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The Basic Life Support (BLS) course provides foundational knowledge and hands-on training in the recognition of life-threatening emergencies, chest compressions, ventilation techniques, and the operation of an automated external defibrillator (AED). Students learn to assess and respond to cardiac arrest, respiratory distress, and other medical emergencies in both adult and pediatric patients. Emphasizing critical decision-making, teamwork, and effective communication, the course prepares participants to provide immediate care while awaiting advanced medical assistance, in accordance with current resuscitation guidelines.
Recommended Textbook ECGs Made Easy 6th Edition by Barbara J Aehlert
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Q1) Your patient is a 62-year-old woman complaining of a "racing heart." Your examination of the patient reveals a pulse rate of 192 beats/min. Briefly explain why recognition of a rapid heart rate is important when providing patient care.
Answer: Increases in heart rate shorten all phases of the cardiac cycle. The most important is that the time the heart spends relaxing is less. If the length of time for ventricular relaxation is shortened, there is less time for them to fill adequately with blood. If the ventricles do not have time to fill, the following occur: the amount of blood sent to the coronary arteries is reduced, the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricles will decrease (cardiac output), and signs of myocardial ischemia may be seen.
Q2) List two factors that may affect the heart's efficiency as a pump. Answer: Abnormalities of cardiac muscle, the valves, or the conduction system.
Q3) The right atrium receives blood low in oxygen from three vessels. Name them. Answer: Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus.
Q4) Blood pressure is the result of cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance. A)True B)False
Answer: TRUE
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Q1) List four major electrolytes that influence cardiac function. Answer: Sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride.
Q2) Element or compound that breaks into charged particles (ions) when melted or dissolved in water or another solvent.
A)Ventricular
B)Atrial
C)Repolarization
D)Augmented
E)Reciprocal changes
F)Indicative changes
G)Reentry
H)Ectopic
I)Positive
J)Amplitude
K)Voltmeter
L)Supranormal
M)Electrolyte

Answer: M
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Q1) In sinus arrhythmia, a gradual increasing of the heart rate is usually associated with
A) expiration
B) inspiration
C) excessive caffeine intake
D) early signs of heart failure
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following are possible causes of sinus bradycardia?
A) Elevated temperature, pain
B) Increased intracranial pressure, beta-blocker overdose
C) Hypoxia, fright, caffeine-containing beverages
D) Hypovolemia, administration of sympathomimetics
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following correctly reflects the ECG criteria for a sinus rhythm?
A) More P waves than QRS complexes
B) P waves that look alike and upright in lead II, one before each QRS complex
C) Irregular atrial and ventricular rhythm
D) PR interval exceeding 0.20 second
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multifocal atrial tachycardia is another name for atrial fibrillation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To determine whether the ventricular rhythm on an ECG tracing is regular or irregular, compare _____ intervals.
A) PR
B) R-R
C) TP
D) P to P
Q3) A wandering atrial pacemaker rhythm with a ventricular rate of 60 to 100/min may also be referred to as _____.
A) atrial flutter
B) atrial fibrillation
C) multifocal atrial tachycardia
D) multiformed atrial rhythm
Q4) A macroreentrant circuit is one that involves a small area of heart tissue, usually a few centimeters or less.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The usual rate of nonparoxysmal junctional tachycardia is _____ beats/min.
A) 50 to 80
B) 80 to 120
C) 101 to 140
D) 150 to 300
Q2) List four reasons why the AV junction may assume responsibility for pacing the heart.
Q3) An escape rhythm is initiated by a lower pacemaker site when the sinoatrial (SA) node slows or fails to initiate an impulse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a junctional rhythm viewed in lead II, where is the location of the P wave on the ECG if atrial depolarization precedes ventricular depolarization?
A) Before the QRS complex
B) During the QRS complex
C) After the QRS complex
Q5) A(n) _____ pause often follows a PJC and represents the delay during which the SA node resets its rhythm for the next beat.
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Q1) List four reasons when the ventricles may assume responsibility for pacing the heart.
Q2) How would you differentiate a junctional escape rhythm at 40 beats/min from a ventricular escape rhythm at the same rate?
A) It is impossible to differentiate a junctional escape rhythm from a ventricular escape rhythm.
B) The junctional escape rhythm will have a narrow-QRS complex; the ventricular escape rhythm will have a wide QRS complex.
C) The rate (40 beats/min) would indicate a junctional escape rhythm, not a ventricular escape rhythm.
D) The junctional escape rhythm will have a wide QRS complex; the ventricular escape rhythm will have a narrow-QRS complex.
Q3) List three potential sites of origin of ectopic beats.
Q4) An idioventricular (ventricular escape) rhythm has an intrinsic rate of 40 to 60 beats/min.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List four common causes of premature ventricular complexes.
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Q1) In third-degree AV block, _____.
A) the atrial rhythm (P-P interval) is irregular
B) the ventricular rhythm (R-R interval) is irregular
C) there is no PR interval because the atria and ventricles beat independently of each other
D) the PR interval after a nonconducted P wave is shorter than the interval preceding the nonconducted beat
Q2) Indicate the ECG criteria for the following dysrhythmias: \(\begin{array}{|l|l|l} & \begin{array}{l}
\text { Third-Degree AV } \\
\text { Block }
\end{array} & 2: 1 \text { AV Block } \\
\hline \text { Ventricular } & & \\
\hline \text { Rhythm } & & \\
\hline \text { PR interval } & & \\
\hline \text { QRS width } & & \end{array}\)
Q3) A _____ bundle branch block produces a RSR pattern in lead V<sub>1</sub>.
Q4) A _____ bundle branch block produces a QS pattern in lead V<sub>1</sub>.
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Q1) A(n) __________ is a vertical line on the ECG that indicates the artificial pacemaker has discharged.
Q2) In pacing, rate modulation refers to _____.
A) the ability of a pacemaker to recognize and respond to intrinsic electrical activity
B) the minimum level of electrical current needed to consistently depolarize the myocardium
C) the ability of a pacemaker to increase the pacing rate in response to physical activity or metabolic demand
D) a pacing lead with a single electrical pole at the distal tip of the pacing lead through which the stimulating pulse is delivered.
Q3) Your patient has a DDD pacemaker. Briefly explain the meaning of each of these letters.
Q4) The second letter of the pacemaker identification code represents _____.
A) programmable functions
B) the chamber sensed
C) the mode of response
D) the chamber paced
Q5) Describe what is meant by the term overdrive pacing.
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Q1) Which leads look at adjoining tissue in the inferior region of the left ventricle?
A) I, aVL
B) V1, V2
C) V3, V4, V5
D) II, III, aVF
Q2) Lead V<sub>5</sub> views the _____ wall of the left ventricle.
A) lateral
B) anterior
C) posterior
D) inferior
Q3) Normal electrical axis lies between _____ degrees.
A) -30 and +90
B) +90 and +180
C) -91 and -180
D) -1 and -90
Q4) Anterior or lateral wall myocardial infarctions are most often a result of an occlusion of the _____ coronary artery.
A) left
B) right
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Q1) Proper positioning of the electrodes for leads I, II, and III requires placement on the patient's torso.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The anterior surface of the heart consists primarily of the _____.
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle
Q3) Which of the following correctly describes multifocal atrial tachycardia?
A) The atrial rhythm is regular.
B) The ventricular rhythm is irregular.
C) The atrial and ventricular rhythms are regular.
D) The atrial and ventricular rhythms are irregular.
Q4) Which side of the heart is a high-pressure system that pumps arterial blood to the systemic circulation?
A) Left
B) Right
Q5) List five signs or symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
Q6) When is the term intraventricular conduction delay used?
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