Basic Human Biology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Basic Human Biology offers an introduction to the structure and function of the human body, focusing on the major organ systems and their interrelationships. The course covers foundational topics such as the cellular basis of life, genetics, metabolism, and the physiological processes that maintain homeostasis. Students will explore systems including the circulatory, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and musculoskeletal systems, gaining a clear understanding of how these systems contribute to overall health and function. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of human biology to everyday life, health, and disease prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Maders Understanding Human Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast positive and negative feedback mechanisms with regard to their general outcomes.
Answer: Whereas negative feedback is used to maintain a specific factor (e.g.body temperature)within an acceptable range,positive feedback is used to drive a process (e.g.childbirth)to completion.
Q2) The inflammation of the membranes of the posterior (dorsal)cavity is called A)serositis.
B)pleurisy.
C)meningitis.
D)pericarditis. Answer: C
Q3) Which type of cut or section will give right and left portions?
A)Sagittal
B)Transverse
C)Frontal
D)Coronal Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which subatomic particle determines the chemical activity of an atom?
A)Neutron
B)Proton
C)Electron
D)Prion
Answer: C
Q2) The lower the pH,
A)the lesser the hydrogen ion concentration.
B)the more acidic the solution.
C)the lesser the hydrogen ion concentration and the more acidic the solution.
D)the greater the hydroxide ion concentration.
E)the more basic the solution and the greater the hydroxide ion concentration.
Answer: B
Q3) Atoms bonded together to form a chemical unit are called A)molecules.
B)ions.
C)radioisotopes.
D)buffers.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chromosomes lining up randomly at the equator of the cell occurs during A)prophase.
B)metaphase.
C)anaphase.
D)telophase.
Answer: B
Q2) The reforming of the nuclear membrane around chromosomes occurs during A)prophase.
B)anaphase.
C)telophase.
D)metaphase.
Answer: C
Q3) The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called A)osmosis.
B)filtration. C)diffusion.
D)pumping.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Body Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any influence that causes a mutated cell to begin uncontrollable growth is called a(n)
A)initiator.
B)carcinogen.
C)promoter.
D)vasculizer.
Q2) Compare the three types of fibers found in connective tissue.
Q3) Which type of muscle tissue contains branched fibers?
A)Skeletal muscle
B)Smooth muscle
C)Cardiac muscle
D)Skeletal and cardiac muscles
Q4) What type of connective tissue is made of enlarged fibroblasts that are filled with fat,and provides insulation,padding,and energy storage?
A)Adipose tissue
B)Areolar connective tissue
C)Dense connective tissue
D)Aponeuroses
Q5) Compare the appearance of the three types of muscle tissue.
Q6) Why are carcinomas more common than other forms of cancer?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of gland is associated with hair follicles?
A)Sebaceous glands
B)Apocrine sweat glands
C)Eccrine sweat glands
D)Ceruminous glands
Q2) What happens to cells when they move from the epidermis to the surface of the skin?
A)They obtain more nutrients.
B)They divide more.
C)They die.
D)They become dermal cells.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a protective function of the skin?
A)Melanocytes protect from UV radiation.
B)As a covering,it keeps pathogens out.
C)The oily secretions allow bacteria to grow.
D)Langerhans cells phagocytize pathogens.
Q4) Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels AND nerve fibers?
A)Epidermis
B)Dermis
C)Epidermis and dermis
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The end of a long bone is the A)diaphysis.
B)periosteum.
C)shaft.
D)epiphysis.
Q2) What is the function of a tubercle on a bone?
A)Articulation with another bone
B)An opening for blood vessels
C)For muscle attachment
D)None apply.
Q3) What structure forms the "point" of the elbow?
A)Head of the ulna
B)Olecranon process
C)Head of the radius
D)Coronoid process
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a long bone?
A)Femur
B)Patella
C)Vertebra
D)Frontal bone
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Chapter 7: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage of a muscle twitch that occurs from the point of stimulation to the beginning of contraction is called the _____ period?
A)latent
B)lag
C)contraction
D)refractory
Q2) Exercise programs can improve
A)muscular strength.
