Basic Pharmacology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Basic Pharmacology introduces students to the fundamental principles of drug action, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. The course covers drug-receptor interactions, dose-response relationships, mechanisms of drug toxicity, and factors influencing drug efficacy and safety. Students will gain knowledge of major classes of therapeutic agents, their clinical uses, side effects, and contraindications, as well as the regulatory aspects of pharmacological practice. Emphasis is placed on understanding how drugs affect different organ systems and the principles underlying rational drug therapy.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 2nd Edition by Kathy Moscou RPh MPH PhD candidate
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
43 Chapters
1202 Verified Questions
1202 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1592
Page 2
Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31597
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the phase of the drug approval process that determines effectiveness of the drug in healthy volunteers?
A)Phase 1
B)Phase 2
C)Phase 3
D)Phase 4
Answer: A
Q2) C-III
A)Marijuana
B)Methylphenidate
C)Diazepam
D)Diphenoxylate and buprenorphine
E)Methyltestosterone
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following is not classified as a behind-the-counter (BTC)drug?
A)Motrin
B)Plan B
C)Sudafed
D)Insulin
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31598
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ and _____ require lower doses of drug to produce therapeutic effects.
A)Infants,the elderly
B)Teenagers,the elderly
C)Children,adults
D)Infants,children
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following doses has 100% bioavailability?
A)1 mL PO
B)2 mL IV
C)1 tablet PO
D)1 supp pr
Answer: B
Q3) Duration of action is the time between the _____ of action and _____ of drug action.
A)mechanism,duration
B)onset,discontinuation
C)duration,concentration
D)onset,mechanism
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31599
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ can activate or turn off a receptor and prompt a specific cellular response.
A)Antagonists
B)Agonists
C)Partial antagonists
D)Partial agonists
Answer: B
Q2) Why is naloxone considered a pure antagonist?
A)In the presence of a high concentration,it behaves like a pure antagonist.
B)It binds to an alternative site on the same receptor site as the agonist.
C)It reverses the effect of the receptor by occupying the receptor site and preventing another drug from binding.
D)It has an affinity at the receptor site but produces an opposite action.
Answer: C
Q3) Why would a hypersensitivity to a drug develop?
A)Enzymes in the body overreact to the drug.
B)Tolerance builds as the drug is taken.
C)Antibodies develop after the drug is taken.
D)Drug cannot be eliminated.
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31600
Sample Questions
Q1) Milliliter
A)"Chicken scratch"
B)"Sound-alike,look-alike" drug names
C)mL
D)NKDA
E)Mcg
Q2) Drug interactions may influence the elimination of drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Having knowledge about intravenous (IV)drug incompatibilities is not necessary for pharmacy technicians.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Additive effects may occur when two drugs are contraindicated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Confusing abbreviations can cause serious medication errors.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31601
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antidepressants is additionally indicated to treat social phobia,but at an increased dose?
A)Clomipramine
B)Fluoxetine
C)Doxepin
D)Sertraline
Q2) If food decreases first-pass metabolism of the azapirone class,which of the following auxiliary labels should be placed on a prescription for a drug in this class?
A)Take two hours after a meal.
B)Take on an empty stomach.
C)Take with a meal.
D)Take one hour before a meal.
Q3) _____ is indicated to treat the inability to control or stop repeated unwanted thoughts or behaviors.
A)Duloxetine
B)Escitalopram
C)Fluoxetine
D)Clonazepam
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31602
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of an MAOI?
A)Imipramine
B)Tranylcypromine
C)Mirtazapine
D)Citalopram
Q2) When lithium has not demonstrated its desired results,which of the following can be used as an adjunct therapy drug?
A)Aripiprazole
B)Lamotrigine
C)Tranylcypromine
D)Sertraline
Q3) Celexa
A)Tranylcypromine
B)Imipramine
C)Citalopram
D)Doxepin
E)Escitalopram
Q4) Dysthymia symptoms are more severe than those of major depression.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Psychoses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31603
Sample Questions
Q1) Risperidone
A)Risperdal
B)Seroquel
C)Geodon
D)Loxitane
E)Clozaril
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a "traditional" neuroleptic?
A)Chlorpromazine
B)Haloperidol
C)Thiothixene
D)Risperidone
Q3) Ziprasidone
A)Risperdal
B)Seroquel
C)Geodon
D)Loxitane
E)Clozaril
Q4) Not all neuroleptic agents bind to dopamine (DA)receptors.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Treatment of Parkinsons Disease and Huntingtons Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31604
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be used to reduce cholinergic activity?
