Basic Psychology Test Questions - 7014 Verified Questions

Basic Psychology Test Questions

Course Introduction

Basic Psychology is an introductory course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. Through exploring key concepts such as cognition, perception, learning, emotion, motivation, development, and psychological disorders, students will gain insight into how individuals think, feel, and act. The course also covers the major theories and approaches within psychology, research methods, and practical applications, equipping students with analytical tools to better understand themselves and others.

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Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by Sandra E. Hockenbury

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Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Summarize the assumptions and attitudes that are held by psychologists.

Answer: The answer should include the following information: Regardless of their approach or specialty, psychologists who do research are scientists. And like scientists, they rely on the scientific method to guide their research. Psychologists are guided by the basic scientific assumption that events are lawful and explainable. Psychologists are also open-minded and willing to consider new or alternative explanations of behavior and mental processes. However, their open-minded attitude is tempered by a healthy sense of scientific skepticism, using which they critically evaluate the evidence for new findings, especially when they seem contrary to established knowledge.

Q2) Your best friend is having difficulty in his Introduction to Psychology course. He scores low on tests and quizzes and wants to know how he can bring up his grade. According to Psych for Your Life, what are six research-based suggestions that will help your friend improve his performance in class?

Answer: The answer should include the following information: Six successful study tips include:Answer: Focus your attention.Answer: Engage your mind: Be an active reader.Answer: In the classroom, take notes by hand, not on your laptop.Answer: Practice retrieval: The testing effect.Answer: Use flashcards and practice tests correctly.Answer: Space out your study time.

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Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) As a psychology researcher, you have found that the public expression of emotions differs among people in the United States, Japan, Switzerland, and Israel. This type of research fits BEST with which perspective in psychology?

A)evolutionary

B)cross-cultural

C)cognitive

D)humanistic

Answer: B

Q2) Barongon is a counseling psychologist who emphasizes the importance of choices and self-direction to his clients so that they can strive to reach their fullest potential. Dr. Barongon subscribes to the _____ perspective of psychology.

A)cross-cultural

B)psychodynamic

C)cognitive

D)humanistic

Answer: D

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Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) A positive correlation reflects a cause-and-effect relationship between two variables, while a negative correlation indicates the absence of a cause-and-effect relationship between the variables.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) The word pseudo means "rare" or "unusual."

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) For survey results to apply to a particular group, every person within that group must respond to the survey questionnaire.

A)True

B)False Answer: False

Q4) By the late 1980s, cross-cultural psychology had emerged in full force.

A)True

B)False Answer: True

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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Ginsburg wants to study possible gender differences in the willingness of young children to engage in risky behaviors. To gather data, Ginsburg and a co-researcher carefully observe the willingness of boys and girls to try risky behaviors at a local zoo, such as petting a burro or feeding different animals. Dr. Ginsburg is using _____ to gather data.

A)naturalistic observation

B)a survey

C)the case study method

D)a representative sample

Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the brain-imaging techniques discussed in the Focus on Neuroscience section in the text?

A)magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

B)functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

C)transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

D)positron emission tomography (PET)

Q3) The second step of the scientific method is to:

A)analyze the data to arrive at conclusions.

B)formulate a specific question that can be tested.

C)report the results.

D)design a study and collect relevant data.

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Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) The term _____ refers to the tendency to use your own culture as the standard for judging other cultures.

A)ethnocentrism

B)expectancy effect

C)empiricism

D)collectivism

Q2) Researchers at the United Family Therapy Center are conducting a study to determine how quickly symptoms of anxiety are reduced by different forms of psychotherapy. What is the dependent variable in this study?

A)the change in the symptoms of anxiety

B)the method used to recruit participants for the study

C)the type of psychotherapy used to treat anxiety

D)the number of participants receiving each type of psychotherapy

Q3) A hypothesis is a(n):

A)clearly defined independent variable.

B)theory that is supported by research evidence.

C)tentative statement that describes the relationship between two or more variables.

D)operational definition assigned to the independent variable.

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain how the hypothalamus, endocrine system, and nervous system are linked. How does the hypothalamus contribute to the functioning of the endocrine glands?

Q2) Explain with examples how a drug can act as an antagonist.

Q3) Select two neurotransmitters and describe their influence on behavior.

Q4) What does it mean to say that a neuron is polarized?

Q5) What are the functions of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system?

Q6) What is the primary motor cortex? What is the degree of representation on the primary motor cortex?

Q7) Assume that you are going to learn a challenging new skill, such as juggling or a complicated video game. According to research presented in your textbook, how long does it take for learning to transfer into structural changes in the brain?

Q8) Describe the differences in male and female brains and discuss what conclusions can be drawn from research on gender differences and the brain.

Q9) What is the somatosensory cortex? How is it organized?

Q10) What are the three basic components of a neuron, and what function does each component perform?

Page 8

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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) German researchers conducted a study investigating what happens to the brain when we learn a new, challenging skill. Participants learned to juggle and then had brain scans taken using MRI. What changes did the MRI scans reveal?

A)a 3 to 4 percent increase in gray matter in two brain regions involved in perceiving, remembering, and anticipating complex visual motions

B)a 3 to 4 percent increase in white matter in a brain region involved in kinesthetic sense

C)a 3 to 4 percent decrease in white matter in two brain regions involved in perceiving, remembering, and anticipating complex motions

D)There were no brain changes identifiable in the scans.

Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is implicated in Alzheimer's disease?

A)pepsin

B)axilla

C)acetylcholine

D)cervicis

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9

Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The amygdala is involved in a variety of emotional responses, including fear, anger, and disgust.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Biological psychology is the scientific study of the biological bases of behavior and mental processes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Although the basic premise of phrenology was disproved, it helped trigger scientific interest in the idea of cortical localization.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Human Connectome Project's goal is to map the millions of miles of neural connections among the 100 billion neurons in the human brain.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Oligodendrocytes provide connections between neurons and blood vessels.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) According to the box "Critical Thinking: "His" and "Her" Brains?", which of the following is FALSE?

A)Men's brains tend to be much smaller than women's brains.

B)Women and men have different proportions of gray to white matter in their brains.

C)In general, the male brain is more asymmetrical and functions are more lateralized than in the female brain.

D)Men's brains tend to be larger than women's brains.

