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Basics of Psychology is an introductory course designed to familiarize students with the foundational concepts, theories, and methods underlying the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. The course explores major psychological perspectives, including biological, cognitive, behavioral, and sociocultural approaches, while examining key topics such as perception, learning, memory, emotion, personality, development, and abnormal psychology. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and practical activities, students gain critical insight into how psychological principles can be applied to everyday life and develop an understanding of how psychological research is conducted and interpreted.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Themes and Variations 3rd Canadian by Dr. Wayne Weiten
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Q1) Which of the following would be a poor studying strategy?
A)Study in a place where distractions are minimal.
B)Break major assignments down into smaller component tasks.
C)Set up a schedule for studying.
D)Concentrate your study time immediately before an exam.
Answer: D
Q2) Which area of applied psychology was most stimulated by World War II?
A)quantitative psychology
B)clinical psychology
C)educational psychology
D)child psychology
Answer: B
Q3) According to Wilhelm Wundt, what was the focus of psychology?
A)to understand functions of behaviour
B)to understand unconscious motivation
C)the scientific study of observable behaviour
D)the scientific study of conscious experience
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following most accurately describes the enduring influence of structuralism and functionalism on psychology today?
A)Neither structuralism nor functionalism exerted a long-lasting influence on psychology.
B)Both structuralism and functionalism exerted a long-lasting influence on psychology.
C)Only structuralism exerted a long-lasting influence on psychology.
D)Only functionalism exerted a long-lasting influence on psychology.
Answer: D
Q2) What is the correct order of the steps in the SQ3R method?
A)survey, question, read, review, recite
B)summarize, question, read, recite, review
C)survey, question, read, recite, review
D)summarize, question, read, review, recite
Answer: C
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Q1) Imagine that a group of researchers designed a study to test the effectiveness of subliminal-message weight-loss tapes. Half the participants receive real tapes, and half receive similar tapes with the subliminal messages removed. The experimenter keeps track of which participant is in which group. All the participants are told that their tapes contain subliminal messages. What type of study is this?
A)anecdotal research
B)case study
C)double-blind procedure
D)single-blind study
Answer: D
Q2) A group of researchers wanted to investigate allegations of sexual harassment on a company's assembly line. To make their observations, the researchers took jobs working on the assembly line and pretended to be new employees. What type of research is being conducted in this example?
A)correlational research
B)case study research
C)survey research
D)naturalistic observation
Answer: D
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Q1) Dr. Arrabella surveyed students in his finance class about their attitudes concerning the Canada Pension Plan and concluded that young adults across Canada doubt that they will ever receive Canada Pension benefits. Why might his conclusion be flawed?
A)He knew his subjects before he surveyed them.
B)His students were not a representative sample of young adults.
C)He did not survey the entire population of young adults.
D)His students were a random sample.
Q2) Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship between two variables?
A)-1.51
B)-.80
C)0
D)+.50
Q3) In a study that examines the effects of a low-fat diet on mood, which group would receive a low-fat diet?
A)experimental group
B)explicit group
C)correlational group
D)control group
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Q1) Chase is using a single earphone to listen in on a conversation. Based on the research that investigated hemispheric specialization in intact brains, what could we suggest in order for Chase to recognize the words he hears most quickly?
A)put the earphone in his right ear
B)hum lightly to cancel out the background noise
C)close his eyes while he listens to the conversation
D)keep switching the earphone from ear to ear
Q2) Which brain structure appears to play an active role in integrating sensory information?
A)hypothalamus
B)cerebrum
C)limbic system
D)thalamus
Q3) What do synaptic vesicles do?
A)They control the speed with which a neuron fires.
B)They store neurotransmitters.
C)They provide energy for a neuron's activity.
D)They manufacture myelin.
Q4) Compare and contrast the nervous system and the endocrine system.
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to occur if you were to administer a dopamine antagonist?
A)addiction
B)schizophrenia
C)difficulty with movement
D)pain reduction
Q2) What is the main function of the axon?
A)release neurotransmitters
B)transmit information
C)support and insulate the neuron
D)receive information
Q3) In the 'lock and key' analogy of synaptic communication, which of the following is the 'key'?