A)Entacapone
B)Bromocriptine
C)Ropinirole
D)Trihexyphenidyl
Q2) _____ is a progressive disorder of the nervous system involving degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia and nigrostriatal pathways in the brain.
A)Alzheimer's disease
B)Parkinson's disease
C)Schizophrenia
D)Huntington's disease
Q3) Eldepryl
A)Ropinirole
B)Selegiline
C)Tolcapone
D)Pramipexole
E)Bromocriptine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 10
Chapter 9: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31605
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug classes can be used for the treatment of absence seizures?
A)Barbiturates
B)Valproates
C)Iminostilbenes
D)g-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)analogues
Q2) Explain why the auxiliary label "Protect from light and moisture" should be placed on a prescription for carbamazepine.
A)It is inactivated by moisture.
B)Light makes the drug ineffective.
C)Light causes increased photosensitivity.
D)Potency is decreased when the drug is exposed to moisture.
Q3) For which of the following drugs has the U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)required product label changes to warn of the serious adverse effect of suicidal ideations?
A)Dilantin (phenytoin)
B)Cerebyx (fosphenytoin)
C)Sabril (vigabatrin)
D)Valium (diazepam)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 11
Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain and Migraine Headache
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31606
Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid antagonists
A)Buprenorphine
B)Naltrexone
C)Meperidine
D)Aspirin
E)Naproxen
Q2) _____ is an example of pain from a nociceptive origin.
A)Trigeminal neuralgia
B)Phantom limb
C)Shingles
D)Sprained ankle
Q3) _____ can be administered for management of drug dependence.
A)Buprenorphine
B)Methocarbamol
C)Norepinephrine
D)Morphine
Q4) A patient using a patient-controlled analgesic (PCA)device can get any amount of medication they need to control their pain.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Treatment of Alzheimers Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31607
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a normal part of the aging process?
A)Urinary incontinence
B)Aching joints
C)Dementia
D)Minor forgetfulness
Q2) Reminyl
A)Memantine
B)Donepezil
C)Rivastigmine
D)Galantamine
Q3) How does Alzheimer's disease develop?
A)Cholinergic nerve cells die in the brain,decreasing the ability to absorb,process,and use information.
B)The hypothalamus becomes blocked by beta amyloids and twisted fibers,blocking transmission signals.
C)Adrenergic nerves become blocked by plaques and tangles,blocking transmission between the neurons.
D)The frontal cortex begins to shrink,losing its ability to think and function.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and
Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31608
Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug can be used to help treat narcolepsy?
A)Zopiclone
B)Doxepin
C)Amphetamine
D)Quazepam
Q2) Which drug used to treat ADHD is not a controlled substance?
A)Lisdexamfetamine
B)Methylphenidate
C)Atomoxetine
D)Dexmethylphenidate
Q3) Which of the following warning labels would you typically not see on a prescription for modafinil?
A)Avoid alcohol.
B)May cause sedation.
C)May decrease effectiveness of contraceptives.
D)May be habit forming.
Q4) Sleep deprivation can cause motor vehicle accidents and trigger seizures,paranoia,and hallucinations.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31609
Sample Questions
Q1) The process of neuromuscular transmission begins with the release of _____ from vesicles located in the motor neuron endplate.
A)acetylcholine (ACh)
B)dopamine (DA)
C)norepinephrine (NE)
D)g-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs
A)Neostigmine
B)Rocuronium
C)Succinylcholine
Q3) Drugs that decrease ACh release or deplete the neuron of ACh will also cause _____ of muscles.
A)contraction
B)stiffening
C)relaxation
D)tremor
Q4) Drug used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
A)Neostigmine
B)Rocuronium
C)Succinylcholine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31610
Sample Questions
Q1) Baclofen
A)Benzodiazepine
B)Antihistamine
C)Peripheral acting drug for the treatment of spasticity
D)GABAergic drug
E)a-Adrenergic agonist
Q2) Drugs used in the treatment of spasticity are grouped according to _____.
A)when they were discovered
B)their generic name
C)their ability to block ACh
D)their site of action
Q3) Why would decreasing glutamate levels help treat ALS?
A)It decreases the flow of calcium into motor neurons,decreasing spasticity.
B)It allows acetylcholine (Ach)to bind to the receptors,decreasing glutamate activity.
C)Glutamate is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter,so decreasing its levels would benefit ALS symptoms.
