Basic Nursing Skills
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Basic Nursing Skills introduces students to the fundamental concepts and practical techniques essential for delivering safe and effective patient care in a healthcare setting. The course covers foundational topics such as vital signs measurement, infection control, patient hygiene, bed making, mobility assistance, documentation, and basic first aid. Emphasis is placed on developing hands-on skills, effective communication, and a compassionate, ethical approach to caring for individuals with diverse backgrounds and needs. Through a combination of theoretical learning and supervised clinical practice, students gain the confidence and competence required to support patients and collaborate with multidisciplinary healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 7th Edition by Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1516 Verified Questions
1516 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1753 Page 2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34912
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has done a literature search and has found 25 possible articles on the topic that she is studying.To determine which of those 25 best fit her inquiry,the nurse should first look at:
A) The abstracts
B) Literature reviews
C) The "Methods" sections
D) The narrative sections
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse is getting ready to develop a plan of care for a patient who has a specific need.The best source for developing this plan of care would probably be:
A) The Cochrane Library
B) MEDLINE
C) The NGC
D) CINAHL
Answer: C
Q3) Evidence-based practice requires good ______________.
Answer: nursing judgment
Evidence-based practice requires good nursing judgment; it is not finding research evidence and blindly applying it.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34913
Sample Questions
Q1) ________________________is a federal law intended to protect patients from being transferred against their wishes to another hospital.
Answer: Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA)
In the ED,when a patient is transferred from one institution to another,the nurse completes the transfer in compliance with the EMTALA (CMS,2003).EMTALA is a federal law intended to protect patients from being transferred against their wishes; it thus defines how an appropriate facility-to-facility transfer is accomplished.
Q2) The nurse is providing discharge instruction to an 80-year-old patient and her daughter.The patient lives in a two-story home.When asked if the patient has difficulty climbing the stairs,the patient says "No," but the nurse notices a look of surprise on the daughter's face.The nurse should:
A) Speak with the daughter separately
B) Cancel the discharge immediately
C) Order a Visiting Nurse consult
D) Notify the physician
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Communication
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34914
Sample Questions
Q1) Anxiety that is the source of poor recall and somatic complaints such as headache and nausea is classified as _________________.
Answer: severe anxiety
Severe anxiety is characterized by the ability to focus on fragmented details only,as well as headache,nausea,dizziness,inability to see connections between details,and poor recall.
Q2) The nurse is explaining a procedure to a 2-year-old child.The best approach to use is:
A) Showing the needles and bandages in advance
B) Telling the patient exactly what discomfort to expect
C) Using dolls and stories to demonstrate what will be done
D) Asking the child to draw pictures of what he/she thinks will happen
Answer: C
Q3) Nonverbal communication incorporates messages conveyed by:
A) Touch
B) Cadence
C) Tone quality
D) Use of jargon
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Reporting and Recording
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34915
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been in the hospital for 12 days.The nurse meets with the physical therapist,the case manager,the nutritionist,and other members of the team to discuss his progress and readiness to go home.This type of multidisciplinary meeting often is called:
A) A handoff report
B) A discharge planning conference
C) A verbal report
D) A transfer report
Q2) The abbreviation for every day (___ )is no longer used.
Q3) "Patient is wheezing and is experiencing some dyspnea on exertion." This is an example of:
A) The "S" in SOAP documentation
B) FOCUS documentation
C) The "P" of PIE
D) The "R" in DAR documentation
Q4) The federally mandated ________________________ provides standardized protocols for assessment and care planning and promotes quality improvement within and among facilities.
Q5) A patient's private health information is legally protected by the ________________.
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 1-year-old male infant who is admitted with possible sepsis.The patient is irritable and agitates easily.To assess the patient's temperature,the nurse should:
A) Take an oral temperature before doing anything else
B) Take an axillary temperature using the upper axilla
C) Place the child in the Sims' position for a rectal temperature
D) Take a rectal temperature as the last vital sign
Q2) The site used to auscultate blood pressure is the:
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Brachial
D) Temporal
Q3) An appropriate method for assessing a patient's respirations is for the nurse to:
A) Place the bed flat
B) Remove all supplemental oxygen sources from documentation
C) Explain to the patient that respirations are being assessed
D) Relax and gently place the patient's hand over the upper abdomen
Q4) An inefficient contraction of the heart that fails to transmit a pulse wave to the peripheral pulse site creates a ____________.