Q2) The resting potential is:

A)the length of time that a neuron is incapable of activating after an action potential.

B)the term used to describe how the sympathetic nervous system reduces arousal and conserves energy.

C)a state in which a neuron has a negative electrical charge of about -70 millivolts.

D)a state in which a neuron has a positive electrical charge of +70 millivolts.

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Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) When neurotransmitters communicate an inhibitory message to the postsynaptic neuron:

A)reuptake is inhibited.

B)the presynaptic neuron is less likely to activate.

C)the action potential is canceled out.

D)the postsynaptic neuron is less likely to activate.

Q2) According to the box Critical Thinking: "His" and "Her" Brains, research indicates that:

A)brain structures and functions in men and women are essentially the same.

B)men and women are much more different than they are similar.

C)women are less effective at problem solving and decision making.

D)men are much more emotional than previously believed.

Q3) The _____ is involved in regulating blood sugar levels and in hunger.

A)pituitary gland

B)pancreas

C)pineal gland

D)thyroid gland

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12

Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) Explain what is meant by bottom-up processing and top-down processing. Provide examples of each.

Q2) Discuss the sense of touch including the nature and location of sensory receptor cells.

Q3) Describe the electromagnetic spectrum. Distinguish between the visible and invisible portions of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Q4) Provide an example of perceptual set and explain how it influences perceptual experiences.

Q5) How do rods and cones differ?

Q6) What are pheromones and what evidence is there for the existence of human pheromones?

Q7) How do airborne molecules result in the sensation of an odor?

Q8) Distinguish the fast and slow pain pathways in terms of the sequence of nervous system structures to which pain signals are transmitted.

Q9) What is sensory adaptation and why is it important?

Q10) How do frequency theory and place theory explain the perception of pitch?

Page 13

Q11) Describe Weber's law and give an example to illustrate it.

Q12) How does the sensation of taste occur?

Q13) How does the gate-control theory explain the perception of pain?

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Page 14

Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) As used in parapsychology, the German word ganzfeld means:

A)unified whole or shape.

B)a holistic approach to healing physical illnesses and relieving pain.

C)total field.

D)the essence of something.

Q2) According to the trichromatic theory of color vision people who have red-green color blindness have:

A)far fewer cones than people with normal color vision.

B)normal red-sensitive cones, but lack blue-sensitive cones.

C)normal blue-sensitive cones, but their other cones are sensitive to either red or green but not both.

D)color receptors that are limited to the blue-yellow opponent pair.

Q3) The term gestalt means a(n):

A)unified whole, form, or shape.

B)perceptual illusion.

C)perceptual principle or law.

D)unexplainable paranormal experience or event.

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Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) Biofeedback involves the use of equipment that detects subtle bodily changes and helps people gain a greater degree of conscious control over largely automatic body functions, such as blood pressure and muscle tension.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Human pheromones can affect mood and emotional states.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The technical name for the sense of smell is olfaction.

A)True

B)False

Q4) There are two kinds of sensory thresholds for each sense: the absolute threshold and the difference threshold.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Because of linear perspective, it is possible to see three-dimensional objects in stereograms.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cones are concentrated in the _____ and specialized for _____.

A)center of the retina; distance vision and feature detection

B)fovea; color vision and visual acuity

C)fovea; peripheral vision and vision in low-light conditions

D)periphery of the retina; color vision and visual acuity

Q2) The receptor cells for vision are sensitive to what kind of stimulus?

A)light

B)heat

C)vibration

D)tactile

Q3) Which perceptual illusions involve size constancy?

A)the moon illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion

B)the Müller-Lyer illusion and the impossible figure illusion

C)the moon illusion and the Müller-Lyer illusion

D)the carpentered-world illusion and the Shepard Tables illusion

Q4) The optic disk produces:

A)color vision.

B)night vision.

C)the blind spot.

D)proprioception.

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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your Pacinian corpuscles are sensory receptors that respond to:

A)barometric changes.

B)pressure.

C)pain.

D)movement.

Q2) _____ is the scientific study of paranormal phenomena and ESP.

A)Parapsychology

B)Extrasensory psychology

C)Pseudopsychology

D)Gestalt psychology

Q3) According to the volley principle, _____ fire into "volleys."

A)dendrites

B)neurons

C)hair cells

D)auditory nerves

Q4) The phenomenon of afterimages can be best explained by which theory?

A)frequency theory

B)place theory

C)trichromatic theory

D)opponent-process theory

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Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) What is exploding head syndrome? Is this a rare condition? Explain your answer.

Q2) Describe and provide an example of misdirection, inattentional bias, and inattentional deafness.

Q3) Define dyssomnia, and then list and describe the characteristics of three dyssomnias discussed in the textbook.

Q4) How do sleep specialists treat obstructive sleep apnea? Give a specific answer.

Q5) What are the effects that can be produced by hypnosis?

Q6) How do patterns of sleep change over the lifespan?

Q7) Mel, aged 68, has been an avid fan of meditation since he was a young college student. His brother-in-law, Dave, believes that mediation is a waste of time with no lasting benefits. According to research presented in the Focus on Neuroscience box: Mediation and Brain: in your textbook, which man is correct?

Q8) What are the potential benefits of meditation?

Q9) How do dyssomnias and parasomnias differ?

Q10) Contrast Freud's explanation of the significance of dreams with that of the activation-synthesis model of dreaming.

Page 19

Q11) What characterizes each of the different NREM sleep stages?

Q12) Why do we sleep?

Q13) What situations can produce symptoms of jet lag?

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Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Although Audrey had told Lyle before they got married that she was a sleepwalker as a child, Lyle thought nothing of it. But after they had been married for about two years, Lyle discovered that Audrey had started sleepwalking again. But instead of just wandering aimlessly around their apartment, Audrey would often sleepwalk to the kitchen and compulsively eat anything that was sweet-tasting. After consulting a sleep specialist, Lyle learned that Audrey had:

A)REM sleep behavior disorder.

B)a parasomnia called sleep-related eating disorder.

C)a condition called narcolepsy.

D)a parasomnia called sexsomnia.

Q2) After turning out the light for the night, your head hits the pillow. Gradually your muscles relax and drowsiness occurs. This drowsy yet wakeful state is associated with _____ brain waves.