D)It enhances the actions of GABA,screening out unnecessary sensory messages coming from the environment.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect the
Musculoskeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31611
Sample Questions
Q1) Anakinra
A)Interleukin antagonist
B)NSAID
C)TNF inhibitor
D)Antimalarial
E)Immunosuppressive
F)Glucocorticoid
Q2) Which class of medication is prescribed commonly to suppress inflammation,reduce flare-ups,and treat pain in autoimmune disorders?
A)Antibiotics
B)Glucocorticoids
C)Antivirals
D)Mineralocorticoids
Q3) Which of the following has been shown to reduce SLE flare-ups?
A)Hydroxychloroquine
B)Methylprednisolone
C)Celecoxib
D)Acetaminophen
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease
of the Bone
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31612
Sample Questions
Q1) Fractures caused by osteoporosis when coughing or sneezing are classified as _____ fractures.
A)low-impact
B)bone density
C)spinal
D)fragility
Q2) Evista
A)Raloxifene
B)Etidronate
C)Alendronate
D)Zoledronic acid
E)Pamidronate
Q3) Which of the following is not responsible for the regulation of serum calcium levels?
A)Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B)Calcitonin
C)Vitamin A
D)Vitamin D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31613
Sample Questions
Q1) Indocin
A)Prednisone
B)Indomethacin
C)Febuxostat
D)Pegloticase
E)Allopurinol
Q2) _____ is an NSAID used in the treatment of gout.
A)Tolmetin
B)Celecoxib
C)Rasburicase
D)Allopurinol
Q3) When would colchicine be used to treat gout?
A)When gout is obesity induced
B)When hypertension is the main cause of gout
C)To prevent symptoms of chronic gout
D)As a first line of treatment for gout
Q4) Hyperuricemia can increase risk of coronary artery disease.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31614
Sample Questions
Q1) IOP is caused by buildup of _____.
A)plaques on optic nerve
B)pressure against the retina
C)aqueous humor
D)scar tissue on the lens of the eye
Q2) Brimonidine
A)Azopt
B)Trusopt
C)Xalatan
D)Alphagan
E)Timoptic
Q3) Which class used to treat glaucoma is able to promote drainage of accumulated levels of aqueous humor and reduce IOP?
A)Cholinergic agonists
B)Prostaglandin analogues
C)b-Adrenergic antagonists
D)Cholinesterase inhibitors
Q4) The most common form of glaucoma is closed angle glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Treatment of Disorders of the Ear
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31615
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a chronic inner ear disease associated with intermittent buildup of fluid in the inner ear.
A)Ménière's disease
B)Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
C)Swimmer's ear
D)Ototoxicity
Q2) Drug treatments for sudden sensorineural hearing loss include all of the following except _____.
A)glucocorticoids
B)ceruminolytics
C)plasma expanders
D)vasodilating agents
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL)?
A)Bacterial infection
B)Viral infection
C)Rupture of inner ear membrane
D)Medications
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
21
Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31616
Sample Questions
Q1) _____ can treat cysticercosis but is not FDA approved.
A)Praziquantel
B)Thiabendazole
C)Tobramycin
D)Cidofovir
Q2) Why is a "watchful waiting" approach taken for otitis media in children younger than 2 years?
A)For a nonsevere case of otitis media,the problem may take care of itself so antibiotics will not be prescribed to help reduce the risk of bacterial resistance.
B)Not many antibiotics are available to help treat otitis media in children younger than 2 years,so they are reserved for severe cases.
C)The liver in children younger than 2 years is not fully developed to metabolize antibiotics,so antibiotics are reserved for treatment only if necessary.
D)Children younger than 2 years do not like to take antibiotics and may not receive the full dose necessary,thus increasing bacterial resistance;a "watchful wait" is used to make sure they really need an antibiotic.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
22
Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31617
Sample Questions
Q1) b-Adrenergic blockers are the oldest class of drugs used to treat angina.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nitrate
A)Nadolol
B)Isosorbide dinitrate
C)Verapamil
Q3) A fatal drop in blood pressure can occur when _____ is administered to patients who are taking nitroglycerin.
A)ibuprofen
B)atenolol
C)vardenafil
D)fosinopril
Q4) b-Adrenergic blocker
A)Nadolol
B)Isosorbide dinitrate
C)Verapamil
Q5) Nitroglycerin is lipid soluble and readily crosses cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
23
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31618
Sample Questions
Q1) Spironolactone
A)Loop diuretic
B)ACE inhibitor
C)Thiazide diuretic
D)Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
E)Aldosterone receptor blocker
Q2) Gestational hypertension typically occurs after _____ weeks of pregnancy in susceptible women.
