Basic Physics
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Basic Physics introduces students to the fundamental principles that govern the physical world. Topics covered include mechanics (motion, forces, energy), properties of matter, heat, waves, sound, light, electricity, and magnetism. Through conceptual explanations, practical problem-solving, and laboratory experiments, students gain an understanding of how physical laws explain everyday phenomena and underpin modern technology. This course lays the groundwork for further studies in science and engineering by developing analytical thinking and quantitative reasoning skills.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physics 12th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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Chapter 1: About Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most basic of the sciences of physics, chemistry, and biology is
A)physics.
B)chemistry.
C)biology.
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) To a fair approximation, Early Greeks knew the A)size of Earth.
B)size of the Moon.
C)Earth-Moon distance.
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following involves passion, talent, and intelligence?
A)art
B)literature
C)music
D)science
E)all of the above
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Newtons First Law of Motion: Inertia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Galileo taught us that if you roll a ball along a level surface it will
A)soon slow down due to its natural place.
B)keep rolling if friction is absent.
C)roll as long as its inertia nudges it along.
D)soon roll in the opposite direction.
Answer: B
Q2) The first scientist to introduce the concept of inertia was A)Aristotle.
B)Galileo.
C)Newton.
D)Copernicus.
Answer: B
Q3) Nellie hangs from a pair of ropes at an angle. Tension in the ropes depends on the A)length of the ropes.
B)angle of the ropes.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Linear Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neglecting air resistance, a ball projected straight upward so it remains in the air for 10 seconds needs an initial speed of
A)50 m/s.
B)60 m/s.
C)80 m/s.
D)100 m/s.
E)110 m/s.
Answer: A
Q2) A river 100 m wide flows due south at 1 m/s. A boat that travels 1 m/s relative to the water is pointed due east as it crosses from the west bank. The boat reaches the east bank
A)due east of its starting point.
B)100 m farther south.
C)141 m farther south.
D)none of the above
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Newtons Second Law of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-N block and a 1-N block lie on a horizontal frictionless table. To impart equal horizontal accelerations, we would have to push the heavier block with A)an equal force.
B)10 times as much force.
C)10 squared or 100 times as much force.
D)1/10 as much force.
E)none of the above
Q2) A heavy block at rest is suspended by a vertical rope. When the block accelerates upward by the rope, the rope tension
A)is less than its weight.
B)equals its weight.
C)is greater than its weight.
Q3) A push on a 1-kg brick accelerates it. Neglecting friction, equally accelerating a 10-kg brick requires
A)just as much force.
B)10 times as much force.
C)100 times as much force.
D)one-tenth the amount of force.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 5: Newtons Third Law of Motion: Action and Reaction
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Q1) For every action force, there must be a reaction force that A)acts in the same direction.
B)is slightly smaller in magnitude than the action force.
C)is slightly larger in magnitude than the action force.
D)is equal in magnitude.
Q2) You stand on your skateboard and exert a 50-N push on the wall next to you. If your mass is 60 kg you'll momentarily accelerate from the wall at about
A)0.08 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
B)0.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
C)8.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
D)none of the above
Q3) When Nellie hangs suspended from a pair of ropes that are not vertical, the tension in each rope is
A)less than half her weight.
B)half her weight.
C)more than half her weight.
D)her weight.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Momentum
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whether a truck comes to a stop by crashing into a haystack or a brick wall, the impulse is
A)greater with the haystack.
B)greater with the brick wall.
C)both the same
Q2) A fan attached to an ice sailcraft stalled on a windless day blows air into the sail that bounces backward upon impact. The boat
A)moves in the direction of the wind impact force.
B)does not move by this wind impact.
C)moves, but in the opposite direction of the wind impact force.
Q3) A 1-kg glider and a 2-kg glider both slide toward each other at 1 m/s on an air track. They collide and stick. The combined mass moves at A)0 m/s.
B)1/2 m/s.
C)1/3 m/s.
D)1/6 m/s.
E)1.5 m/s.
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Chapter 7: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bicycle that travels twice as fast as another when braking to a stop will skid
A)twice as far.
B)four times as far.
C)eight times as far
D)sixteen times as far.
E)depends on the bike's mass
Q2) Although perpetual motion is the natural order of things in the universe
A)it follows that machines can operate and do work by perpetual motion.