A)the axon
B)the receptor
C)the soma
D)the neurotransmitter
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Q1) A police officer asked Stanley to close his eyes and touch the tip of his nose, using first his right index finger and then his left index finger. What does Stanley rely on to complete this test of coordination?
A)sensory accommodation
B)reticular sense
C)vestibular sense
D)kinesthetic sense
Q2) Where would you find receptors for the kinesthetic sense?
A)semicircular canals
B)basilar membrane
C)cochlea
D)joints and muscles
Q3) Imagine that biologists have discovered an animal that has eyes very similar to human eyes, but that the only receptor cells in the retina are cones; there are no rods. What would you expect about this animal's vision, based on what is known about human vision?
A)It would have poor peripheral vision.
B)It would have poor visual acuity.
C)It would have excellent vision in dim light.
D)It could not see in colour.
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Q1) According to signal-detection theory, what is the term for thinking that you heard your phone ring when it did not?
A)false alarm
B)correct rejection
C)hit
D)miss
Q2) Which depth perception cue is based on the observation that parallel lines converge in the distance?
A)linear perspective
B)height in plane
C)interposition
D)retinal disparity
Q3) If you saw the stimulus '0' in the context of 'B0SS' you are likely to see it as a letter, but in the context of '5038' you are likely to see it as a number. What differs between the two contexts that leads to your different understanding of the same stimulus?
A)features of the stimulus
B)bottom-up processing
C)perceptual hypotheses
D)figure and ground
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Q1) Which of the following brain areas is considered to be part of the "reward pathway" associated with drug effects?
A)hippocampus
B)periaqueductal grey
C)inferotemporal cortex
D)nucleus accumbens
Q2) What is hypnosis?
A)a procedure for inducing a state of heightened suggestibility
B)a state of altered consciousness that is similar to sedation or hallucination
C)a form of meditation that leads to dream-like consciousness
D)a form of self-delusion
Q3) Which of the following would a student be least likely to dream about, according to research evidence on dream content?
A)falling from the top of a tall building on campus
B)being chased by his or her most feared instructor
C)missing an important exam
D)being a tree on campus
Q4) What do people tend to dream about, and what theories have been proposed to explain why people dream at all?
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Q1) Psychology began with an interest in the study of consciousness, then consciousness was ignored by behaviourists, then consciousness became an interesting topic again in the 1960s. Which unifying theme in psychology reflects this pattern of study?
A)Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
B)Behaviour is determined by multiple causes.
C)Behaviour is shaped by cultural heritage.
D)People's experience of the world is highly subjective.
Q2) What are sleep stages 3 and 4 referred to as?
A)slow-wave sleep
B)high-amplitude sleep
C)fast-wave sleep
D)low-amplitude sleep
Q3) Which brain structure results in continuous sleep when severely damaged and produces arousal and alertness when electrically stimulated?
A)ascending reticular activating system
B)thalamus
C)pons
D)hypothalamus
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Q1) When is the reinforcer given in a variable-ratio schedule?
A)after a fixed number of nonreinforced responses
B)for the first response that occurs after a variable amount of time has elapsed
C)for the first response that occurs after a fixed amount of time has elapsed
D)after a variable number of nonreinforced responses
Q2) Briefly describe observational learning, and explain how it relates to classical and operant conditioning.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
A)paying a child $1 for each "A" received on her report card
B)stopping nagging a child when he finally cleans his room
C)giving a child a sweet dessert as a reward for finishing his dinner
D)cutting a child's TV time by 30 minutes each time she is rude
Q4) When Kiara asks her grandmother for a cookie, her grandmother usually gives her one. Last week at the park, Kiara's mother was embarrassed when Kiara walked up to five different elderly ladies and asked them for cookies. What does Kiara's behaviour illustrate?
A)unconditioned reinforcement
B)observational learning
C)stimulus generalization
D)stimulus discrimination
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Q1) A baseball player who has been in a batting slump for several weeks alters his batting stance and wears a new batting glove one day and gets three hits. According to the cognitive explanation of conditioning, what will the baseball player most likely continue to do?