A)alpha

B)beta

C)theta

D)delta

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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Sleep-related eating disorder (SRED) involves episodes of frequent sleepwalking to the kitchen and compulsive eating during stage 3 and 4 NREM slow-wave sleep, with no memory of the episodes upon awakening in the morning.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The term circadian rhythm refers to biological and psychological processes that fluctuate over a period of about 24 hours.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A newborn baby spends more time in REM sleep each day than does a 3-year-old child.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Ecstasy seems to derive its mood-altering effects from its effect on the brain's dopamine receptors.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) _____ cannot be produced through hypnosis.

A)Temporary blindness or deafness

B)Temporary moments of superhuman strength

C)Relief from pain

D)Loss of sensation in a specific body area, such as an arm or a leg,

Q2) Which of the following is a category of addictive drugs that mimic the properties of natural brain substances called endorphins?

A)depressants

B)tranquilizers

C)psychedelics

D)opiates

Q3) Biological processes that systematically vary over a 24-hour cycle are called _____ and are regulated by a cluster of neurons called the _____.

A)intrinsic rhythms; melatonin cluster

B)circadian rhythms; suprachiasmatic nucleus

C)circadian rhythms; pineal gland

D)brain waves; suprachiasmatic nucleus

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Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Caffeine:

A)is the most widely used psychoactive drug in the world.

B)gets its stimulant effects by promoting the release of adenosine in the brain's prefrontal cortex.

C)achieves its stimulant effects by blocking the reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

D)is the most widely used non-physically addictive drug in the world.

Q2) Mac has been driving for almost 30 hours straight because he was promised a $1,000 bonus if he delivers his truckload of refrigerated roses by 5:00 A.M. the next morning. As Mac drives through the night and gets progressively more tired, he is likely to experience:

A)a surge in brain levels of hypocretin.

B)very brief episodes of sleep called microsleeps.

C)a sleep-related eating disorder.

D)cataplexy.

Q3) German psychiatrist Hans Berger advanced the scientific study of sleep when he:

A)invented the electroencephalograph.

B)discovered the PET scan.

C)performed the first fMRI.

D)identified patterns of REM sleep in primates and humans.

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Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Q1) What is learned helplessness and how was it first demonstrated?

Q2) Pick two of the four basic schedules of reinforcement, describe them, and give at least one example of the reinforcement schedule operating in daily life.

Q3) Why did conditioned taste aversions appear to violate the original principles of classical conditioning, and how did they come to be explained?

Q4) Describe the famous "Little Albert" study, including the implications of the study's results.

Q5) Discuss criticisms of the famous "Little Albert" study.

Q6) How did Edward Tolman demonstrate the role of mental processes in operant conditioning?

Q7) Explain how Robert Rescorla demonstrated that mental processes are involved in classical conditioning.

Q8) Discuss how the principles of observational learning have been applied to promote social change and healthy behaviors.

Q9) Describe John Garcia's research, and explain why his findings were originally rejected.

Q10) What conditions increase the likelihood that a behavior will be imitated?

Q11) Describe Martin Seligman's research on learned helplessness in dogs.

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Q1) Negative reinforcement _____ the likelihood of a behavior being repeated, and positive punishment _____ the likelihood of a behavior being repeated.

A)increases; increases

B)increases; decreases

C)decreases; increases

D)decreases; decreases

Q2) Which of the following best illustrates classical conditioning?

A)After watching another three-year-old stick out her tongue at the daycare worker, Beth does the same thing.

B)Jenny studied hard to achieve a high grade point average.

C)Because his older brother once locked him in the closet, Allen gets anxious in small, enclosed rooms.

D)Susan gives her daughter five dollars a week to help with chores around the house.

Q3) There are two basic types of conditioning: _____ and _____ conditioning.

A)primary; secondary

B)learned; observed

C)classical; operant

D)automatic; independent

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) Although people often blame their environment for their problems, B. F. Skinner argued that the real problem is that people fail to take responsibility for their actions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Research on taste aversions clearly shows that in order for classical conditioning to occur, the interval between the CS and the UCS can be no more than a few seconds.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The phenomenon of learned helplessness, discovered by Martin Seligman and Steven Maier, demonstrates that expectations can play a significant role in classical and operant conditioning.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The law of effect helps to explain how classically conditioned responses develop from pairing a biologically significant UCS with a neutral stimulus.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) A pigeon in operant chamber #1 regularly receives a pellet of food after every 10 pecks at a red disk, no matter how long it takes. A rat in operant chamber #2 regularly receives a pellet of food for the first bar press it makes after 10 minutes have passed, no matter how many bar presses it makes. The pigeon is on a _____ schedule of reinforcement, and the rat is on a _____ schedule of reinforcement.

A)fixed-ratio; fixed-interval

B)fixed-interval; fixed-ratio

C)fixed-ratio; variable-interval

D)fixed-ratio; variable-ratio

Q2) _____ was the theorist who discovered the basic process of classical conditioning.

A)Albert Bandura

B)B. F. Skinner

C)John B. Watson

D)Ivan Pavlov

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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Questions

Q1) Tyrone always starts his day with a cup of black coffee. Last night, Tyrone stayed at his mother's home, and she made him a cup of coffee when he got up. Later, Tyrone was surprised to learn that the coffee was decaffeinated because he had actually felt more alert after drinking it. In this example, what are the conditioned stimulus and conditioned response?

A)The CS is the caffeine, and the CR is alertness.

B)The CS is the smell and taste of coffee, and the CR is the caffeine.

C)The CS is alertness, and the CR is the smell and taste of coffee.

D)The CS is the smell and taste of coffee, and the CR is alertness.

Q2) Learning is defined as:

A)a process that produces a relatively permanent change in behavior or knowledge as a result of past experience.

B)a process that produces a relatively permanent change in behavior or knowledge due to natural or instinctive processes.

C)the ability to solve problems and apply previous experiences to current situations.

D)one's ability to replace old habits with new habits.

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) Describe the different types of long-term memory, and give an example of each.

Q2) How does the semantic network model describe the organization of information in long-term memory?

Q3) How do explicit and implicit memory differ? Give an example of each.

Q4) Describe schemas and scripts, and explain how they can potentially contribute to inaccurate memories.

Q5) Identify and describe at least two factors that seem to influence forgetting.

Q6) Describe Richard F. Thompson's work on the classically conditioned eye blink response.