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34917
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted to the hospital with a hematocrit of 60%.This level indicates
Q2) In providing a physical assessment of an 88-year-old patient,the nurse should:
A) Do it as quickly as possible to prevent fatigue
B) Assume that the patient will have disabilities
C) Prepare to perform a mental status examination
D) Always do the exam in the small exam room to prevent chills
Q3) A nurse is documenting a patient's breath sounds.Rhonchi are heard as:
A) Loud, low-pitched, coarse sounds
B) High-pitched, musical squeaks
C) Dry, grating sounds on inspiration
D) High-pitched, fine sounds at the end of inspiration
Q4) A student nurse is working with a patient who has asthma.The primary nurse tells the student that wheezes can be heard on auscultation.The student expects to hear:
A) Coarse crackles and bubbling
B) High-pitched musical sounds
C) Dry, grating noises
D) Loud, low-pitched rumbling
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34918
Sample Questions
Q1) To break the chain of infection at the reservoir level,the nurse should:
A) Change a soiled dressing
B) Keep drainage systems intact
C) Cover the nose and mouth when sneezing
D) Avoid contact of the uniform with soiled items
Q2) The patient has been hospitalized for several days and has received multiple intravenous antibiotic medications.This morning,the patient had three episodes of severe,foul-smelling diarrhea.The nurse should institute:
A) Contact Precautions
B) Standard Precautions only
C) Airborne Precautions
D) Droplet Precautions
Q3) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for the patient on isolation precautions is to:
A) Double-bag all disposable items and linens
B) Put another gown over the one worn if it has become wet
C) Place specimen containers in plastic bags for transport
D) Hand items to be reused directly to a nurse standing outside the room
Q4) ________________ is the absence of pathogenic (disease-producing)microorganisms.
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Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34919
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate technique for the nurse to use when performing sterile gloving is to:
A) Put the glove on the nondominant hand first
B) Interlock the hands after both gloves are applied
C) Pull the cuffs down on both gloves after gloving
D) Grasp the outside cuff of the other glove with the gloved hand
Q2) A sterile field consists of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) A sterile tray
B) A work surface draped with a sterile towel
C) A table covered by a large sterile drape
D) A patient's bedside table
Q3) When performing sterile aseptic procedures,the nurse must create a _____________ in which objects can be handled with a minimal risk of contamination.
Q4) An appropriate principle of surgical asepsis is that:
A) The entirety of a sterile package is sterile once it is opened
B) All of the draped table, top to bottom, is considered sterile
C) An object held below the waist is considered contaminated
D) If the sterile barrier field becomes wet, the dry areas are still sterile
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34920
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is immobile and is being positioned in the supine position.To reduce extension of fingers and abduction of the thumb,the nurse places _________________ in the patient's hands.
Q2) The most prevalent and debilitating occupational health hazard among nurses is:
A) Footdrop
B) Pressure ulcers
C) Musculoskeletal disorders
D) Contractures
Q3) ________________________ are placed alongside the patient's legs to ensure proper alignment and to prevent external rotation of the hips.
Q4) A nurse should be aware of safety measures to prevent personal injury when lifting or moving patients.An appropriate principle to follow is:
A) Bend at the waist for lifting
B) Tighten the stomach muscles and pelvis
C) Keep the weight to be lifted away from the body
D) Carry or hold the weight 1 to 2 feet above the waist
Q5) Awareness of posture and changes in equilibrium is known as _______________.
Q6) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34921
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is applying a CPM machine to the patient's leg.To do so,she must: (Select all that apply.)
