Basics of Hearing Disorders Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Basics of Hearing Disorders introduces students to the fundamental concepts of auditory system anatomy, physiology, and the common pathological conditions that affect hearing. The course covers the classification and causes of hearing loss, including conductive, sensorineural, and mixed disorders, as well as diagnostic approaches and common assessment techniques. Students will also learn about the impact of hearing disorders on communication, daily functioning, and quality of life, and gain insights into the principles of prevention, early identification, and basic rehabilitation strategies.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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16 Chapters
457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Page 2
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over the age of 75 years,the proportion of adults with hearing loss is approximately
Answer: One half 50%)
Q2) Which organization,in 1988,was formed "of,by,and for audiologists"?
A)American Speech-Language-Hearing Association
B)American Otology Association
C)American Academy of Audiology
D)Ear Institute
Answer: C
Q3) Up to _____in 1000 children is born with some degree of hearing impairment. Answer: Six
Q4) What is the current entry-level degree for the practice of audiology?
Answer: Doctor of Audiology AuD)
Q5) When was the AuD first introduced?
Answer: In the 1990s
Q6) Audiologists are non-physician healthcare professionals who treat hearing loss with techniques other than medicine or surgery.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three factors that influence the speed of sound are _________,_________,and _________.
Answer: Temperature, humidity, barometric pressure
Q2) The repeated back and forth movement of a vibrating object is called _______ motion.
Answer: Simple harmonic motion
Q3) List three different sounds that are used by audiologist in their daily practice. Answer: Sine waves/pure tones,speech and noise.
Q4) RETSPLS are the same regardless of the transducer used to measure them. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) Define dB HL
Answer: The unit dB HL stands for decibel hearing level.0 dB HL is defined as the lowest intensity that a normal hearing person can hear at any frequency).dB HL can be converted to the corresponding dB SPL using the appropriate RETSPL value.For example, 0 dB HL at 1000 Hz corresponds to 7.5 dB SPL 0 +7.5) when measured using TDH earphones.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name at least four anatomical landmarks found in the middle ear space.
Answer: Round window, Oval window, Promontory, Stapedius muscle, Eustachian tube
Q2) An auditory structure in the thalamus is the: ______________________ body.
Answer: Medial Geniculate
Q3) The hair cells and other important cochlear structures are found in the organ of __________.
Answer: Corti
Q4) Descending pathways in the brain that lead out to the hair cells are called the ____________________ auditory system.
Answer: Efferent auditory system
Q5) The main parts of the outer ear are ______ and ________.
Answer: Auricle/Pinna, External ear canal
Q6) The middle ear contains fluid,while the inner ear contains air.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q7) Name two characteristics of a healthy normal tympanic membrane.
Page 5
Answer: The normal tympanic membrane is shiny and pearly in color.It reflects light upon illumination cone of light).
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calibration of hearing test equipment is optional.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q3) Prevention of medical ___________ is a serious concern in healthcare.
Q4) A patient history should be taken after hearing testing is complete.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________.
Q6) What are some examples of universal precautions for patient safety?
Q7) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.
Q8) Which of the following is a factor in behavioral hearing assessment?
A)Age in young children
B)State of arousal
C)Cognitive function and language status
D)All of the above
Q9) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________.
6
Q10) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q11) What types of noise are used to mask the non-test ear?
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
Q2) Typical pure tone frequencies included in air conduction hearing testing encompass the range of
A)500 to 2000 Hz.
B)500 to 4000 Hz.
C)250 to 8000 Hz.
D)None of the above.
Q3) Which of the following audiometer features are often used in pure tone hearing testing?
A)Hearing level dial
B)Stimulus switch control
C)Frequency control
D)All of the above
Q4) The Fletcher pure tone average is best described as an average of
A)Hearing thresholds for 500,1000,and 2000 Hz.
B)Hearing thresholds for 500,1000,2000,and 3000 Hz.
C)The better two hearing thresholds at test frequencies of 500,1000 & 2000 Hz.
D)None of the above.
Q5) What are some important steps that should precede pure tone audiometry?
Page 8
Q6) Describe briefly what is meant by vibrotactile response.
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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________.
Q2) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Q3) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q5) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
Q6) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q7) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Q8) The maximum score in word recognition performance is always at a comfortable listening level.
A)True
B)False
Q9) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer?
Q10) What is meant by the term "rollover"?
Q11) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry. Page 9
Q12) What is a spondee word?
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Page 10
Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the masking dilemma.
Q2) An increase or shift in hearing threshold in the test ear when a modest amount of masking is presented to the non-test ear is known as:
A)The Bing effect
B)Under-masking
C)Central masking
D)The occlusion effect
Q3) Minimum interaural attenuation for supra-aural earphones in air-conduction testing is:
A)0 dB
B)40 dB
C)60 dB
D)80 dB
Q4) Minimum inter-aural attenuation for insert earphones in air-conduction testing is:
A).0 dB
B)40 dB
C)60 dB
D)80 dB
Q5) Covering an ear during bone-conduction testing produces the __________.
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A perforated tympanic membrane would result in a _____ type tympanogram.
Q2) The acoustic reflex involves contraction of the ________________muscle.