A)20
B)25
C)32
D)36
Q3) When dispensing _____,the warning label AVOID SALT SUBSTITUTES should be placed on the prescription vial.
A)torsemide
B)indapamide
C)triamterene
D)metolazone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31619
Sample Questions
Q1) If the legs and ankles are swollen and a person feels fatigued,which side(s)of the heart is failing?
A)Left side
B)Right side
C)Atria
D)Both sides
Q2) What is the effect on the heart when cardiac glycosides are administered?
A)Positive chronotropic effect on the heart,increasing the force of contraction
B)Negative dromotropic effect on the heart,decreasing the force of contraction
C)Negative inotropic effect on the heart,decreasing the force of contraction
D)Positive inotropic effect on the heart,increasing the force of contraction
Q3) Enalapril
A)Diuretic
B)Cardiac glycoside
C)ACE inhibitor
D)CCB
E)Beta blocker
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31620
Sample Questions
Q1) Which auxiliary warning label should pharmacy technicians attach to the prescription vial of warfarin when it is dispensed?
A)Causes fetal abnormalities
B)Avoid pregnancy
C)Do not use in the third trimester of pregnancy
D)Pregnancy Category X
Q2) Which routes of administration can be used to administer heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin?
A)Intravenous (IV)and intramuscular (IM)
B)IV and subcutaneous (SQ)
C)SL and IM
D)IV and SL
Q3) Which of the following may be used to treat a heparin overdose?
A)Aspart protamine
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin K
D)Protamine sulfate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
26
Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31621
Sample Questions
Q1) This arrhythmia occurs in areas of the heart that lie above the ventricles.
A)Ventricular fibrillation
B)Ventricular tachycardia
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
Q2) _____ is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in the United States.
A)Atrial flutter
B)Ventricular fibrillation
C)Myocardial infarction
D)Ventricular tachycardia
Q3) Which of the following can be used to treat arrhythmias but has not been U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)approved?
A)Lidocaine
B)Phenytoin
C)Digoxin
D)Magnesium sulfate
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease, Laryngopharyngeal Reflux, and Peptic Ulcer
Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31622
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition may increase the risk of developing asthma?
A)COPS
B)GERD
C)PUD
D)LPR
Q2) Which of the following is not characteristic of an ulcer?
A)Open sore
B)Open wound
C)Can occur anywhere in the body
D)Limited to the digestive system
Q3) Which of the following would not be classified as a H receptor antagonist?
A)Cimetidine
B)Ranitidine
C)Famotidine
D)Amantadine
Q4) Why might nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)worsen GERD?
A)Increase gastric acids
B)Decrease mucosal lining
C)Impair peristalsis
D)Decrease natural reflux barriers
Page 28
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel Syndrome,
ulcerative Colitis, and Crohns Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31623
Sample Questions
Q1) Infliximab
A)Imodium
B)Remicade
C)Asacol
D)Bentyl
E)Fibercon
Q2) Which of the following is commonly prescribed for treatment of infected fistulas that may have developed as a result of Crohn's disease?
A)Doxycycline
B)Amitriptyline
C)Fluconazole
D)Metronidazole
Q3) One of the only FDA-approved anticholinergic drugs used in the treatment of IBS when diarrhea is the primary symptom is _____.
A)atropine
B)difenoxin + atropine
C)loperamide
D)doxycycline
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31624
Sample Questions
Q1) Budesonide
A)Serevent Diskus
B)Pulmicort
C)Ventolin
D)Accolate
E)Flovent Diskus
F)Xolair
G)Tilade
Q2) Which of the following leukotriene antagonists must be taken on an empty stomach?
A)Montelukast
B)Zafirlukast
C)Zileuton
D)Zyflo
Q3) Why would taking a xanthine derivative be contraindicated in a patient with peptic ulcer disease?
A)Xanthines decrease catecholamines,further aggravating a peptic ulcer.
B)Theophylline neutralizes the enzymes necessary to metabolize xanthines.
C)Theophylline inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
Page 31
D)Xanthines prohibit the elimination of theophylline.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31625
Sample Questions
Q1) Flonase
A)Chlorpheniramine
B)Cetirizine
C)Loratadine
D)Fluticasone
E)Mometasone
Q2) If latex gloves must be used,what could be done to help prevent an allergic reaction to the latex?