A) Provide analgesia 1 hour before starting the CPM
B) Stop the CPM when in extension and place a sheepskin on the machine
C) Align patient's joint with the CPM's mechanical joint
D) Secure the patient's extremity tightly with Velcro straps
Q2) The patient has been using crutches for the past 2 weeks.When she comes for her follow-up examination,she complains of tingling and numbness in her hands and upper torso.Possible causes of these symptoms are:
A) The patient's elbows are flexed 15 to 30 degrees when using the crutches
B) Crutch pad is approximately 2 inches below the patient's axilla
C) Patient holds the cane 4 to 6 inches to the side of her foot
D) Hand grip does not allow for elbow flexion
Q3) While ambulating,the patient becomes light-headed and starts to fall.The nurse should first:
A) Call for help
B) Try to reach for a chair
C) Ease the patient down to the floor
D) Push the patient back toward the bed
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34922
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted for a fractured tibia.The nurse is preparing the patient for cast application.She should expect to medicate the patient with:
A) An oral analgesic 10 minutes before the procedure
B) An intramuscular (IM) analgesic 10 minutes before the procedure
C) An intravascular (IV) analgesic 2 minutes before the procedure
D) A muscle relaxant 10 minutes before the procedure
Q2) The patient is confined to bed in traction.To prevent the development of complications,the nurses encourages:
A) A low fluid intake to help control incontinence
B) A low calcium diet to reduce the risk for kidney stones
C) A fluid intake of at least 3 L per day and a high-residue diet
D) A low-fiber diet to help prevent constipation
Q3) An immobilization device used to immobilize and protect a body part is known as a
Q4) The patient has fallen and broken her leg.To keep the leg bones aligned and to reduce muscle spasms,the physician orders the patient to be placed in
Q5) After applying a cast,the nurse should be able to insert _______ fingers between the cast and the limb.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34923
Sample Questions
Q1) The major cause of pressure ulcers is ________________.
Q2) The _______________ bed rotates and improves skeletal alignment with a constant side-to-side rotation up to 90 degrees.
Q3) The patient is admitted to the hospital.Part of the patient assessment will include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Use of an appropriate pressure ulcer risk scale
B) Assessment of the patient's nutritional status
C) Assessment of the patient's mobility status
D) Assessment of the patient's fluid status
E) None of above
Q4) The patient will be going home but still requires an air-fluidized bed.Before discharge,it will be necessary for the company that is leasing the bed to inspect the home for accessibility and ________________.
Q5) An ______________ rests on top of the hospital mattress and uses foam,air,water,gel,or combinations of these products to provide pressure relief.
Q6) It is recommended that the Rotokinetic bed stay in the rotation mode for at least _______hours a day.
Q7) A ______________ serves as an artificial layer of fat to protect bony surfaces.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Safety
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34924
Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent patient aspiration during a seizure,the nurse should:
A) Insert an oral airway
B) Restrain the patient securely
C) Sit the patient in an upright position
D) Turn the patient onto his/her side
Q2) After recognizing that a patient has received an electrical shock and after removing the source of the shock,the nurse will:
A) Go to get help
B) Start CPR
C) Ask the patient to assist in moving away from the source of the shock
D) Assess for the presence of a pulse
Q3) More than ____________ of adults 65 years of age and older fall annually in the United States.
Q4) Continuous seizure activity that lasts longer than 30 minutes is known as _______________.
Q5) The use of physical restraints is one safety strategy that has been used to protect patients from injury.However,physical restraints are the ______________ and are used only when reasonable alternatives have failed.
Q6) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34925
Sample Questions
Q1) Upon arriving at a mass causality scene,health care providers will initiate triage by doing which of the following first?
A) Assess
B) Move
C) Sort
D) Send
Q2) An epidemic that occurs in many parts of the world is known as a
Q3) Hurricane Zee has caused severe flooding and loss of power throughout the state.The local community has a stockpile of supplies that will help it get through the next 72 hours.Beyond this,once local and Federal authorities confirm the need,a "push package" of supplies will be issued within 12 hours of the confirmation.These supplies will come from the _________________.
Q4) When the following biological agent exposures are compared,which requires the use of an antitoxin?
A) Anthrax
B) Plague
C) Botulism
D) Typhoid
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34926
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is evaluating the epidural catheter insertion site and suspects that the intraspinal catheter has punctured the dura when:
A) Clear drainage is noted
B) Bloody drainage is noted
C) Purulent drainage is noted
D) Redness, warmth, and swelling are noted
Q2) Pain is experienced differently by different people.This is because pain perception is based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Past pain experiences
B) Values
C) Cultural expectations
D) Emotions
E) None of above
Q3) A nurse checks the continuous IV infusion for the intraspinal analgesia.The IV setup should be changed if:
A) Tubing with a Y-port is attached
B) An infusion pump is attached
C) The tubing connections are all taped
D) A diluted, preservative-free medication is used
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34927
Sample Questions
Q1) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.
Q2) The patient was a practicing Hindu when he died.Knowing this,the nurse realizes that:
A) The body should be covered with a cotton sheet
B) Anointing of the sick is performed even after death
C) Family members often prefer to wash the body after death
D) The body should be buried within 24 hours
Q3) Nurses provide _______________ that is defined as care of the body after death in a manner consistent with the patient's religious and cultural beliefs.