Q7) Describe the progression and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, including changes in the brain.

Q8) Explain how source amnesia, inattentional blindness, and encoding failure account for déjà vu experiences.

Q9) Identify the role played by at least three brain structures involved in memory.

Q10) Compare and contrast the characteristics of suppression and repression, giving an example of each.

Page 30

Q11) Briefly describe the stage model of memory, and explain how the memory stages interact.

Q12) Summarize what has been learned about memory from the famous case of H.M.

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Q1) Much of your sense of self is derived from memories of your unique life experiences. These particular kinds of memories are referred to as _____ memories.

A)implicit

B)autobiographical

C)sensory

D)semantic

Q2) Implicit memory is:

A)memory that cannot be consciously recollected.

B)a category of long-term memory that includes memories of particular events.

C)memory that can be consciously recollected.

D)a category of long-term memory that includes memories of general knowledge of facts, names, and concepts.

Q3) The _____ is involved in encoding and transferring new explicit memories to long-term memory.

A)prefrontal cortex

B)hippocampus

C)amygdala

D)cerebellum

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Q1) Numerous studies have shown that exposure to misinformation after an event can distort the memories of eyewitnesses for the original event.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Of all the regions of the brain, the cerebellum plays the most critical role in the encoding of new episodic memories and the transfer of episodic memories from short-term to long-term memory.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Source confusion is a common cause of false memories.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Long-term memory storage capacity seems to be limitless.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Backward-acting memory interference is called proactive interference.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) The basic premise of repressed memory therapy or recovered memory therapy is that:

A)adult psychological problems are often due to sexual abuse in childhood, and memories of the childhood abuse have been repressed.

B)memories can be changed through hypnosis and suggestion.

C)people can be trained or taught to actively suppress traumatic memories, which will result in improved psychological functioning.

D)adult psychological problems are usually due to clear and vivid memories of childhood sexual abuse that are difficult to actively suppress.

Q2) A classic experiment by psychologist George Sperling demonstrated that:

A)the capacity of short-term memory is virtually limitless.

B)the schemas that people hold in a particular situation can erroneously influence the details they later remember about the situation.

C)distributed practice is superior to massed practice.

D)information is held in visual sensory memory for about half a second.

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Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) "My first memory? I can remember the nature walks that our preschool class took almost every day. It was really just a city park that had a small lake and was about three blocks away, but I remember all of us walking in pairs, holding hands, and crossing the streets." According to the research discussed in the Culture and Human Behavior box, memories of general, group activities centered on family or community members were MOST likely to be:

A)a pseudomemory.

B)reported by European American college students.

C)a déjà vu experience.

D)reported by Chinese and Taiwanese college students.

Q2) Ebbinghaus's research led to the creation of the:

A)forgetting curve.

B)interference effect.

C)misinformation effect.

D)hindsight curve.

Q3) Focusing on the meaning of information is called:

A)chunking.

B)clustering.

C)maintenance rehearsal.

D)elaborative rehearsal.

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Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Describe the two-stage model of intuition.

Q2) How can mental sets and functional fixedness interfere with finding solution to problems?

Q3) Describe the differences between algorithms and heuristics, and give an example of each.

Q4) Contrast the viewpoints of Charles Spearman and Louis L. Thurstone on the nature of intelligence.

Q5) Explain what is meant by autism spectrum disorder, intellectual disability, and neurodiversity, from the In Focus Box, "Neurodiversity: Beyond IQ."

Q6) Describe three strategies that can be used to make a decision among several alternatives.

Q7) Describe two examples of research investigating the use of symbolic communication in nonhuman animals.

Q8) Define the concepts of standardization, reliability, and validity, and explain why they are important requirements for any psychological test.

Q9) According to the In Focus box, "Does a High IQ Score Predict Success in Life?" were all of Terman's gifted subjects successful? Explain your answer, comparing outcomes of the A group and the C group.

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) The new Aristographic Creativity Scale had test and retest scores that were highly similar, but it lacked predictive value. In addition, there was some uncertainty about precisely what ability the test was actually measuring. The Aristographic Creativity Scale has:

A)high validity but low reliability.

B)high reliability but low validity.

C)high validity and high reliability.

D)low validity and low reliability.

Q2) Being bilingual may protect against:

A)Alzheimer's disease.

B)autism.

C)ADHD.

D)bipolar disorder.

Q3) In a phenomenon known as _____, awareness of positive expectations can actually improve performance on tasks.

A)neurotypical threat

B)stereotype threat

C)neurotypical lift

D)stereotype lift

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) When people are motivated by external rewards, such as money or grades, they are displaying intrinsic motivation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Heritability estimates suggest that about 75 percent of the differences in IQ scores within a particular population is due to environmental factors.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A key advantage of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test over the WAIS is that the Stanford-Binet provides scores on 11 subtests that measure different abilities rather than simply a global IQ score.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A decision-making strategy in which the choice among many alternatives is simplified by basing the decision on a single feature is called the elimination-by-aspects model.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Juliana is equally proficient in both English and Spanish. Julia has achieved:

A)telegraphic speech.

B)bilingual pragmatics.

C)balanced proficiency.

D)bilingual code switching.

Q2) According to Psych for Your Life: A Workshop on Creativity, creativity can be enhanced if you:

A)ignore everyday hassles and focus on the "big picture."

B)try to avoid learning too much about the area in which you wish to be creative, so as to guarantee a fresh approach.

C)focus all your efforts on refining a single promising approach, rather than be distracted by too many possibilities.

D)are flexible and persist in the face of obstacles and setbacks.

Q3) _____ refers to the percentage of variation within a given population that is due to genetic factors.

A)Intelligibility

B)Heritability

C)Epigenesis

D)Shared environmental influences

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Page 39

Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Psychologist _____ strongly believed that all mental abilities were related to a single common factor called the _____ factor.

A)Louis L. Thurstone; primary mental ability

B)Charles Spearman; general intelligence, or g,

C)Benjamin Whorf; linguistic relativity

D)Robert Sternberg; successful intelligence

Q2) One day, Ethan had "a feeling" that he was going to get a phone call from a long-lost friend. That evening, an old high school classmate called, inviting him to attend a class reunion. Now Ethan is telling everyone that he is psychic. According to your textbook, which cognitive bias provides the BEST explanation for Ethan's belief?