B)muscular endurance.
C)flexibility.
D)All apply.
Q3) Which of the following obeys the all-or-none law?
A)The whole muscle
B)A muscle fiber
C)The whole muscle and a muscle fiber
Q4) What is ATP used for in the process of muscle contraction?
A)Pump calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)Power stroke of myosin cross-bridge
C)Release of myosin from actin
D)All apply.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A refractory period after an action potential has past will allow the impulse to go backwards.
A refractory period after an action potential has past will not allow the impulse to go backwards.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Within the peripheral nervous system,the myelin sheath is formed by A)Schwann cells.
B)oligodendrocytes.
C)microglial cells.
D)astrocytes.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct layering of the meninges from superficial to deep?
A)Dura mater,pia mater,arachnoid mater
B)Pia mater,dura mater,arachnoid mater
C)Dura mater,arachnoid mater,pia mater
D)Arachnoid mater,dura mater,pia mater
Q4) All spinal nerves are mixed nerves.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial rectus muscle
A)rolls the eye upward.
B)turns the eye outward,away from the midline.
C)turns the eye inward,toward the midline.
D)rotates the eye clockwise.
Q2) When a person suffers a heart attack they often experience pain in their left shoulder and arm.What is this called and why does it occur?
Q3) The function(s)of the ossicles in hearing is (are)
A)equalize pressure in the middle ear.
B)magnifiying the sound waves about 20 times.
C)transferring the sound waves to the fluid of the inner ear.
D)Both magnifiying the sound waves about 20 times and transferring the sound waves to the fluid of the inner ear.
Q4) Which of the following cutaneous receptors is NOT correctly matched with its stimulus?
A)Krause end bulbs - pressure
B)Free nerve endings - heat or cold
C)Pacinian corpuscles - fine touch
D)Ruffini endings - pressure
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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which endocrine gland produces the most hormones?
A)Posterior pituitary
B)Anterior pituitary
C)Thyroid gland
D)Adrenal gland
Q2) Both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism are problems of the elderly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an effect of the release of parathyroid hormone?
A)Release of calcium from bones
B)Increased reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys
C)Increased blood phosphate levels
D)Activation of vitamin D for increased intestinal absorption of calcium
Q4) Calcitonin
A)is produced by the thyroid gland.
B)is produced by the parathyroid gland.
C)lowers the metabolic rate.
D)is produced by the parathyroid gland and lowers the metabolic rate.
Q5) Compare peptide and steroid hormone action.
Q6) Explain what is meant by negative feedback in reference to hormone regulation.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelets generally have a very short life because they have no nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When could an Rh-negative person get antibodies to the Rh antigen?
A)at birth
B)when exposed to Rh antigen
C)an Rh-negative person will never get antibodies
Q3) Which type of leukocyte has granules that release histamine and heparin?
A)Neutrophil
B)Monocyte
C)Basophil
D)Lymphocyte
Q4) Agglutination of blood may occur if anti-B antibodies come into contact with B antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Oxyhemoglobin gives blood a dark maroon color.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare plasma,tissue fluid,and serum with regard to composition.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What valve is found between the left atrium and left ventricle?
A)pulmonary semilunar valve
B)tricuspid valve
C)bicuspid valve
D)aortic semilunar valve
Q2) The brachiocephalic artery goes to the A)head.
B)stomach.
C)leg.
D)head and arms.
Q3) How is the heart muscle nourished?
A)by blood in the left ventricle
B)by the coronary arteries
C)by the cardiac vein
D)by the carotid artery
Q4) Which are the strongest pumping chambers?
A)atria
B)ventricles
Q5) Trace the path of the blood from the right atrium to the lungs and then to the left ventricle.
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Chapter 13: The Lymphatic System and Body Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allergies are due to
A)an excess number of antigens.
B)not enough antibodies formed.
C)antibodies being produced for substances that ordinarily would do no harm to the body.
D)transplanted tissue.
Q2) Acid secretion occurs in the A)respiratory tract.