Q4) The nurse recognizes that anticipatory grieving can be most beneficial for a patient or family because it can:
A) Be done in private
B) Be discussed with others
C) Promote separation of the ill patient from the family
D) Allow time for the process of grief
Q5) A person experiences an actual _________ when an object or a person can no longer be felt,heard,or experienced.
Q6) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
Q7) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bedmaking
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34928
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse recognizes that a shampoo may be contraindicated for a bed-bound patient with:
A) Heart disease
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) A neck injury
D) A bleeding disorder
Q2) The development of diabetic foot ulcers is dependent on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Ischemia
C) A pivotal event
D) Pain
Q3) When taking a shower in the home setting,the patient at risk for falls may benefit from: (Select all that apply.)
A) Installation of grab bars
B) Adhesive strips applied to the tub floor
C) Addition of a shower chair or stool
D) An hydraulic lift
Q4) ________________ is defined as excessive growth of body and facial hair.
Q5) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34929
Sample Questions
Q1) Pressure ulcers can occur in which area of the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Coccyx
B) Nares
C) Ears
D) Genitalia
E) None of above
Q2) The nurse is planning to care for her patient,who has a stage II pressure ulcer.Care should include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) A heat lamp to dry the wound
B) Application of topical antibiotics
C) Nutritional assessment
D) Maintenance of a moist wound environment
Q3) The patient is admitted with an open pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue covering the base.The nurse would classify this ulcer as a:
A) Stage III pressure ulcer
B) Stage IV ulcer
C) Wound cannot be staged
D) Stage II pressure ulcer
Q4) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
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Chapter 19: Care of Eye and Ear Prostheses
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34930
Sample Questions
Q1) When cleansing and disinfecting contact lenses,the nurse:
A) Holds the lens over the sink
B) Rinses the lens with warm tap water
C) Uses an enzymatic cleaner per prescriber's instruction
D) Places rigid lenses in the storage case inside down
Q2) An artificial sensory device,known as a __________________,replaces or restores sensory function to a diseased or lost body part.
Q3) The nurse is preparing to clean the patient's hearing aid.The nurse realizes that she must:
A) Make sure the hearing aid volume is turned on before removing
B) Hold the hearing aid over the sink when cleansing
C) Insert a paper clip into the receiver port to cleanse cerumen buildup
D) Make sure the pressure equalization channel is clear
Q4) The patient is brought into the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident.The patient is unresponsive.The nurse is concerned about whether or not the patient wears contact lenses because contact lenses that are not removed can cause
Q5) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34931
Sample Questions
Q1) All medications have a ______________,which is the time it takes for excretion processes to lower the serum medication concentration by half.
Q2) Medication dependence in which there is a physiological adaptation to a medication is known as _______________.
Q3) Calculation indicates that 2 tsp of a medication is to be administered to the client.The nurse pours _________________.
Q4) When using the Apothecary System for medication calculation,the nurse realizes that:
A) The system uses only Roman numerals
B) The system uses only fractions
C) The abbreviations always comes after the quantity
D) The symbol "ss" is used for the fraction ½
Q5) The length of time during which the medication is present in a concentration great enough to produce a therapeutic effect is known as that drug's _______________.
Q6) A medication distribution system that utilizes individual patient drawers and whereby medication is packaged according to what the patient would receive at one time is known as the ____________ system.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34932
Sample Questions
Q1) Handheld devices that disperse medications through an aerosol spray or mist to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
Q2) How should the nurse position the patient to administer nose drops to the maxillary sinus?
A) Sitting upright with the head backward
B) Supine with a pillow under the shoulders
C) Supine with the head turned to the unaffected side
D) Lying down with the head back, over the edge of the bed, and turned toward the side to be treated
Q3) An expected response from a vaginal instillation is evident when:
A) Local pruritus is evident
B) The vaginal walls are bright pink or red in color
C) White curd-like patches appear on the vaginal walls
D) A small amount of discharge that is the same color as the medication is noted
Q4) Which of the following is true about MDIs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Inhaled medications can open narrowed bronchioles.
B) Inhaled medications can liquefy thick mucous secretions.
C) The use of spacer devices requires good coordination.
D) Inhaled medications are local only and produce no systemic effects.
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Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34933
Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to inject a medication correctly may result in which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) An inappropriate dug response
B) Nerve injury and/or pain
C) Tissue necrosis
D) Sterile abscess
E) None of above
Q2) The nurse administers the intramuscular medication of iron by the Z-track method.Why was the medication administered by this method? (Select all that apply.)