A)the overestimation effect

B)the belief-bias effect

C)confirmation bias

D)the fallacy of positive instances

Q3) A well-designed psychological test has which of the following characteristics?

A)reliability, validity, and variability

B)verification, standardization, and reliability

C)reliability, standardization, and validity

D)standardization, validity, and variability

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Page 40

Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Discuss how individualistic and collectivistic cultures differ in achievement motivation.

Q2) Provide evidence to support the idea that humans may be evolutionarily programmed to overeat when food is abundant.

Q3) Ron is a hungry man. Today he is visiting his favorite restaurant where he plans to consume a steak dinner. Ron leads an active lifestyle. For instance, on most days Ron goes hiking in the woods for a prolonged period of time without bringing any food supplies. Describe how the following terms relate to Ron's hunger, satiety, and energy balance: leptin, ghrelin, and cholecystokinin.

Q4) Describe the relationship between dopamine receptor density and the reinforcing effects of pleasurable stimuli, such as addictive drugs. How does this phenomenon compare with the results of the PET scan study (described in the Focus on Neuroscience box), which investigated differences in the number of dopamine receptors in normal weight and obese individuals?

Q5) Define homeostasis and outline the role it plays in drive theories of motivation.

Q6) Define glucose, ghrelin, and cholecystokinin, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as short-term signals in regulating eating behavior.

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Page 41

Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents the top level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A)physiological needs

B)safety needs

C)belongingness and love needs

D)the need for self-actualization

Q2) In the United States, approximately _____ deaths per year are directly attributable to obesity.

A)3,000

B)30,000

C)300,000

D)3,000,000

Q3) In individualistic cultures, achievement motivation tends to emphasize:

A)personal success, especially in competitive tasks.

B)social success, especially with members of high status groups.

C)making family members proud of you, especially your parents.

D)success that enhances the status or well-being of your social group.

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Arousal theory contends that the optimal level of arousal is consistent across situations and over time and does not vary from person to person in any significant way.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Even though ob/ob mice have five times as much body fat as normal-weight mice, they behave like starving animals.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In Japanese culture, the emotional dimension of interpersonal engagement involves concealing emotions from one's future marital partner during the engagement phase of the relationship.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The two-factor theory of emotion proposes that we label physiological arousal as a given emotion on the basis of our cognitive interpretation of the situation.

A)True

B)False

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43

Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gregory has a body mass index (BMI) of 29.3. Gregory is considered:

A)overweight.

B)obese.

C)normal weight.

D)underweight.

Q2) Rats with a damaged amygdala:

A)cannot acquire a classically conditioned fear response.

B)overproduce leptin and become extremely lean, despite eating several times their normal amount of calories daily.

C)are more easily classically conditioned to fear-inducing stimuli than rats with intact brains.

D)display the characteristics of starving animals, have voracious appetites, and have five times the amount of body fat as normal rats.

Q3) According to Paul Ekman, that the human face is capable of creating _____ different expressions.

A)about 20

B)fewer than 100

C)approximately 200

D)more than 7,000

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Page 44

Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Cholecystokinin is:

A)a hormone that strongly stimulates appetite.

B)a neurotransmitter that promotes the production of growth hormone by the pituitary gland.

C)both a hormone and a neurotransmitter that increases the sensitivity of stretch receptors in the stomach, promotes satiation, and reduces or stops eating behavior.

D)a neurotransmitter manufactured throughout the brain that triggers eating behavior.

Q2) Psychologist Peter Gollwitzer developed an approach that helps people achieve their goals. What are the two key strategies of Gollwitzer's approach?

A)creating mastery experiences and developing self-efficacy

B)meeting basic needs and achieving self-actualization

C)developing competence and achieving autonomy

D)forming goal intentions and creating implementation intentions

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Discuss the relationship between adolescent behavior and adolescent brain development.

Q2) How did researchers Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess classify the temperamental patterns of infants? Describe characteristics of each temperamental pattern.

Q3) Identify the sensory capabilities and reflexes of newborns and describe how these abilities enhance their chances for survival.

Q4) Ryan is a 20-year-old college student. He often tells his friends that he's dreading getting old. He once commented, "Once you hit 60, it's all downhill. You might as well throw in the towel." Is Ryan's impression of aging adults accurate? Explain your answer.

Q5) Explain the four different parenting styles described by Diana Baumrind and other psychologists, and describe how a parent from each style might deal with a child who wants to spend an excessive amount of time watching cartoon programs on television.

Q6) Compare and contrast the views of Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky on the cognitive development of children.

Q7) Define genotype and phenotype and give an example of how the interaction of genetics and environment can influence phenotype.

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Susceptibility to peer influence peaks during:

A)early adolescence.

B)late adolescence.

C)early childhood.

D)late adulthood.

Q2) Young Tommy can roll over and grasp his rattle, but is not yet able to sit up without support. In terms of physical development, if he is like most normal infants, then he is approximately _____ months old.

A)11.5

B)14

C)6

D)4

Q3) Mark was upset because he only got half a sandwich while his older sister got two halves of a sandwich. After his mother cut his half sandwich into two pieces, Mark was perfectly happy. Mark is probably in the _____ stage of cognitive development.

A)sensorimotor

B)preoperational

C)concrete operational

D)formal operational

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Q1) In Erik Erikson's theory the older adult who feels that his or her life has been meaningful has achieved a sense of ego integrity.

A)True B)False

Q2) Early maturation tends to produce a variety of psychological and health advantages for girls.

A)True B)False

Q3) The shortest phase of prenatal development is called the germinal, or zygotic, period.

A)True B)False

Q4) Today, most psychologists agree that the quality of child care is a key factor in promoting secure attachment in early childhood and preventing problems in later childhood.

A)True B)False

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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) In general, the greatest vulnerability to teratogens occurs during the_____ period of prenatal development.

A)fertilization

B)embryonic

C)zygotic

D)germinal

Q2) According to _____ theory of gender-role development, gender roles are learned through reinforcement, punishment, and modeling.

A)evolutionary

B)social learning

C)gender schema

D)biological

Q3) Which of the following represents the CORRECT order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development?

A)sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational

B)preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational

C)sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

D)concrete operational, sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational

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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Q1) While writing a paper on the development of moral reasoning, Hugh read that there is not much evidence to support Carol Gilligan's idea that men and women have entirely different approaches to moral reasoning. However, he found that there is empirical evidence that:

A)Kohlberg's theory predicts the way humans engage in moral reasoning and also how they behave morally.