A)continue to use the new batting glove
B)continue to use both the new batting stance and new batting glove
C)continue to use the new batting stance
D)continue to experiment with another batting stance and batting glove
Q2) What must be done to demonstrate higher-order conditioning?
A)present a UCS that elicits a novel UCR
B)pair a new CS with an established CS
C)pair the CS with a new UCS
D)repeatedly present the CS without presenting the UCS
Q3) Which type of learning occurs when an organism's response is influenced by the observation of others who are called models?
A)observational learning
B)operant conditioning
C)modelling
D)classical conditioning
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Q1) Compare the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of short-term memory with Baddely's more complex model of short-term memory.
Q2) According to Schacter, what is the benefit of the memory sin he calls transcience?
A)having flexible memory systems for different types of information
B)having resistance to depression
C)being able to discard information that is no longer needed
D)being open to new ideas
Q3) Kiana was given a list of words as part of a memory test that included "dog, pail, and hate." Later, she recalled these words as "dig, paint, and hard." Based on Kiana's errors in recall, how did she encode the original word list?
A)implicitly
B)semantically
C)phonemically
D)structurally
Q4) Using the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory, describe the capacity, durability, and the typical form of information storage in each of the three human memory systems, and identify the processes that transfer information from one system to another.
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Q1) What is a semantic network?
A)patterns of activation in highly interconnected computational networks
B)a group of familiar stimuli stored as a single unit
C)an organized cluster of knowledge about a particular object or event
D)nodes representing concepts, joined together by pathways that link related concepts
Q2) When do people tend to more accurately estimate their confidence in the accuracy of their memory of an event?
A)when they were an eyewitness to the event
B)when they ignore the hindsight bias
C)when they consider reasons that their memory may not be accurate
D)when they consider reasons that their memory may be accurate
Q3) If you are in a city that you haven't visited in years, and you easily find your way to the mall "on a hunch," what are you most likely relying on?
A)implicit memory
B)explicit memory
C)working memory
D)declarative memory
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Q1) Two-year-old Owen rushes into the kitchen and tells his sister: "Baby throw. Baby bad." He wants her to know that his baby brother is bad because he just threw his toys on the floor. What does Owen's communication illustrate?
A)overregularization
B)underextension
C)semantic slanting
D)telegraphic speech
Q2) Mr. and Mrs. Jones have five daughters. Hoping for a son, they decide to have a sixth child, reasoning that a boy is long overdue. Is their reasoning correct, and why?
A)Yes. After having so many daughters, a boy is almost a sure thing.
B)No. The probability of a son is unaffected by the sex of the previous children.
C)No. It is more likely that Mr. and Mrs. Jones will continue to produce girls.
D)Yes. The greater the number of girls a couple has had, the greater the likelihood that the next will be a boy.
Q3) How does risky decision making differ from making decisions about preferences? How do people generally make each type of decision?
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Q1) What has been demonstrated in research on children and adults who are learning a second language?
A)Adults are more successful than young children in learning the second language.
B)Young children are more successful than adults in learning the second language.
C)Young children and adults are equally successful in learning the second language.
D)Young girls and adult men are more successful than young boys and adult women in learning the second language.
Q2) In order to decide which car to buy, Jaleel makes a list of desired qualities and rates each of the cars he is considering on a scale of one to ten. After totalling the points each car receives on all the desired qualities, he is going to purchase the car with the most points. Which decision-making strategy is Jaleel using?
A)additive
B)subtractive
C)elimination by aspects
D)selection by aspects
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Q1) What is the heritability estimate for intelligence, according to most researchers?
A)close to 100 percent
B)approximately 80 percent
C)around 50 percent
D)less than 40 percent
Q2) Fiona is 8 years old and has a mental age of 10, based on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Denise is 10 years old and has a mental age of 12, based on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale. Which of the following is true if you are using an intelligence quotient to compare the girls?
A)Fiona would be considered more intelligent than Denise.
B)Denise would be considered more intelligent than Fiona.
C)The scores could not be meaningfully compared because the girls are not the same age.
D)Both girls would be considered equally intelligent.
Q3) Where do the vast majority of mildly retarded children come from?