Q3) OAEs are always normal when pure tone audiometry is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Only the stapedius muscle is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
B)Only the facial nerve is involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
C)Only the ossicles are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
D)Many structures in the middle ear and the central auditory pathway are involved during the activation of the acoustic reflex.
Q5) The abbreviation ART stands for __________.
Q6) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.
Q8) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
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Q9) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.
Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tests fall into the category of diagnostic speech audiometry?
A)Filtered word tests
B)Dichotic listening tests
C)Speech-in-noise tests
D)All of the above
Q2) Word recognition measurement in quiet is an example of a diagnostic speech audiometry test.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests."
Q4) There is usually no need for further assessment for a patient whose hearing complaints are confirmed by abnormal performance on pure tone and/or simple speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Wave V of the ABR is believed to originate mostly from the ______ part of the brainstem.
Q6) The ABR cannot be recorded from children who are sleeping or sedated.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) VEMP testing involves measurement of changes in the tension of the _________ muscle.
Q2) Best practice is ___________-based practice.
Q3) Name some characteristics of test performance of a screening procedure.
Q4) Hearing loss associated with aging is termed ___________.
Q5) Risk factors for infant hearing loss include each of the following EXCEPT
A)NICU stay of more than five days.
B)In utero infections.
C)Syndromes associated with hearing loss.
D)Term birth 40-week gestational age.
Q6) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q7) Evidence-based clinical procedures and techniques for diagnosis and management of hearing,vestibular,and related disorders are the basis for __________.
Q8) The two objective techniques recommended for universal newborn hearing screening are ____ and _____.
Page 15
Q9) The radiological technique that is best suited for detection of tumors involving the auditory system is ________.
Q10) What is the first step in the diagnostic process?
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Page 16
Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a craniofacial abnormality?
A)Preauricular pit
B)Aural atresia
C)Microtia
D)Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Q2) A _________________ is a growth of skin,a cyst,in the middle ear space.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four symptoms typically associated with Meniere's disease?
a.Fluctuation sensory hearing loss
b.Tinnitus
c.Vertigo
d.Schwartz sign
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the characteristics of Meniere's disease?
Q5) Sensorineural hearing loss never fluctuates in severity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain why audiologists should have knowledge about ear diseases and disorders.
Q7) What is otosclerosis and what are the treatment options for it?
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Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Q1) What factors help to determine the diagnosis and location of tumors in the central nervous system?
Q2) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and ______.
Q3) What are some major features of ANSD?
Q4) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
Q5) One risk factor for auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder in infants is graduation from the ____________________.
Q6) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma
D)All of the above True or False
Q7) Which of the following is NOT a possible site of dysfunction in auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder:
A)Middle ear
B)Inner hair cells
C)Synapse between inner hair cells and auditory nerve
D)Auditory nerve fibers Page 18
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Page 19
Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify three advantages of binaural hearing aid fittings over monaural fittings.
Q2) Describe the function of the microphone,amplifier,and receiver in a hearing aid.
Q3) Which of the following are criteria for cochlear implantation in adult patients?
A)Bilateral severe-to-profound sensory hearing loss
B)Post-lingual hearing impairment in the ear to be implanted
C)Minimal benefit from appropriate amplification
D)All of the above
Q4) Binaural cochlear implants provide significantly more benefit than monaural implants.
A)True B)False
Q5) FM technology can be used with hearing aids,but not with cochlear implants. A)True B)False
Q6) Describe the main differences between personal and classroom FM systems.
Q7) Measurements such as hearing aid gain and frequency response are collectively termed ______________.
Q8) What is hearing aid validation?
Q9) Hearing aid technology can be described as ______,_______,or ________. Page 20
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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are psychosocial problems associated with hearing loss:
A)Anxiety
B)Anger
C)Self-consciousness
D)All of the above
Q2) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.
Q3) The strategy of using visual cues from the face and lips to better understand speech is known as _____________.
Q4) Consequences of complete unilateral hearing loss include:
A)Problem localizing the source of sound
B)Risk for academic problems
C)Risk for language impairment
D)All of the above
Q5) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
Q6) Explain in some detail why audiological habilitation is challenging for infants and young children with hearing loss.
Page 22
Q7) An example of a computer-based program for auditory training in adults is
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Q1) A tinnitus evaluation usually involves measurement of the _______ and the ________ of a patient's tinnitus.
Q2) Hearing aids play no role in the management of tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A behavioral hearing test designed to detect of false or exaggerated hearing loss is the
A)Count-the-dots test
B)Carhart test
C)Stenger test
D)Tone decay test
Q4) Tinnitus is always heard as a ringing sound.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly summarize two findings or indicators on hearing assessment that raise the suspicion of false or exaggerated hearing loss.
Q6) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Q1) An audiology or speech pathology report is a legal document.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.
Q3) Why is it important to determine the location of auditory dysfunction in patients with ANSD?
Q4) Audiologists can monitor auditory and facial nerve in the operating room during tumor removal surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List four essential components of a patient audiology report.
Q6) Name a vestibular disorder in which the audiologist is directly involved in rehabilitation.
Q7) Habilitation/rehabilitation of infant hearing loss is:
A)Completed at birth
B)Family centered
C)The responsibility of otolaryngologists
D)Deferred until kindergarten
Q8) Two important goals of cochlear implant programming are estimation of _______ and the __________. Page 25
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