B)no perpetual-motion device that multiplies energy exists.
C)both of these are false statements
Q3) Two 2-m/s pool balls roll toward each other and collide. Suppose after bouncing apart each moves at 4 m/s. This collision violates the conservation of A)momentum.
B)energy.
C)both momentum and energy.
D)none of the above
Q4) A machine that promises more energy output than input is A)a fantasy.
B)commonplace in today's technology.
C)a long-shot worth investing in.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Rotational Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tapered shape of the wheel rims that ride on railroad tracks allows opposite wheels to
A)in effect, vary their diameters.
B)travel at different linear speeds for the same rotational speed.
C)both of these
D)none of these
Q2) When you do somersaults, you'll more easily rotate when your body is
A)straight with both arms above your head.
B)straight with both arms at your sides.
C)curled into a ball shape.
D)no difference
Q3) As you crawl toward the edge of a large freely-rotating horizontal turntable in a carnival funhouse, the angular momentum of you and the turntable A)decreases.
B)increases.
C)remains the same, but the revolutions per minute decrease.
D)decreases in direct proportion to your decrease in revolutions per minute.
E)none of these
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Chapter 9: Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A very massive object A and a less massive object B move toward each other under the influence of gravity. Which force, if either, is greater?
A)the force on A
B)the force on B
C)both forces are the same.
Q2) Which of these three produces the greatest tidal effect on you right now?
A)the Moon
B)the Sun
C)the Earth
Q3) If the Moon had twice as much mass and still orbits Earth at the same distance, ocean bulges on Earth would be
A)smaller.
B)larger.
C)unequal in size.
D)not significantly different.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 10: Projectile and Satellite Motion
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Q1) Acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is less than on Earth, and the Moon is smaller than Earth. This means that compared to an Earth satellite, a satellite in close orbit about the Moon would travel A)slower.
B)faster.
C)the same.
D)need more information
Q2) For all paths of Earth satellites, one focus of the path is A)the location from which the satellite was launched.
B)Earth's center.
C)the Sun's center.
D)need more information
Q3) Earth satellites are typically more than 100 km high so as to be above Earth's A)atmosphere.
B)gravitational field.
C)both of these
Q4) An Earth satellite is simply a projectile
A)freely falling around Earth.
B)floating motionless in space near Earth.
C)approaching Earth from outer space.
12
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Chapter 11: Atomic Nature of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a nitrogen atom and a slightly heavier oxygen atom have equal kinetic energies, which has the greater average speed?
A)nitrogen
B)oxygen
C)both the same
D)need more information
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a compound?
A)air
B)ammonia
C)water
D)salt
E)all are compounds
Q3) A molecule has A)mass.
B)structure.
C)energy.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to a 50-kg person, a 100-kg person at the beach requires A)twice as much suntan lotion.
B)the same amount of suntan lotion.
C)less than twice as much suntan lotion.
Q2) If a pencil's length and diameter are both multiplied by 10, then its volume is multiplied by A)10.
B)100.
C)1000.
D)10,000.
E)none of the above
Q3) Doubling the linear size of an object multiplies its area by A)2 and its volume by 4.
B)4 and its volume by 8.
C)8 and its volume by 16.
D)none of the above
Q4) If a loaf of bread is compressed its A)density decreases.
B)density increases.
C)neither of these
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Chapter 13: Liquids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fish normally displaces its own
A)volume of water.
B)weight of water.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) The pressure in a liquid depends on liquid
A)density.
B)depth.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q3) When a large floating ice cube with unfrozen water inside melts, the water level in its container
A)goes down.
B)remains unchanged.
C)goes up.
Q4) The pascal is a pressure unit equal to
A)1 newton per square meter.
B)1 kilogram per square meter.
C)1 newton per square centimeter.
D)1 kilogram per square centimeter.
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Chapter 14: Gases and Plasmas
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Q1) The mass of air inside an average mid-size automobile is about
A)0.2 kg.
B)2 kg.
C)20 kg.
D)200 kg.
E)2000 kg.
Q2) The weight of air in a bathtub (about 1/3 cubic meter)is about the same as the weight of
A)a pea.
B)an egg.
C)a small apple.
D)a pound of butter.
E)a 10-pound sack of potatoes.
