

Q2) Rasmussen and Milner ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Q3) What is the role of radial glial cells in neuron cell migration?

Q4) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

Q5) What are three ways to examine the relationship between neural function and behavioral changes in development? Make sure to mention potential advantages and/or disadvantages of each.

Q6) How might the developmental course of myelination be related to the maturation of motor skills?

Q7) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with ADHD?

Q8) What are the effects on language of early - onset lesions (prior to age 15 years of age) to the left hemisphere, compared with similar lesions in adults (20 years of age and over)?

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Piaget stage of cognitive development, characterized by the ability to reason abstractly, is called the _____ stage and occurs around the age(s) of _____.

A) formal operational; 12

B) concrete operational; 12

C) formal operational; 7 to 11

D) concrete operational; 7 to 11

Q2) Studies demonstrate that parietal regions controlling spatial and language abilities mature at which age?

A) 7 to 10 years

B) 11 to 13 years

C) 3 to 5 years

D) 14 to 17 years

Q3) The absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain is called _____.

A) heterotopia

B) anencephaly

C) microencephaly

D) lissencephaly

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) CSF is made by the:

A) choroid plexus.

B) foramina of Magendie.

C) fourth ventricle.

D) ventral hypothalamus.

Q2) Because reading is central to success in school _____ is central to the study of neurodevelopmental disorders.

A) strephosymbolia

B) dyslexia

C) learning disabilities

D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

Q3) In Tallal's study, normal individuals required interstimulus intervals of _____ milliseconds in order to tell if one or two tones had been presented.

A) between 300 and 450

B) between 100 and 150

C) between 10 and 40

D) at least 650

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the ACID profile? What does it show regarding learning - disabled children?

Q2) Ruffino ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q3) Why do stimulants such as amphetamines sometimes improve the performance of cognitive skills in learning - disabled children?

Q4) What is the basic premise of the Geschwind-Galaburda hypothesis? Do you find any flaw in this premise?

Q5) Tallal ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q6) What does the research of Tallal suggest is a leading cause of learning disabilities?

Q7) Why do the authors recommend that women not drink any alcohol during pregnancy?

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Q8) Distinguish between graphemic and phonological reading. Give an example of each.

Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) _____ is the most common behavioral disturbance in children; it is characterized in part by impulsive behavior.

A) Hyperactivity

B) Autism

C) Fetal alcohol syndrome

D) Cerebral palsy

Q2) Bradley and Bryant suggest that normal reading initially requires _____.

A) lexical skills

B) phonemic awareness

C) graphemic skills

D) spatial concentration

Q3) Normal readers can discriminate between two auditory stimuli separated by intervals as brief as _____ milliseconds.

A) 100

B) 60

C) 10

D) 250

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Research suggests that for rehabilitation of brain - damaged patients, practice in the use of the affected body parts should be:

A) gentle and in small amounts.

B) extensive.

C) avoided, with emphasis on using nonaffected limbs.

D) supervised by trained professionals.

Q2) The capacity for recovery following a stroke declines as the size of the stroke _____ and age _____.

A) increases; decreases

B) increases; increases

C) decreases; decreases

D) decreases; increases

Q3) Left temporal-lobe patients showed improvements in memory after they were taught to use a strategy involving:

A) imagery.

B) vocabulary.

C) logical reasoning.

D) motor reflexes.

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient is a well - educated woman of forty - five. She experienced a lefthemisphere stroke three weeks ago that has caused moderate aphasia. What is your counsel for your patient and her family?

Q2) Nudo et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q3) The authors list four major therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they?

Q4) What is kindling in the brain?

Q5) Elbert et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q6) What evidence is there that sensory maps can be modified by experience?

Q8) What is LTP? Page 82

Q7) What evidence is there that the response to adapting prisms causes actual synaptic changes in the brain?

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) Which type of therapy for brain injury involves stimulating the production of new neurons in the brain?

A) constraint-induced movement therapy

B) community neurorehabilitation

C) stem-cell induction

D) pharmacological therapy

Q2) What is the development of persistent seizure activity after repeated exposure to an initially subconvulsant stimulus?

A) focal hand dystonia

B) long-term potentiation

C) taste aversion learning

D) kindling

Q3) Overall, recovery from brain damage seems less likely if the patient is _____.

A) young

B) intelligent

C) optimistic

D) elderly

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Myasthenia gravis is due to an insufficiency of:

A) acetylcholine receptors.

B) cholinesterase.

C) immune system cells.

D) dopamine.

Q2) What is a general term for about 45 percent of brain tumors that result from glial cells and infiltrate the brain substance?