A)middle class, suburban families
B)predominantly rural areas
C)lower socioeconomic classes
D)blended families
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Q1) What observation does the Flynn effect refer to?
A)The IQ scores of children raised in substandard environments gradually decrease as the children get older.
B)Heritability estimates of intelligence vary widely.
C)The reaction range of intelligence is identical for the vast majority of the population.
D)IQ test performance has been rising steadily in the industrialized world since the 1930s.
Q2) Which theorist has promoted a definition of intelligence that is very broad, encompassing virtually any valued human ability, to the point that some critics argue it makes the term almost meaningless?
A)Robert Sternberg
B)David Wechsler
C)Alfred Binet
D)Howard Gardner
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between parenthood and happiness is most accurate?
A)The more children people have, the happier they tend to be.
B)People who have children are less happy than people without children.
C)People who have children are happier than people without children.
D)People who have children are neither more, nor less, happy than people without children.
Q2) Juan has been obese for most of his life, maintaining a very high body weight that did not seem to fluctuate much over time. Juan changed his diet and dramatically increased his exercise level, and subsequently lost a lot of weight. Over the next few years, Juan maintained his new, lower, body weight. Which of the following theories best accounts for this type of example?
A)lipostatic theory
B)set-point theory
C)glucostatic theory
D)settling-point theory
Q3) Some psychologists have suggested that the function of emotions is to motivate the organism. What do you think this means? Illustrate your points with examples.
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Q1) William, a subject in a psychology experiment, just received an injection that raised his blood glucose level. Which of the following is William most likely to report?
A)He feels happy.
B)He does not feel hungry.
C)He feels angry.
D)He feels hungry.
Q2) In Buss's study on sex differences in human mate selection, what was consistent across cultures?
A)the value women place on a man's physical attractiveness
B)the value placed on female chastity (or lack of previous sexual intercourse)
C)the value women place on a man's social status and financial prospects
D)the value placed on kindness, dependability, and emotional stability
Q3) Kathy has lost 25 pounds recently through dieting. Which theory suggests that she will have difficulty keeping the weight off because her metabolism has decreased in order to maintain the fat stores in her body?
A)set-point theory
B)dietary restraint theory
C)evolutionary theory
D)settling-point theory
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Q1) Which identity phase is characterized by having a sense of self and direction after consideration of alternative possibilities?
A)achievement
B)foreclosure
C)moratorium
D)diffusion
Q2) Brock was not sure what he wanted to do while he was in college, so he talked to the career counsellors last year. His profile showed a strong interest in both medicine and animals, so he got a part-time job at the local humane society. He also checked the requirements for veterinary school, and he has now completed six of the courses required for the veterinary program. He is convinced that this is the ideal career for him. What identity status does this represent according to James Marcia?
A)moratorium
B)diffusion
C)achievement
D)foreclosure
Q3) Describe the four stages of cognitive development proposed by Jean Piaget, and discuss the major developmental changes associated with each of the stages.
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Q1) If the developing organism is about 2.5 cm long and has already developed most of the vital organs and bodily structures, which stage of prenatal development is just ending?
A)embryonic
B)germinal
C)zygote
D)fetal
Q2) Ahlam is 10 years old and has serious emotional and behaviour problems that require counselling. Based on research conducted by Thomas and Chess, what type of temperament would Alham have been most likely to display in infancy?
A)easy
B)slow-to-warm-up
C)ambivalent
D)difficult
Q3) What is the duration of the preoperational stage of cognitive development?
A)birth-age 2
B)ages 2-7
C)ages 7-11
D)age 11 onward
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Q1) Which of the following statements would Sigmund Freud have been least likely to make?
A)Most of our behaviour is rationally directed.
B)Behaviour is the outcome of an interaction among several components of personality.
C)A great deal of our behaviour and thoughts are symbolic of hidden motives.
D)Most behaviour is rooted in the unconscious.
Q2) Which theoretical orientation argues that psychology should study only observable behaviour?
A)humanism
B)rational-emotive
C)behaviourism
D)invasive
Q3) Marcos is very quiet and avoids large groups. Some people consider him unfriendly, and he seldom takes a stand or acts assertively. How would Marcos probably score based on the five-factor model of personality?