Q3) According to the principle of continuity, the velocity of a fluid multiplied by the cross section through which it flows at one point will equal the product of A)velocity and cross section at another point.
B)velocity and pressure at another point.
C)a constraint factor.
D)none of the above
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Temperature, Heat, and Expansion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before ice can form on a lake, all the water in the lake must be cooled to A)zero°C.
B)4°C.
C)-32°C.
D)none of the above
Q2) Which unit represents the most energy?
A)calorie
B)Calorie
C)joule
D)all the same
Q3) If the specific heat capacity of water were lower than it is, a watermelon in a picnic cooler would cool in a
A)shorter time.
B)longer time.
C)the same time anyway.
Q4) Which temperature scale has the smallest sized degrees?
A)Fahrenheit
B)Celsius
C)Kelvin
D)none of the above
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Chapter 16: Heat Transfer
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a poor absorber of radiation were a good emitter, its temperature would be A)less than its surroundings.
B)more than its surroundings.
C)the same as its surroundings.
Q2) Energy transfer by convection is primarily restricted to A)solids.
B)liquids.
C)gases.
D)fluids.
E)none of the above
Q3) If a volume of air is warmed, it expands and tends to A)warm.
B)cool.
C)neither of these
Q4) You can safely hold your fingers on both sides of a candle flame due mainly to A)conduction.
B)convection.
C)radiation.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 17: Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Double-pane windows contain nitrogen rather than air to prevent A)gas escape.
B)thermal conduction.
C)condensation.
D)heat flow.
Q2) The calories needed to change 10 grams of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C is A)6200. B)6400. C)7200.
D)8000.
E)none of the above
Q3) When condensation occurs inside your bedroom window, the air outside is appreciably A)colder.
B)warmer.
C)both of these D)neither of these
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Chapter 18: Thermodynamics
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Q1) As a parcel of air is swept upward, with no heat input or output, its temperature
A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
Q2) A quantity of water has more entropy when it is A)frozen ice.
B)boiling.
C)at room temperature.
Q3) Harry places a new air conditioner in the middle of his hot room, which when operating
A)cools the room.
B)further warms the room.
C)neither of these
Q4) When a system does work without adding heat, the temperature of the system A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains unchanged.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 19: Vibrations and Waves
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Q1) If you quickly run toward the orchestra at a concert, the frequency of the sound you hear will be
A)decreased.
B)increased.
C)neither of these
Q2) To say that one wave is out of phase with another is to say that the waves are
A)of different amplitudes.
B)of different frequencies.
C)of different wavelengths.
D)out of step.
E)all of the above
Q3) A less intense sonic boom at ground level can occur if the aircraft
A)is smaller.
B)flies higher.
C)is more streamlined.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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21
Chapter 20: Sound
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Q1) A tuning fork of frequency 200 hertz can resonate if an incident sound wave has a frequency of A)100 hertz.
B)200 hertz.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q2) The explanation for refraction must involve a change in A)frequency.
B)wavelength.
C)speed.
D)all of the above E)none of the above
Q3) Wave interference occurs in A)transverse waves.
B)longitudinal waves.
C)both of the above D)none of the above
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Musical Sounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fundamental frequency of a violin string is 440 hertz. The frequency of its second harmonic is
A)220 hertz.
B)440 hertz.
C)880 hertz.
D)none of the above
Q2) The number of nodes in a standing wave of three wavelengths, not including the endpoints, is
A)2.
B)3.
C)4.
D)5.
E)6.
Q3) Sounds from musical instruments are produced by A)vibrating strings.
B)vibrating air columns.
C)percussion.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Electrostatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the distance between two charges is halved, the electrical force between them A)is reduced by 1/4.
B)halves.
C)doubles.
D)quadruples.
E)none of the above
Q2) Lillian safely touches a 100,000-volt Van de Graaff generator. Although the voltage is high, the relatively small amount of charge means a relatively small amount of A)energy transfer.
B)electric field.
C)polarization.
D)conduction.
Q3) A common naturally-polarized bit of matter is A)an electron.
B)a hydrogen atom
C)a water molecule.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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24
Chapter 23: Electric Current
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 4-ohm and 6-ohm resistor connected in parallel have an equivalent resistance of
A)2.4 ohms.
B)4 ohms.
C)5 ohms.
D)5.5 ohms.
E)10 ohms.