B)the best predictor of moral behavior in real-life situations is moral reasoning in response to hypothetical dilemmas.

C)men and women use a mix of both the ethic of individual rights and justice and the ethic of care and responsibility.

D)the development of moral reasoning follows a universal sequence of levels and stages, suggesting a strong genetic influence.

Q2) Davie lives in a home with his mother and father, who have a very close relationship. Davie is likely to develop a secure attachment to:

A)his father but not his mother.

B)his mother but not his father.

C)both parents at about the same time.

D)neither parent, instead favoring a sibling.

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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Q1) What personality types did Hans Eysenck describe in his trait theory of personality?

Q2) What was Freud's personality theory? Describe the personal, historical, and cultural factors that may have influenced the development of Freud's personality theory.

Q3) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.

Q4) Briefly describe the five stages of psychosexual development in Freud's personality theory.

Q5) What are the functional and structural brain differences that have been associated with the Big Five personality traits?

Q6) Describe the five-factor model of personality, and list surface traits associated with each factor.

Q7) What is the social cognitive perspective on personality, and how does it differ from psychoanalytic and humanistic perspectives?

Q8) What are the basic assumptions in Carl Rogers's humanistic theory of personality?

Q9) What is a projective test? Name and describe the two projective tests discussed in the text.

Q10) What are the two major criticisms of the humanistic perspective on personality?

Page 51

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to Freud, the successful resolution of the phallic stage of psychosexual development involves the child's use of the defense mechanism of:

A)identification.

B)fixation.

C)reaction formation.

D)undoing.

Q2) Your subjective belief about your ability to meet the demands of a particular situation is called:

A)an emergenic trait.

B)self-efficacy.

C)sublimation.

D)self-actualization.

Q3) Graphology is:

A)a pseudoscience that claims handwriting can reveal personality traits, temperament, intelligence, occupational attributes, and reasoning ability.

B)a projective personality test.

C)the study of graphs to assess unconscious personality traits.

D)a technique used by trait theorists to uncover unconscious motives.

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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Q1) A self-report test designed to assess personality types rather than personality traits is called the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF).

A)True

B)False

Q2) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is a self-report inventory that arrives at a personality type by measuring a person's preferred way of dealing with information, making decisions, and interacting with others.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Ego defense mechanisms are used only by people who are seriously troubled or psychologically disturbed and are almost always a sign that a serious mental disorder is present.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The MMPI, the CPI, and the 16PF are all examples of standardized self-report inventories.

A)True

B)False

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Page 53

Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) According to findings in the field of behavioral genetics:

A)personality is almost entirely determined by environmental factors, with little contribution from genetic influences.

B)personality is almost entirely determined by genetic factors, with little contribution from environmental factors.

C)an individual's personality is largely determined by emergenic traits that tend to run in families.

D)both genes and environmental factors influence some personality traits.

Q2) According to the _____ perspective, people would instinctively choose positive, constructive behaviors if the restrictions of society were loosened.

A)psychoanalytic

B)social cognitive

C)humanistic

D)trait

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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) In a research study described in your text, trained graphologists evaluated handwriting samples of 170 people. What were the findings of that study?

A)Graphology was found to provide a valid assessment of occupational aptitude and was the best predictor of vocational success.

B)The trained graphologists were highly accurate in identifying the actors, actresses, and psychologists in the pool of participants but were unable to identify those who were nuns, monks, or librarians.

C)Although the graphologists predicted that they would be 100 percent accurate in distinguishing among the participants, they were not much more accurate than people with no training in graphology.

D)Graphology was found to be highly accurate in distinguishing among people in different occupational groups and in identifying several personality traits.

Q2) Why is it difficult to test many psychoanalytic ideas?

A)Most of the techniques require extensive, specialized training.

B)Ethical guidelines prohibit this kind of research.

C)Most adults refuse to participate in psychoanalytic research.

D)They cannot be operationally defined and objectively measured.

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Page 55

Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) Describe the findings of Solomon Asch's research on conformity.

Q2) Describe how implicit attitudes differ from explicit attitudes, and explain how implicit attitudes are measured using the Implicit Association Test (IAT).

Q3) What was the Robbers Cave Experiment? How did psychologist Muzafer Sherif create and then reduce tensions between two groups of boys at a summer camp?

Q4) Describe research findings on how our perception of other people is influenced by their degree of physical attractiveness.

Q5) Explain how the fundamental attribution error, the hindsight bias, and the just-world hypothesis contribute to people's tendency to "blame the victim" of misfortune.

Q6) What is cognitive dissonance, and how is cognitive dissonance illustrated in the Grasshopper Experiment example described in your textbook?

Q7) Describe the case of Kitty Genovese. What role did the bystander effect and diffusion of responsibility play in her case?

Q8) How did people predict that the participants in Milgram's experiment would react, and how did that prediction compare to the participants' actual behavior?

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) Kidnapped at knifepoint from her bedroom in the middle of the night, 14-year-old Elizabeth Smart was held captive for over nine months by a drifter and his female companion. When police finally found her and the details of her captivity were widely publicized, some observers publicly questioned why the girl never tried to escape or get the attention of the police. Such responses illustrate an attributional pattern called:

A)hindsight bias.

B)the rule of reciprocity.

C)blaming the victim.

D)diffusion of responsibility.

Q2) Which of the following was NOT one of the factors that seemed to play a role in explaining why no one helped Kitty Genovese?

A)Each bystander thought that he or she was the only witness to the crime that was occurring.

B)Some of the bystanders interpreted the situation as a lovers' quarrel or a domestic dispute.

C)The crime occurred in one of the largest cities in the world.

D)Some of the bystanders may have felt that it was too dangerous to try to help Kitty Genovese.