B)intestine.
C)stomach.
D)arteries.
Q3) A mother who had the measles as a child,has a baby.At the age of 1 month,the baby is exposed to measles but does not get sick.What kind of immunity does she have?
A)natural active
B)artificial active
C)natural passive
D)artificial passive
Q4) Differentiate between passive and active immunity.
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Chapter 14: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The windpipe is known as the A)voice box.
B)throat.
C)epiglottis.
D)trachea.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae?
A)provide an area for the olfactory receptors
B)increased surface area for moistening inhaled air
C)create turbulence to help clean the air
D)increase surface area to trap moisture from exhaled air
Q3) A secondary respiratory center is found in the _____ that helps ventilation to become smooth and rhythmic.
A)pons
B)midbrain
C)medulla oblongata
D)cerebellum
Q4) Tidal volume is
A)air remaining in lungs after very deep exhalation.
B)air moved in and out with each normal breath.
C)maximum volume of air moved in and out during a single deep breath.
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Chapter 15: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ absorbs water and produces some vitamins.
A)large intestine
B)stomach
C)esophagus
D)small intestine
E)mouth
Q2) The small intestine is so named because of its short length. The small intestine is so named because of its small diameter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which digestive secretion is correctly matched to its function?
A)gastrin - release of alkaline secretions from the pancreas
B)secretin - release of hydrochloric acid
C)cholecystokinin (CCK)- release of alkaline pancreatic juices and bile
D)GIP - decreased release of bile
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A)produces digestive enzymes
B)stores iron and fat-soluble vitamins
C)regulates the amount of cholesterol in the blood
D)removes poisonous and toxic substances from the blood
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Chapter 16: The Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances is normally NOT found in urine?
A)urea
B)ammonia
C)glucose
D)potassium
Q2) The process that moves substances from the blood into the kidney tubules to become part of the urine is
A)glomerular filtration.
B)tubular reabsorption.
C)tubular secretion.
Q3) Uric acid is a by-product of _____ metabolism.
A)glucose
B)nucleotide
C)amino acid
D)creatine phosphate
Q4) The average adult body is about _____ water by weight.
A)40 - 50 %
B)50 - 60%
C)60 - 70%
D)70 - 80%
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Chapter 17: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct order of events in the ovary?
A)ovulation,follicular phase,luteal phase
B)luteal phase,follicular phase,ovulation
C)follicular phase,ovulation,luteal phase
D)luteal phase,ovulation,follicular phase
Q2) The most important androgen is A)testosterone.
B)semen.
C)prostaglandins.
D)progesterone.
Q3) How many cell divisions occur in meiosis?
A)none
B)one
C)two
D)many
Q4) The uterus usually lies above and tipped over the urinary bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the structures of the seminal tract in the order that sperm would encounter them.
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Chapter 18: Human Development and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What important event does NOT occur in the second week of development?
A)the heart develops
B)the embryonic disk is formed.
C)implantation begins.
D)hCG is secreted to maintain the corpus luteum
Q2) The digestive,respiratory,and urinary systems of the fetus are nonfuctional.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a breech birth and why may it necessitate a cesarean section delivery?
Q4) The tissues of the gonads is indifferent until the production of A)estrogen.
B)progesterone.
C)semen.
D)testosterone.
Q5) Which is the last stage in pre-embryonic development?
A)blastocyst
B)cleavage
C)fertilization
D)morula
Q6) List the embryonic membranes and explain their functions.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monosomy could result from
A)an ovum of 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes.
B)an ovum of 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes.
C)an ovum of 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes.
D)None apply.
Q2) A human female body cell contains
A)46 chromosomes.
B)44 autosomes.
C)2 X chromosomes.
D)All apply.
Q3) Which of the following are alternate ways to introduce DNA into a cell (other than viruses)?
A)direct insertion of DNA
B)attachment to a liposome
C)attachment to the cell membrane
D)All apply.
Q4) The order of 99.9% of the base pairs of all people is exactly the same.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the steps involved in the construction of a karyotype.
21
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