A) Provides faster absorption of the medication
B) Reduces discomfort from the needle
C) Prevents leakage of medication into subcutaneous tissue
D) Prevents the drug from irritating sensitive tissue
Q3) The nurse is preparing to start an infusion of ciprofloxacin to run as a piggyback infusion.For the system to run properly,the nurse must:
A) Hang the bag lower than the primary infusion
B) Stop the primary bag from running so the piggyback can run
C) Plug the piggyback into the lowest port on the primary bag's tubing
D) Connect the bag to the upper Y-port of a primary infusion line
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34934
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following directly affects oxygenation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypoxia
B) Hemoglobin levels
C) Hypoxemia
D) Acid-base status
Q2) The patient is in respiratory distress but does not have COPD.The physician wants the patient to receive the highest possible concentration of oxygen.Which of the following would best meet this criterion?
A) Simple face mask
B) Plastic face mask with reservoir bag
C) Venturi mask
D) Face tent
Q3) ________________ maintains positive airway pressure and improves alveolar ventilation without the need for an artificial airway.
Q4) A patient is instructed by a nurse to correctly perform incentive spirometry by:
A) Assuming a sitting position
B) Inhaling rapidly
C) Holding the breath for 15 seconds
D) Exhaling quickly
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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34935
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with which of the following conditions is a candidate for postural drainage?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Active hemoptysis
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Pulmonary embolism
Q2) Contraindications for postural drainage include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Active hemoptysis
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Rib fracture
E) None of above
Q3) The system that lines the internal lumen of the tracheobronchial tree and consists of a thin layer of mucus that constantly is propelled toward the larynx by cilia is called the
Q4) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34936
Sample Questions
Q1) Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)is a major concern for ventilated patients because it:
A) Occurs in 5% of ventilated patients
B) Causes 75% of nosocomial infections in vented patients
C) Develops within 24 hours of intubation
D) Increases hospital stay length and mortality
Q2) Contraindications to nasotracheal suctioning include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Facial trauma
B) Bleeding disorders
C) Epiglottis or croup
D) Laryngospasm
E) None of above
Q3) The nurse is providing nasotracheal suction for a patient.Which of the following is proper technique?
A) Insert the catheter during exhalation
B) Insert the catheter while the patient is swallowing
C) Apply suction only when pulling the catheter out
D) Remove the catheter immediately and quickly if patient coughs
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34937
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to assist the physician in removal of a chest tube.What does the nurse do to prepare the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assess the patient's need for pain medication
B) Instruct the patient about the process
C) Teach the patient to take a deep breath and hold it
D) Clamp the chest tubes
Q2) What should the nurse do to establish a two-chamber waterless chest tube system?
A) Add sterile water to the suction chamber
B) Add sterile solution to the water seal
C) Set the float ball to the correct drainage pressure
D) Connect directly to the chest tube and add nothing
Q3) What is the expected amount of drainage for an adult patient with a mediastinal chest tube?
A) Less than 50 to 200 mL/hour during the immediate postoperative period
B) Less than 10 mL/hour during the immediate postoperative period
C) 1000 mL/hour during the first 24-hour period
D) 200 mL/hour during the first 24-hour period
Q4) The interior chest wall is covered with a membrane,called the _______________.
Q5) The lungs are covered with a membrane called the _________________.
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many cardiac arrests are caused by irregular heart rhythms known as ________________.
Q2) How deep should chest compressions be when CPR is administered to a pulseless adult?
A) 1 to 1½ inches in depth
B) 2½ to 3 inches in depth
C) ½ to 1 inch in depth
D) 1½ to 2 inches in depth
Q3) In the event of cardiopulmonary arrest,all patients receive CPR unless otherwise indicated in the patient's _________________.
Q4) The nurse is preparing to insert an oral airway in a patient who is exhibiting signs of potential respiratory distress.The nurse knows that candidates for oral airway placement are those:
A) With oral trauma
B) With loose teeth
C) Who are unconscious
D) Who have had recent oral surgery
Q5) When the patient ceases to ventilate,resulting in the absence of oxygen delivery to the alveoli,this is called _________________.
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which patients are electronic infusion devices (EID)used? (Select all that apply.)