A)high in neuroticism
B)low in agreeableness
C)low in openness
D)low in extraversion

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Q1) Which level of awareness contains material just beneath the surface of awareness that can easily be retrieved?
A)subconscious
B)unconscious
C)preconscious
D)conscious
Q2) According to Sigmund Freud, what is the superego?
A)the moral component of personality
B)the mediating agent between the other two components of personality
C)the unconscious aspect of personality
D)the biological impulses that drive our behaviour
Q3) John is very friendly and outgoing. Which term would Carl Jung use to describe John?
A)exuberant
B)extravert
C)introvert
D)independent
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Q1) Which of the following is supported by evidence on the benefits of exercise for reduction of disease risk?
A)Competitive sports are best, because the focus on winning leads to the most adaptive responses.
B)High amounts of exercise will make you immune to stress.
C)Maintaining an exercise regimen is important for young adults, but the benefits decline as we age.
D)Moderate amounts of exercise reduce your overall risk of disease.
Q2) The Sidewinders football team made a big comeback in the second half of the game. All their kicker needed to do was kick a field goal, and they would win the game by two points. Unfortunately, the kicker missed, and they lost the game. What did the Sidewinders' coach most likely experience, as he watched the kick go wide?
A)frustration
B)burnout
C)pressure
D)conflict
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Q1) Which situation illustrates typical effects of cumulative hassles?
A)A soldier develops PTSD after being involved in combat.
B)A teenager won't go to school because of constant bullying.
C)A man takes a leave of absence from work to undergo treatment for a chronic illness.
D)A woman becomes irritable and unproductive because of constant interruptions at work.
Q2) What differs between acute and chronic stressors?
A)physical reactions
B)duration
C)conscious awareness
D)intensity
Q3) Jennie is shopping for wedding dresses, and she has found two that she loves. She is having a hard time deciding between them. What sort of conflict is Jennie experiencing?
A)attractive-attractive conflict
B)avoidance-avoidance conflict
C)approach-approach conflict
D)approach-avoidance conflict
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of the antisocial personality?
A)aggressiveness
B)manipulative behaviour
C)social charm
D)excessive guilt
Q2) Grayson seems to be preoccupied with the possibility that he might miss an important message from someone in his family. He checks for new messages on his phone every 15 minutes. Which of the following terms best describes this behaviour?
A)compulsion
B)obsession
C)hallucination
D)delusion
Q3) Which of the following represents the sex difference in incidence rates for depression?
A)It is nearly twice as frequent in women as in men.
B)It occurs nearly twice as frequently in men as in women.
C)It is nearly four times as frequent in women as in men.
D)It occurs with equal frequency in women and in men.
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Q1) On which DSM-IV axis would antisocial personality disorder be listed?
A)Axis IV
B)Axis II
C)Axis III
D)Axis I
Q2) On which axis of the DSM-IV would a clinician document a patient's health issues, like heart disease or hypertension?
A)Axis I
B)Axis IV
C)Axis II
D)Axis III
Q3) Which class of psychological disorders is currently under heated debate because of the current methods used to diagnose or categorize those disorders?
A)dissociative disorders
B)personality disorders
C)mood disorders
D)anxiety disorders
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Q1) A major difference between insight therapies and behaviour therapies is in their position about whether it's necessary or useful to seek out the origin of psychological difficulties. A compromise position might be that this kind of information is important for patients with some disorders, but not for patients with other disorders. Explain why this kind of information might be more helpful for some kinds of patients than for others.
Q2) Earl is an extremely aggressive child who often hits other children when he can't get his own way. Earl is now seeing a behavioural therapist who has discussed appropriate ways of interacting with peers, and has shown Earl several videotapes of children resolving conflicts in nonaggressive ways. Earl has also engaged in "role play," during which the therapist has provided corrective feedback and positive reinforcement. What type of treatment is this?
A)systematic desensitization
B)social skills training
C)rational-emotive therapy
D)aversion therapy
Q3) Compare and contrast the psychoanalytic and humanistic brands of insight therapy.
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Q1) What is the term for the policy of transferring the treatment of mental illness from inpatient institutions to community-based facilities?