A)Use gloves containing protective latex antibodies to prevent an allergic reaction.
B)Use powder-free gloves with reduced protein content to help the allergy protein from becoming airborne and inhaled,causing a reaction.
C)Use powdered gloves to help contain the allergy protein,thereby reducing the chances of an allergic reaction.
D)Use powder-free gloves with increased protein content to help protect against allergic reactions.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
32
Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31626
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following herbal remedies helps promote a healthy prostate?
A)Yarrow
B)St.John's wort
C)Saw palmetto
D)Melatonin
Q2) Which two classes of drugs are used to manage symptoms of BPH?
A)Alpha blockers and 5b-reductase inhibitors
B)5a-Reductase inhibitors and beta blockers
C)a-Adrenergic antagonists and 5a-reductase inhibitors
D)Alpha blockers and beta blockers
Q3) It may take up to _____ for finasteride to achieve therapeutic effects.
A)2 weeks
B)6 weeks
C)2 months
D)12 months
Q4) In addition to BPH,finasteride can also be used to treat _____.
A)erectile dysfunction (ED)
B)decreased testosterone levels
C)male pattern baldness
D)urinary urgency
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31627
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an example of a colloid?
A)Blood
B)Hetastarch
C)Albumin
D)Lactated Ringer's
Q2) Potassium
A)Helps maintain normal muscle function
B)Movement is essential in generation of electrical signals
C)Essential component of DNA and RNA
D)Necessary for the production of parathyroid hormone
Q3) Phosphorus
A)Helps maintain normal muscle function
B)Movement is essential in generation of electrical signals
C)Essential component of DNA and RNA
D)Necessary for the production of parathyroid hormone
Q4) Which of the following can be helpful in hypotensive patients?
A)Hypotonic fluids
B)Isotonic fluids
C)Hypertonic fluids
D)Serotonic fluids
34
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31628
Sample Questions
Q1) If radioactive iodine is contraindicated in pregnancy because it crosses the placenta and can cause thyroid damage to a developing fetus,what pregnancy category would this drug be placed in?
A)Category B
B)Category C
C)Category D
D)Category X
Q2) It takes _____ months of therapy with propylthiouracil before maximum effects are achieved.
A)1 to 2
B)2 to 4
C)5 to 6
D)6 to 8
Q3) Which of the following is a replacement for naturally occurring thyroxine when treating hypothyroidism?
A)Levothyroxine
B)Tetraiodothyronine
C)Liotrix
D)Triiodothyronine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 35
Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31629
Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulate(s)insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells
A)Meglitinides
B)Thiazolidinediones
C)Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor
D)Synthetic analog of the hormone amylin
E)Incretin mimetic
Q2) Levemir
A)Repaglinide
B)Sitagliptin
C)Insulin glargine
D)Pioglitazone
E)Insulin detemir
Q3) Prandin
A)Repaglinide
B)Sitagliptin
C)Insulin glargine
D)Pioglitazone
E)Insulin detemir
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31630
Sample Questions
Q1) Oil-based products should not be used with latex diaphragms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which types of condoms are easier to break and more expensive?
A)Polyurethane
B)Latex
C)Lambskin
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not a drug "delivery method" of contraception?
A)Hormone-impregnated vaginal inserts
B)Skin patches
C)Condoms
D)Surgical implant
Q4) Anabolic steroids cause many serious adverse effects and are classified as _____ substances.
A)C-II
B)C-III
C)C-IV
D)C-V
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31631
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is not a b-lactam antibiotic?
A)Amoxicillin
B)Cefuroxime
C)Azithromycin
D)Meropenem
Q2) _____ would be prescribed for the treatment of tuberculosis (TB).
A)Isoniazid
B)Metronidazole
C)Tetracycline
D)Ciprofloxacin
Q3) Microbial resistance is the ability of bacteria to overcome the effects of an antibiotic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Multidrug resistance is only a problem in the hospital setting.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 38
Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31632
Sample Questions
Q1) PEG-intron
A)Interferon
B)NNRTI
C)PI
D)NRTI
E)Neuraminidase inhibitor
Q2) _____ is associated with fatal liver toxicity and the FDA has required changes in the package labeling to warn of this adverse effect.
A)Nevirapine
B)Efavirenz
C)Delavirdine
D)Fosamprenavir
Q3) Antiviral medications are effective against all viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are classes of antiretrovirals except _____.