A) Those who require low hourly rates
B) Those who are at risk for volume overload
C) Those who have impaired renal clearance
D) Those who are receiving fluids that require a specific hourly volume
E) None of above
Q2) Intravenous catheters that usually are 6 to 8 inches in length and that are inserted directly through the skin and into the internal or external jugular,subclavian,or femoral veins are known as ____________________.
Q3) Established standards for routine replacement of peripheral IV catheters and intravenous administration sets have recommended a maximum of _____ hours to reduce IV fluid contamination and prevent catheter site complications.
A) 24
B) 48
C) 72
D) 84
Q4) An IV catheter attached to an injection cap to maintain a closed system is known as an ________________.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under the ABO system,the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
Q2) Symptoms that indicate an adverse reaction to blood products include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Skin rash
C) Hypotension
D) Cardiac arrest
E) None of above
Q3) Although six common types of Rh antigen may be present on the surface of red blood cells,the _______________ antigen is widely prevalent and is most likely to elicit an immune response.
Q4) The average adult has about _______ liters of blood.
Q5) The presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells determines ___________________ in the ABO system.
Q6) The patient is about to receive 2 units of blood.The most common method used for blood transfusion is to administer blood from someone other than the patient.Blood donated from someone else is known as ________________ blood.
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) An impairment in swallowing is known as _____________.
Q2) Diets that are modified in consistency,texture,or nutrients such as clear or full liquid diets are classified as ________________.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient who is believed to be suffering from malnutrition.The nurse calculates that the patient's body mass index (BMI)is 16.4 kg/m².What does this indicate about the patient's weight?
A) The patient is underweight
B) The patient's weight is normal
C) The patient is overweight
D) The patient is obese (class 1)
Q4) The patient is on the dysphagia puree stage of the national dysphagia diet.Which of the following foods may the patient select?
A) Mashed potatoes
B) Dry cereals moistened with milk
C) Well-cooked noodles in gravy
D) Well-moistened cereals
Q5) ______________ are measures of height; weight; head,arm,and muscle circumferences; and skinfold thickness.
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Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________,commonly called tube feeding,is the administration of nutrients through the gastrointestinal tract when a patient cannot ingest,chew,or swallow,but can digest and absorb nutrients.
Q2) An appropriate technique for nasogastric (NG)tube insertion is for the nurse to:
A) Position the client supine
B) Apply oil-based lubricant to the plastic tube
C) Advance the tube while the client swallows
D) Measure the tube length from the nose to the sternum
Q3) Conditions that increase the risk for spontaneous tube dislocation include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Retching/vomiting
B) Nasotracheal suction
C) Coughing
D) Cyanosis
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for enteral feeding is:
A) Weighing the client weekly
B) Measuring gastric residual every hour
C) Changing the formula every 8 hours in an open system
D) Leaving formula in place in an open system for up to 24 hours
Q5) Gastrostomy feeding tubes require that the patient has normal _____________.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN).The nurse realizes that PN is associated with: (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased mortality
B) Bloodstream infection
C) Pneumothorax
D) Decreased length of stay
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving PN.As part of the patient's therapy,the patient receives routine bedside glucose monitoring.Why is this done?
A) To keep the blood glucose lower than normal since the PN is delivering glucose directly to the bloodstream
B) To keep the blood glucose slightly higher than normal to meet the needs of the increased cellular need
C) To keep the blood glucose slightly higher than normal to prevent infection or systemic sepsis
D) To keep the blood glucose in the normal range to prevent associated complications
Q3) A patient with linoleic acid deficiency is _______________ and thus at risk for infection.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are indications for the need for an indwelling catheter? (Select all that apply.)
A) The presence of stage III pressure ulcers
B) The presence of stage IV pressure ulcers
C) The need for accurate measurement of urinary output
D) Controlling urinary elimination
Q2) Which of the following are phases of peritoneal dialysis (PD)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Inflow (fill)
B) Dwell (equilibration)
C) Drain
D) Hemodilution
Q3) Resistance is encountered during the urinary catheterization of a male patient.What should the nurse do?
A) Remove the catheter immediately
B) Apply force to insert the catheter farther
C) Ask the patient to breathe quickly through the mouth
D) Rest his/her arm against the patient's leg and ask him to relax
Q4) The adherence of microorganisms to the surface of urinary catheters is known as
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stool softeners often are prescribed for which of the following patients? (Select all that apply.)