Q2) The amount of current in an incandescent bulb rated 75W 120V is about
A)0.4 A.
B)0.6 A.
C)1.2 A.
D)more than 1.2 A.
Q3) When you turn on a lamp, the initial current in its filament is greater at first, rather than a moment later, which indicates
A)something is faulty.
B)a time delay for current attaining its average speed.
C)increased temperature means increased resistance.
D)nothing of interest
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Chapter 24: Magnetism
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Q1) Magnetic field lines about a current-carrying wire
A)extend radially from the wire.
B)circle the wire in closed loops.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) Surrounding every moving electron is
A)a magnetic field.
B)an electric field.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Place an iron rod inside a current-carrying coil of wire and you
A)increase the strength of the electromagnet.
B)have a superconducting magnet.
C)a magplane in the making.
Q4) Although a magnet can change the direction of travel of an electron beam, it cannot change its A)speed
B)kinetic energy.
C)both of these D)neither of these
26
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Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Induction
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Q1) A force field is induced in any region of space in which
A)an electric field changes with time.
B)a magnetic field changes with time.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) When a magnet is moved to and fro in a wire coil, voltage is induced. If the coil has twice as many loops, the voltage induced is A)half.
B)the same.
C)twice.
D)four times as much.
E)none of the above
Q3) Electromagnetic induction is employed in
A)electric power lines.
B)triggering traffic lights.
C)hybrid automobiles.
D)mobile phones.
E)all the above
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Chapter 26: Properties of Light
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Q1) Earth's atmosphere is opaque to waves that are concentrated in the A)infrared part of the spectrum.
B)visible part of the spectrum.
C)entire electromagnetic spectrum.
Q2) While Earth is experiencing a total solar eclipse, an observer on the side of the Moon facing Earth would see
A)Earth disappear from the sky.
B)Earth dim and turn reddish.
C)nothing unusual.
D)a dark area moving across the face of Earth.
Q3) Which of the following cannot travel in a vacuum?
A)a light wave
B)a sound wave
C)a radio wave
D)all can
E)none can
Q4) Compared to ultraviolet waves, the wavelength of infrared waves is A)shorter.
B)the same.
C)longer.
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Chapter 27: Color
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Q1) The darkness of clouds is due to A)absorption.
B)often being in the shadow of another cloud.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q2) A piece of glass that appears red
A)absorbs or reflects all colors except red.
B)transmits red.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q3) The LEDs that make up the color on some TV screens are A)red, blue, yellow.
B)red, blue, green.
C)yellow, blue, green.
D)magenta, cyan, yellow.
E)red, green, yellow.
Q4) Isaac Newton first became famous for his contributions to the understanding of A)the laws of mechanics. B)the law of gravity. C)light.
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Chapter 28: Reflection and Refraction
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Q1) Standing at the shore of a still lake, the reflected view of scenery on the other side of the lake is the view you would see if you were upside down with your eye in the line of sight
A)where it already is.
B)at the surface of the water where the light reflects.
C)directly beneath you, as far below water level as you are above.
D)close to the distant shore.
E)none of the above
Q2) The image of the "infinitely-far-away" Sun produced by a converging lens appears
A)between the lens and the focal point.
B)at the focal point.
C)beyond the focal point.
Q3) When light passes through common windowpane, its angle of emergence is
A)usually less than its angle of incidence.
B)always less than its angle of incidence.
C)the same as its angle of incidence.
D)usually more than its angle of incidence.
E)always more than its angle of incidence.
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Chapter 29: Light Waves
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Q1) Interference effects are less visible for thick films because the reflected waves
A)from the bottom surface are too dim.
B)become too dispersed.
C)are out of phase with one another.
D)are too displaced to interfere.
Q2) An inventor proposes to equip an office with a polarized source of background music and polarizing earplugs for non-listeners. His idea is
A)a good one that provides personal choice.
B)too expensive.
C)bothersome.
D)nonsense because sound cannot be polarized.
Q3) Polarization is a property of
A)transverse waves.
B)longitudinal waves.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Chapter 30: Light Emission
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Q1) The energy of a photon is related to A)the energy given to the atom that emits it.
B)the energy transition in de-excitation.
C)its frequency.
D)all of the above E)none of the above
Q2) The energy of a photon depends on its A)speed.
B)frequency.
C)amplitude.