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Page 57

Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) The bystander effect refers to the phenomenon in which the greater the number of people present, the less likely each individual is to help someone in distress.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Stanley Milgram asked psychiatrists, college students, and middle-class adults to predict how the subjects would behave in the experimental situation. Of the three groups, only the college students correctly predicted how most of the subjects would behave in the experimental situation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Diffusion of responsibility is a phenomenon in which the presence of other people makes it much more likely that some or all of the individuals will help someone in distress because the obligation to intervene is shared among all the onlookers.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Phillip Zimbardo is most famous for conducting the Stanford Prison Experiment.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) In the chapter Prologue, you read about Fern, who labeled the man sitting on the steps with a cup in his hand as "homeless" on the basis of very limited information. Fern's label, in turn, caused her to make an embarrassing mistake, which is a disadvantage of using:

A)person perception.

B)attributions.

C)visual cues.

D)social categories.

Q2) Howard explained the low evaluation he received on his job performance review by saying that his boss was a jerk and had it in for him. Howard appears to be:

A)using hindsight bias.

B)experiencing cognitive dissonance.

C)using the self-serving bias.

D)making the fundamental attribution error.

Q3) Normative social influence results from people's desire to:

A)reduce cognitive dissonance.

B)be correct and have accurate information.

C)be liked and accepted by others.

D)avoid the fundamental attribution error.

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Page 59

Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) Because of his deep concerns about the effects of global warming, Riley took part in a protest demonstration in front of the hotel where the head of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency was making a speech to an annual meeting of coal producers. This example BEST illustrates the _____ component of attitudes.

A)behavioral

B)emotional

C)biological

D)cognitive

Q2) As Nina and Erin were eating lunch in the Central High School student cafeteria, they were discussing the news coverage about the girls' athletic coach being arrested for selling steroids to student athletes. "I think the guy just did it because they don't pay teachers enough money," Nina suggested. "I bet the guy had some other kind of drug addiction he was trying to pay for," Erin countered. Nina and Erin's ideas about the cause of the coach's drug-selling behavior are examples of:

A)attributions.

B)the hindsight bias.

C)the stereotype threat.

D)implicit cognitions.

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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) How do social isolation and diverse social networks impact health?

Q2) Describe two forms of problem-focused coping, and provide an original example of each.

Q3) What kinds of social support efforts are LEAST likely to be perceived as helpful? What is "invisible support"?

Q4) Describe research on the contribution of daily hassles to stress for men and women. Are there gender differences in the experience of and response to daily hassles?

Q5) Contrast the general patterns of coping in individualistic versus collectivistic cultures.

Q6) Describe instances in which social support can have negative consequences.

Q7) Describe the Type A and Type B behavior patterns, and identify the personality dimension or dimensions that seem to produce the highest health risks.

Q8) What is a placebo, and how are placebos used in biomedical research?

Q9) What kinds of social support efforts are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful?

Q10) Describe research linking stress and susceptibility to the common cold. How does this happen, and does illness inevitably follow stress?

Q11) Describe the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome.

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Carl has had a lot of readjustments in the last few months. First, he was fired from his job. Next, his home was foreclosed upon, and then, his wife filed for divorce. Based on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale shown in Table 12.1, which of the following answers shows how Carl's readjustments would rank (from largest to smallest) in terms of Life Event Units?

A)fired at work, divorce, foreclosure

B)divorce, fired at work, foreclosure

C)foreclosure, fired at work, divorce

D)divorce, foreclosure, fired at work

Q2) The body system that produces specialized white blood cells that defend the body from viruses, bacteria, and tumor cells is called the _____ system.

A)sympathetic nervous

B)endocrine

C)immune

D)parasympathetic nervous

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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Telomeres are repeated, duplicate DNA sequences that are found at the very tips of chromosomes.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Cumulative adversity refers to the total amount of negative events experienced over a lifetime.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Psychoneuroimmunology is an interdisciplinary field that studies the interconnections among psychological processes, nervous and endocrine system functions, and the immune system.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A wide variety of stressors are associated with diminished immune system functioning, increasing the risk of health problems and slowing recovery times, but a person's degree of exposure to bacteria, viruses, and other sources of disease or infection will also influence the likelihood of becoming sick.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) According to the textbook's suggestions for providing effective social support, you are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful if you:

A)pretend to be cheerful and downplay the other person's situation by saying something like "I wouldn't worry about it because I'm sure everything will turn out okay."

B)talk about yourself and problems you have experienced in the past.

C)tell the person, "I know exactly how you feel."

D)ask questions in a way that encourages the other person to express his or her feelings and emotions.

Q2) Psychologist Janice Kiecolt-Glaser is known for:

A)describing the endocrine system pathways involved in response to chronic stress.

B)research demonstrating that even minor stressors, such as taking exams, can reduce the effectiveness of immune system functioning.

C)explaining why women exhibit the "tend-and-befriend" response rather than the "fight-or-flight" response when threatened.

D)her research on classically conditioning the immune system, which helped establish the interdisciplinary field of psychoneuroimmunology.

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Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) According to Martin Seligman, people who exhibit a(n) _____ explanatory style are more likely to _____.

A)pessimistic; experience the stress contagion effect

B)optimistic; use internal, stable, and global explanations for negative events

C)pessimistic; use external, unstable, and specific explanations for negative events

D)optimistic; be healthier and persist despite setbacks

Q2) According to _____, the _____ response is adaptive and increases the chances of survival when an organism is threatened.

A)Hans Selye; stress contagion

B)Robert Ader; classically conditioned

C)Janice Kiecolt-Glaser; psychoneuroimmunological

D)Walter Cannon; fight-or-flight

Q3) _____ is an enzyme that has the capacity to add DNA to shortened telomeres, rebuilding and extending the length of telomeres.

A)Monamine oxidase

B)Cortisol

C)Insulin

D)Telomerase

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65

Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) What was the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R)? What did it reveal about past-year and lifetime occurrence of symptoms of any psychological disorders, and how do these rates compare to common perceptions about the prevalence of psychological disorders?

Q2) Describe the behavior of a person with antisocial personality disorder. What is the difference between a sociopath and a psychopath?

Q3) Summarize the research by neuroscientist Paul Thompson and contrast the brain development of normal, healthy teenagers with that of adolescents who have early-onset schizophrenia.

Q4) What evidence is there to support, and to contradict, the dopamine hypothesis as an explanation of schizophrenia?

Q5) Describe the results of a survey of media portrayals of people with mental disorders, and discuss the accuracy of these portrayals.

Q6) List the symptoms of borderline personality disorder, and describe possible causes of the disorder, including reference to the biosocial developmental theory.

Q7) Describe the basic premise of the viral infection theory of schizophrenia, and summarize the research supporting it.