A) Patients who have had gynecological surgery
B) Patients with a history of cardiovascular disease
C) Patients with glaucoma
D) Patients who have had rectal surgery
E) None of above
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has been on bed rest for several weeks.The nurse notes that the patient is continually seeping liquid stool rectally.What action should the nurse take?
A) Hold the patient's antibiotics
B) Put the patient on a bran diet
C) Perform a digital rectal examination
D) Increase the dosage of the patient's antibiotics
Q3) An ___________ is the instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis.
Q4) _________________ is the patient's inability to control the passage of feces and gas.
Q5) _____________ is the absolute inability to pass stool.
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The continent urinary reservoir and the orthotopic neobladder are examples of _____________.
Q2) An opening that is in the ileal portion of the small intestine is an ____________.
Q3) The nurse has removed the patient's old urostomy pouch and is attempting to measure the stoma opening for placement of a new pouch.Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Place the patient in a prone position
B) Cleanse the peristomal skin with warm soap and water
C) Remove any stents that are in place
D) Place rolled gauze at stoma opening
Q4) A temporary device placed by the surgeon during the creation of a urostomy and designed to prevent stenosis of the ureters at the site where the ureters are attached to the conduit is called a ______________.
Q5) Which of the following is an expected assessment finding for a colostomy or ileostomy?
A) A moist, reddish-pink stoma
B) A dry, purplish stoma
C) Erythema on the skin around the stoma
D) No drainage noted from the stoma when washed
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Chapter 36: Preoperativepostoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting the patient with diaphragmatic breathing exercises.Which of the following is part of the proper technique? (Select all that apply.)
A) Have patient inhale slowly
B) Have patient inhale through his mouth
C) Have patient inhale through his nose
D) Have patient use chest and shoulder muscles
Q2) The patient is wearing a simple wedding band that he cannot remove.He is scheduled for colon surgery.What should the nurse do before surgery is performed?
A) Get the ring cutter from the emergency department and cut the ring off
B) Call the physician and cancel the surgery
C) Tape the wedding ring in place
D) Call the physician for an order for extra antibiotics
Q3) How often is assessment of a patient in the PACU or recovery room documented?
A) Every 5 minutes
B) Every 15 minutes
C) Every 30 minutes
D) Hourly
Q4) The term _____________ is now used because it incorporates both DVT and PE.
Q5) The first phase of postoperative care takes place during the ____________period.
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ______________________ is a nurse with advanced education who assists the surgeon with the surgical procedure,performing a combination of nursing and delegated medical functions and/or skills.
Q2) Who of the following can assume the role of the scrub nurse/assistant? (Select all that apply.)
A) An RN
B) An LPN
C) A CST
D) A licensed nursing assistant
Q3) Which of the following are principles of sterile procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gowns are sterile from the chest and shoulder to table level
B) Sterile persons must keep hands in view and above the waist and below the neck
C) Sterile persons must fold arms across chest with hands tucked into axillary region
D) Unscrubbed persons must stay at least 6 inches away from the sterile field
Q4) The _______________ has been the traditional method for surgical asepsis.
Q5) If any question arises about the sterility of an item,the item is ___________.
Q6) The ______________ is an RN who is the charge nurse in the room.
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching about wound care in the home environment,the nurse instructs the patient and caregiver to:
A) Make normal saline with 8 tsp of salt and 1 gallon of distilled water
B) Use normal saline for 1 week and then discard it
C) Not apply topical anesthetics before wound care
D) Call the physician's office to have someone come to the home and complete the wound care
Q2) The physician reports that he is expecting that the patient's wound will have an output of close to 500 mL per day.The nurse anticipates the placement of which of the following?
A) A dry sterile dressing
B) A Jackson-Pratt (JP) drain
C) A Hemovac drain
D) No drain placement
Q3) The _____________ is composed of newly formed collagen,and the nurse can usually feel it along a healing wound.It is usually present directly under the suture line between days 5 and 9.
Q4) A partial-thickness wound (loss of tissue limited to epidermis and partial dermis)heals by the process of ______________.
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Chapter 39: Dressings,bandages,and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _________ bandage is a temporary treatment to control excessive bleeding.
Q2) For a patient with a transparent film dressing,the nurse assesses that there is white,opaque fluid accumulation and the surrounding tissue is inflamed.How should the nurse respond?
A) Culture the wound
B) Leave the current dressing in place
C) Apply gauze over the top of the dressing
D) Remove and stretch the film more tightly over the wound
Q3) ____________ dressings contain a shiny,nonadherent surface on one side that does not stick to the wound.Drainage passes through the nonadherent surface to the outer gauze dressing.