D)all of the above E)none of the above
Q3) A violet-hot star emits radiation having about twice the peak frequency of radiation from a red-hot star. The surface temperature of the hotter star is about A)half that of the cooler star.
B)twice that of the cooler star.
C)the same.
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Chapter 31: Light Quanta
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Q1) An electron microscope makes use of A)short wavelengths of light.
B)the wave nature of electrons.
C)electron attraction and repulsion.
D)electron current.
E)the inertia of electrons.
Q2) A photosensitive surface is illuminated with both blue and violet light. The light that causes the greater number of ejected electrons is
A)blue light.
B)violet light.
C)both eject equal numbers.
D)need more information
Q3) The ratio of the energy of a photon to its frequency is A)?.
B)Planck's constant.
C)photon speed.
D)photon wavelength.
E)unknown.
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Chapter 32: The Atom and the Quantum
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the Schrödinger equation, scientists can calculate A)probabilities.
B)the position of an electron.
C)the velocity of an electron.
D)all of the above
Q2) When an electron drops from a higher energy level to a lower one, energy is emitted. In comparison, how much energy is required to reverse the process, going from the lower level to the higher level?
A)less energy
B)the same energy
C)more energy
Q3) A stable electron orbit cannot exist if its circumference is A)a single wavelength.
B)2 wavelengths.
C)2.5 wavelengths.
D)any of the above
E)none of the above
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34
Chapter 33: Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which will NOT bend when moving in a magnetic field?
A)alpha particle
B)beta particle
C)gamma ray
D)all bend the same
Q2) Radium (A = 88)transmutes to radon (A = 86)by
A)beta emission.
B)alpha emission.
C)gamma emission.
D)none of the above
Q3) The fate of the world's uranium supply is to eventually become
A)alpha and beta particles.
B)iron.
C)lead.
Q4) Which device is used primarily to detect nuclear radiation?
A)synchrotron
B)linear accelerator
C)cyclotron
D)scintillation counter
E)none of the above
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Chapter 34: Nuclear Fission and Fusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When two pieces of fissionable material are assembled, the average distance that a neutron travels before escaping will A)decrease.
B)increase.
C)be the same.
Q2) The possible fate of a neutron in ordinary uranium metal is to
A)cause fission of U-235 if present.
B)escape the metal.
C)be absorbed by U-238 without causing fission.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Fissioning carbon would occur with A)absorption of energy.
B)release of energy.
C)neither of these
Q4) Which will leak more neutrons?
A)two separate lumps of uranium.
B)the same two lumps stuck together.
C)both the same
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Chapter 35: Special Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the speed of a particle approaches the speed of light, the momentum of the particle
A)approaches zero.
B)approaches infinity.
C)transforms to energy.
D)is no longer in spacetime.
Q2) When a high-velocity beam of electrons is bent by a magnetic field, relativistic effects
A)increase momentum beyond its classical value.
B)reduce the angle at which the beam is bent.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) We are actually looking into the past when we look at A)a distant star.
B)our physics book.
C)actually both of these D)none of the above
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Chapter 36: General Theory of Relativity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of equivalence tells us that
A)mass and energy are forms of each other.
B)space and time are forms of each other.
C)electricity and magnetism are forms of each other.
D)observations made in an accelerating reference frame are indistinguishable from those made in a gravitational field.
E)all of the above
Q2) In a spaceship that accelerates at g far from gravitational influences, with the effort it takes on Earth to do 20 pushups, you could comfortably do
A)less than 20 pushups.
B)20 pushups.
C)more than 20 pushups.
Q3) In a spaceship with an acceleration more than g far from gravitational influences, with the effort it takes on Earth to do 20 pushups, you could comfortably do A)less than 20 pushups.
B)20 pushups.
C)more than 20 pushups.
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Chapter 37: Systems of Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A garden hose is held at an angle of 50°. Neglecting air resistance, the water will travel exactly the same horizontal distance before returning to the same level if the hose is held at an angle of A)40°.
B)45°.
C)60°.
For maximum range, the hose should be held at D)40°
E)45°
F)55°
G)60°
Q2) A device that transforms electrical energy to mechanical energy is A)a generator, B)a motor, C)a transformer,
D)any common magnet, And a device that transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy is a E)generator.
F)motor.
G)transformer.
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Page 39