A)cost-benefit policy
B)minimalization
C)deinstitutionalization
D)dehospitalization
Q2) Which of the following therapies is NOT one of the three major categories of psychotherapy?
A)behaviour therapies
B)emotion therapies
C)biomedical therapies
D)insight therapies
Q3) What are the two principle types of professionals involved in providing psychotherapy?
A)psychologists and psychoanalysts
B)psychiatrists and counsellors
C)psychologists and psychiatrists
D)psychoanalysts and counsellors
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Q1) Why do you think so many of the ""teachers" in Milgram's "shocking" experiment on obedience administered the highest levels of shock to their "learners"? In answering this question you undoubtedly made some sort of attributions of the teachers' behaviour. Analyze the attributions you made in terms of what you've learned about attribution theory from your textbook.
Q2) Which of the following is generally NOT considered a factor in explaining why individuals' performance in groups declines?
A)social loafing
B)loss of coordination between members
C)duplication of effort by group members
D)unequal numbers of male and female members
Q3) Akashi always seems to become involved in volatile love relationships. He constantly expects to be rejected by other people, and he is extremely jealous when he actually forms a relationship with someone. Which of the following would Hazan and Shaver suggest about Akashi's infancy?
A)He developed an avoidant attachment with his parents.
B)He developed a secure attachment with his parents.
C)He failed to develop any type of attachment with his parents.
D)He developed an anxious-ambivalent attachment with his parents.
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Q1) In persuasion, what is the term for the person who sends or conveys the communication?
A)medium
B)transmitter
C)source
D)spokesperson
Q2) Leslie tends to engage in sex to reduce her feelings of insecurity and to enhance the closeness of her relationship. Which type of attachment style does this reflect?
A)manipulative attachment
B)secure attachment
C)avoidant attachment
D)anxious-ambivalent attachment
Q3) What is the term for the decisions that Richard and Elaine made about the reasons that people did or did not buy tickets?
A)schemas
B)attributions
C)self-serving biases
D)blame
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Q1) How is the median determined?
A)Add up all the scores and divide by the number of scores.
B)Arrange the scores in increasing order and find the middle score.
C)Divide the middle score by the number of scores.
D)Find the most frequently occurring score.
Q2) When a distribution of scores includes a few extreme scores (either extremely high or extremely low) which measure of central tendency is considered to be most accurate?
A)average
B)median
C)mode
D)mean
Q3) What is NOT one of the uses of statistics?
A)to collect numerical data
B)to interpret numerical data
C)to summarize numerical data
D)to organize numerical data
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the five major changes in modern society that have affected personnel selection?
A)rapid technological change, including changes in communication technology
B)globalization of most large corporations
C)increase in the use of teams to accomplish work
D)shifting from a service orientation to a manufacturing orientation
Q2) How are formal performance appraisals related to employee retention?
A)Formal appraisals stretch out the probationary period, providing extra time for training and allowing employees to believe they belong.
B)Only those employees who pass the appraisal are retained.
C)Employees who believe that appraisal is fair and effective are more committed to the organization.
D)Grading systems are used that allow low-quality employees to recognize their weaknesses.
Q3) According to your text, what are "essential skills"?
A)those that make it possible to learn all other needed skills
B)those that are synonymous with common sense
C)those developed as part of a university degree
D)basic programming and customer service abilities
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Q1) How should you approach materials presented on the Internet by professional advocacy groups?
A)Advocacy groups usually present only one side of an argument, and may be biased even if they contain useful information for one side of the argument.
B)They are best for information about legal items, but don't necessarily include accurate health or disease-related information.
C)If they're professional groups, then they are more reliable.
D)Advocacy groups tend to publish propaganda, and are known for distributing intentionally misleading information about their causes.
Q2) What is a danger associated with using the Internet for homework or research?
A)Students who use Internet sources are likely to be tempted to plagiarize.
B)Because the Internet is convenient, students may spend too much time using it as a resource and not spend enough time on more difficult research methods.
C)Internet sources are written at too low of a level to be useful for university-level research.
D)Internet resources are unstable and impermanent, so students are unable to provide verification of their research efforts.
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