A) meningioma

B) metastatic tumor

C) automatism

D) glioma

Q3) Headaches that begin with an aura lasting 20 to 40 minutes are usually classified as _____ headaches.

A) muscle-contraction

B) common migraine

C) classic migraine

D) cluster

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) How does caffeine, in conjunction with ergotamine compounds, alleviate headaches? What explanation do the authors give for the fact that caffeine can also exacerbate some headaches?

Q2) Name at least five of the tools a neurologist uses in the course of a physical examination.

Q3) hematoma ___

A)abnormal blood vessels

B)accumulation of fluid

C)transient ischemia

D)blood trapped under skull

Q4) Describe multiple sclerosis in terms of symptoms, course of the disease, and causes (if known).

Q5) What does the term "contrecoup" mean?

Q6) How much time can pass after a vascular emergency before supportive therapies are no longer effective? Why do you think time is of the essence in these cases?

Q7) What is myasthenia gravis? What causes it, and what can be done about it?

Q8) The authors of your text list six ways in which cerebral trauma can affect brain function. Identify five of these (or all six).

Page 86

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) A female patient experiences constriction of blood vessels (vasospasm) leading to impaired sensory function. Which disorder did the patient most likely suffer?

A) seizure

B) hematoma

C) migraine stroke

D) cerebral hemorrhage

Q2) You are assessing the coma status of a patient who sustained a traumatic brain injury using the Glasgow Coma Scale. Which rating is indicative of a moderate injury?

A) less than 8

B) 9 to 12

C) 13 to 20

D) 13 to 18

Q3) There are a variety of treatments for ischemia utilized to minimize neurological damage. Which of the following is NOT one of the treatments?

A) calcium channel blockers

B) vasodilators

C) tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

D) neurosurgery

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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The Rey Complex - Figure Test is widely used by neuropsychologists. Of the following, which is MOST impaired in copying this figure?

A) patients with Tourette's syndrome

B) schizophrenics

C) Parkinson's patients

D) those with Alzheimer's disease

Q2) The drug L - dopa is used as a treatment for Parkinson's disease because it increases the levels of _____ in the brain.

A) norepinephrine

B) cortisol

C) dopamine

D) acetylcholine

Q3) Parkinson's patients are sometimes referred to as having a "disease of the will." Which of the following symptoms is MOST closely related to this idea?

A) tremor at rest

B) involuntary movements

C) festination

D) muscular rigidity

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Distinguish between Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease in terms of the neurotransmitter abnormalities suspected to underlie the symptoms for each condition.

Q2) festination ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q3) What are the main anatomical correlates of Alzheimer's disease?

Q4) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

Q5) According to the textbook, what three factors make the sensitization model of bipolar disorder intriguing for understanding bipolar disorder?

Q6) coprolalia ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q7) Describe the sequence of changes in dendritic structure in normal aging and in advancing Alzheimer's disease.

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Schizophrenia and Huntington's disease are both thought to involve abnormalities in the _____ - secreting systems of the brain.

A) acetylcholine

B) glutamate

C) GABA

D) dopamine

Q2) Neuritic plaques are one of the brain entities found in _____ disease.

A) Alzheimer's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Wilson's disease

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q3) Which is TRUE regarding BDNF?

A) It is upregulated by antidepressant medication.

B) It is underregulated by stress hormones.

C) It disrupts networks involving parietal and medial temporal regions.

D) It decreases glutamate uptake sites in the cingulate cortex.

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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The combination of neuropsychological test development and imaging techniques has led to an understanding of the role of the right frontal lobe in:

A) social cognition.

B) visual acuity.

C) verbal memory.

D) spatial memory.

Q2) The FSIQ has a standard deviation of:

A) 5.

B) 10.

C) 15.

D) 20.

Q3) The Halstead-Reitan Battery was designed primarily for the purpose of:

A) identifying psychiatric disorders.

B) assessing brain damage.

C) testing for specific cognitive disabilities.

D) finding a definitive test of mental retardation.

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) academic skills ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q2) Identify some factors that can make interpretation of neuropsychological tests difficult.

Q3) Name six frequently used categories of neuropsychological testing, as identified by Zillmer and Spiers.

Q4) self - control ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q5) language ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q6) Name three difficulties with cutoff scores in neuropsychological test batteries.

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The CANTAB is a _____ neuropsychological test battery.

A) composite

B) nonstandardized

C) computerized

D) standardized

Q2) During the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test, Stroop Test, and Chicago Word - Fluency Test, imaging has shown that subjects demonstrate activation in the _____.

A) amygdala

B) frontal lobe

C) temporal lobe

D) hippocampus

Q3) The Wechsler scales are used to assess _____.

A) motor performance

B) intelligence

C) epilepsy

D) presence of tumors

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