Q4) What should the nurse remember to do when applying a hydrocolloid dressing?
A) Apply granules after applying the wafer
B) Never use a secondary dressing
C) Hold the dressing in place
D) Use silk tape to hold the dressing in place
Q5) ______________ through a wound dressing is a reliable measure of the moisture retention capacity of the dressings.
Q6) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.
Q7) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.
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Chapter 40: Warm and Cold Therapy
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would require using caution in applying cold therapy?
A) Chronic pain
B) Joint trauma
C) Circulatory insufficiency
D) Sprains
Q2) The use of cold (cryotherapy)to treat certain injuries is beneficial because of which of the following effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Relieve pain
B) Decrease muscle spasm
C) Increase nerve conduction
D) Decrease edema
Q3) A new staff nurse is assigned to the unit.The charge nurse evaluates that the new staff member knows the proper use of the aquathermia pad when:
A)The temperature was set between 95° and 98° F
B)The water in the reservoir was allowed to run out
C)The pad was covered with a towel or a pillowcase
D)The patient was positioned to lie directly over the pad
Q4) A section of sterile or clean gauze moistened with a prescribed heated solution is known as a warm _________.
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Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching about medication use in the home,what instructions should the nurse provide to the patient?
A) Always keep insulin in the refrigerator
B) Put used needles in double paper bags
C) Put all of the medication to be taken in one bottle
D) Discard unused or expired medication in the toilet
Q2) Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of Alzheimer's disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Amnesia
B) Agnosia
C) Apraxia
D) Aphasia
E) None of above
Q3) Of what should the nurse remind the patient when discussing safety measures for the home environment?
A) Set the hot water heater to only 160° F
B) Turn on the cold water faucet first
C) Use small throw rugs on slippery wood floors
D) Put high-wattage bulbs into all lamps
Q4) ________________ is the most common form of dementia.
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Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the nurse teach the patient and caregiver to do when setting up and changing administration sets for continuous tube feedings to preserve medical asepsis?
A) Add formula to formula already hung to prevent waste
B) Store unused formula at room temperature to prevent spasm
C) Hang only enough formula that will be infused in a 4- to 6-hour period
D) Change the administration set every 48 hours
Q2) Of the following type of thermometers available,which is not recommended for home use?
A) Digital
B) Tympanic
C) Mercury
D) Disposable single-use
Q3) What is an appropriate technique to use when teaching an older patient about self-medication in the home?
A) Speak very loudly
B) Teach the family separately
C) Provide frequent pauses
D) Provide fewer but longer teaching sessions
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a venipuncture,the nurse should:
A) Inject with the needle at a 45-degree angle
B) Select a vein that is rigid and cord-like, and that rolls when palpated
C) Perform the needle insertion immediately after cleansing the skin with alcohol
D) Place the thumb of the nondominant hand about 1 inch below the site and pull the skin taut
Q2) What should the nurse do when a patient is required to provide a timed urine specimen?
A) Save all urine from the time that the test began
B) Leave the collection bottle on the floor near the patient's bed
C) Send notices along with the patient to have all urine saved and returned to the unit
D) Remove contaminants such as toilet paper from the urine before transferring it to the collection bottle
Q3) Which of the following is the site of choice for obtaining samples for ABG?
A) Radial artery
B) Brachial artery
C) Femoral artery
D) Popliteal artery
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Then explaining about a lumbar puncture,a nurse informs a patient that during the procedure he or she will be asked to:
A) Remain very still
B) Cough during the fluid aspiration
C) Change position
D) Breathe deeply during the needle insertion
Q2) The patient is a 56-year-old man who has terminal cirrhosis and severe ascites.He is lethargic,but demonstrating signs of discomfort and respiratory distress.The physician has spoken with the patient's wife and has obtained consent to perform an abdominal paracentesis on the patient.After the physician has left to prepare for the procedure,the wife asks the nurse if the procedure is really necessary.How should the nurse respond?
A) By saying this is the first step in the patient's recovery
B) By saying this may help the patient feel better
C) By saying this is needed to detect increased intracranial pressure
D) By saying this is needed to analyze pleural fluid
Q3) Interventions to prevent lumbar puncture (LP)headaches include adequate ____________ and fever control before the LP.Another effective intervention includes post procedure application of an epidural patch for pain management.
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