A)nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
B)protease inhibitors (PIs)
C)acyclic phosphonate nucleotide analogue
D)fusion inhibitors
Page 39
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31633
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is given intramuscularly after antiestrogen therapy for estrogen receptor (ER)-positive metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women with disease progression?
A)Fulvestrant
B)Exemestane
C)Goserelin
D)Megestrol acetate
Q2) The oldest class of antineoplastic agents is _____.
A)phosphamides
B)alkerans
C)alkylating agents
D)phosphorylating agents
Q3) The use of drugs to kill or slow the growth of cancerous cells is called _____.
A)biological therapy
B)pharmaceutical therapy
C)chemotherapy
D)modulator therapy
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter
Immunosuppressants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31634
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a conjugate vaccine is _____.
A)Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib)
B)flu
C)mumps
D)varicella
Q2) Prograf
A)Mycophenolate mofetil
B)Pimecrolimus
C)Tacrolimus
D)Daclizumab
E)Cyclosporine
Q3) Zenapax
A)Mycophenolate mofetil
B)Pimecrolimus
C)Tacrolimus
D)Daclizumab
E)Cyclosporine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31635
Sample Questions
Q1) Candida is normally present in or on what part of the body but only causes infection when conditions are favorable to the overgrowth of yeast?
A)In the gastrointestinal (GI)tract
B)On the scalp
C)On the skin
D)Between the toes
Q2) Which of the following is true about dermatophytes?
A)They live on the top layer of the skin,hair,and nails.
B)They are usually found in the mouth.
C)They thrive in the vaginal mucosa.
D)They can be found in the nose.
Q3) Which of the following is not true about ringworm?
A)It is contagious.
B)It can spread between humans and animals.
C)It is not spread from person to person.
D)It is caused by a fungus,not a worm.
Q4) All fungi are pathogenic.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31636
Sample Questions
Q1) Decubitus ulcers and burn wounds are completely different in their course of injury.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following products is used to débride necrotic tissue?
A)Trypsin
B)Balsam Peru
C)Castor oil
D)Silver nitrate
Q3) Which of the following drugs can be given to reduce hypermetabolic state associated with large burns?
A)Neomycin
B)Bacitracin
C)Prazosin
D)Propranolol
Q4) Why is papain useful for bulk débridement?
A)It acts as a bactericidal in any pH.
B)It has a broad pH,so it can help better break down dead skin.
C)It keeps the skin hydrated so it can heal itself.
D)It works effectively in a narrow pH,so it can better target débridement.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31637
Sample Questions
Q1) A large,painful,solid lesion that is lodged deep within the skin is termed a _____.
A)papule
B)nodule
C)pustule
D)cyst
Q2) Why does acne form?
A)Hair follicles become dormant,allowing for a buildup of oil.
B)Increased skin cell production causes a buildup of dead skin to become trapped under the skin.
C)The inflammation process breaks down,not allowing white blood cells (WBCs)to correct an overactive oil gland.
D)Sebaceous gland secretions are unable to reach the surface.
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause of acne?
A)Increased androgens
B)Increased junk food intake
C)Heredity or genetics
D)Certain drugs
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31638
Sample Questions
Q1) A chronic disease of the skin associated with rapid turnover of the skin cells that causes itchy red patches covered with silvery scales is termed _____.
A)eczema
B)psoriasis
C)dermatitis
D)rosacea
Q2) A general term used to describe several types of inflammation of the skin is _____.
A)dermatitis
B)eczema
C)pruritus
D)cellulitis
Q3) Which of the following is classified as a Class I corticosteroid and may have a higher incidence of adverse reactions?
A)Clobetasol
B)Fluocinolone
C)Desoximetasone
D)Mometasone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
45
Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31639
Sample Questions
Q1) RID
A)Crotamiton
B)Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
C)Permethrin
D)Malathion
Q2) The scabies mite lives in all of the following places except _____.
A)the surface of the skin
B)webbing between the fingers and toes
C)skin folds of the breast
D)bend of the elbows,knees,and wrists
Q3) Ovide
A)Crotamiton
B)Pyrethrins + piperonyl butoxide
C)Permethrin
D)Malathion
Q4) What is the maximum amount of lindane that should be dispensed?
A)1/2- to 1-ounce single-application vials
B)1- to 2-ounce single-application vials
C)2- to 4-ounce multi-application vials
D)4- to 6-ounce multi-application vials
46
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.