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Although he has only been caught one time, Devin has repeatedly shoplifted small items that he could easily pay for or doesn't need. Which of the following psychological disorders is Devin most likely to have?

A)pyromania

B)kleptomania

C)Tourette's disorder

D)borderline personality disorder

Q2) According to the Critical Thinking box on smoking and psychological disorders, some researchers believe that:

A)smoking triggers the onset of symptoms in people who are already vulnerable to the development of a mental disorder, especially major depressive disorder.

B)smoking delays the onset of symptoms of psychological disorders in many people.

C)nicotine suppresses the release of glutamate, GABA, serotonin, and acetylcholine, and this neurotransmitter deficiency causes the symptoms of mental illness.

D)nicotine damages brain structures such as the amygdala, the thalamus, and the nucleus acumens, causing the symptoms of mental illness.

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) You can help a person who has expressed suicidal intentions by identifying potential solutions to their problems, even though none of the solutions may be perfect.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In most cases, dissociative amnesia is a response to stress, trauma, or an extremely distressing situation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Researcher David Silbersweig and colleagues used PET scans to take a "snapshot" of brain activity during schizophrenic hallucinations. At the moment of hallucination, PET results showed activity in the left auditory and visual areas of the brain.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Seasonal affective disorder is a disorder in which episodes of depression typically occur during the fall and winter and subside during the spring and summer.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) _____ is characterized by severely impaired social and communication skills, including delayed or a complete lack of language development.

A)Schizophrenia

B)Somatic symptom disorder

C)Agoraphobia

D)Autism spectrum disorder

Q2) Each year in the United States, there are approximately _____ new cases of schizophrenia diagnosed.

A)200,000

B)330,000

C)500,000

D)750,000

Q3) _____ is a culture-bound disorder in which people become virtual recluses for years at a time, locking themselves away to play video games or surf the internet.

A)Saladera

B)Windigo

C)Hikkomori

D)Amok

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69

Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) According to the biological preparedness perspective, people are more likely to develop phobias toward objects or situations that:

A)reflect an important threat to survival in human evolutionary history.

B)are irrational and result from catastrophic thinking.

C)once caused fear and anxiety, such as being bitten by a dog as a child.

D)are associated with danger, such as flying in an airplane.

Q2) A commonly seen _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.

A)negative; delusions

B)positive; hallucinations

C)positive; flat affect

D)negative; sensory distortion

Q3) _____ disorders are characterized by inflexible, maladaptive patterns of thoughts, emotions, behavior, and interpersonal functioning that are stable over time and across situations and deviate from the expectations of the individual's culture.

A)Personality

B)Anxiety

C)Culture-bound

D)Major depressive

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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) According to Carl Rogers, what therapeutic conditions foster change in the therapy client, and why?

Q2) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?

Q3) What are some of the advantages of group therapy compared with individual therapy?

Q4) Compare the impacts of psychotherapy and antidepressant medication on brain function in patients with major depressive disorder. Which treatment is more effective?

Q5) Describe the psychotherapy techniques that were developed by Sigmund Freud, and explain their therapeutic functions.

Q6) Christopher has been depressed for over six months. He has gained weight, his sleep is disturbed, and he and his wife are discussing divorce. Christopher's self-esteem has declined as a result of his weight gain and marital difficulties. How would Freud and Rogers explain the source of Christopher's problems?

Q7) Compare and contrast eclectic psychotherapy to integrative psychotherapy.

Q8) How do insight-oriented therapies (e.g., psychodynamic and humanistic therapies) differ from behavior therapy?

Q9) What effects do benzodiazepines produce? What are possible side effects?

Page 71

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Q1) The different forms of biomedical therapy are based on the assumption that _____ play a significant role in causing the symptoms of psychological disorders.

A)dysfunctional family relationships

B)biological factors

C)repressed sexual urges and wishes

D)psychological factors

Q2) A key difference between a self-help group and group therapy is that self-help groups are:

A)usually more expensive.

B)hardly ever effective whereas group therapy is almost always effective.

C)made up of people with diverse problems while group therapy groups are made up of people with the same problem.

D)typically organized and led by nonprofessionals.

Q3) Neuroleptic medications are also referred to as:

A)antidepressant medications.

B)antianxiety medications.

C)antipsychotic medications.

D)MAO inhibitors.

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Q1) Eye-movement desensitization reprocessing therapy (EMDR) was originally offered as a one-session cure for posttraumatic stress disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is generally effective for the treatment of major depressive disorder, social anxiety disorder, and some other anxiety disorders.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Identifying negative automatic thoughts and irrational beliefs is a key first step in establishing an anxiety hierarchy for use in systematic desensitization.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In Albert Ellis's rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT), believing the following statement would be considered irrational: "I must be thoroughly competent, adequate, and achieving in all possible respects if I am to consider myself worthwhile."

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Q1) Melinda wishes to overcome her extreme shyness. Melinda's therapist helps her design a program in which Melinda records every instance of shy behavior, sets specific goals for acting in a more outgoing fashion in particular situations, and rewards herself when she is successful. Melinda's therapist is probably practicing a form of _____ therapy.

A)humanistic

B)psychoanalytic

C)behavior

D)cognitive

Q2) Which of the following therapy techniques are based on the early research of Mary Cover Jones?

A)empathic listening and genuineness

B)counterconditioning and systematic desensitization

C)free association, interpretation, and resistance

D)group therapy and family therapy

Q3) _____ therapy was originally developed to treat major depressive disorder.

A)Behavioral

B)Interpersonal

C)Humanistic

D)Cognitive

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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) Which of the following statements about bipolar disorder is FALSE?

A)A small percentage of people with bipolar disorder experience only manic episodes.

B)There are no differences between the sexes in the rate at which bipolar occurs.

C)A small percentage of people with bipolar disorder display rapid cycling, experiencing four or more manic or depressive episodes every year.

D)For both men and women, the lifetime risk of being affected by the symptoms of bipolar disorder is about 15 percent.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with suicide?

A)flexible thinking and rational beliefs

B)a family history of suicide

C)exposure to cyberbullying

D)presence of a firearm in the home

Q3) A commonly seen _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.

A)negative; delusions

B)positive; hallucinations

C)positive; flat affect

D)negative; sensory distortion

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