Basic Health Assessment Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Basic Health Assessment is an introductory course that equips students with foundational skills to evaluate the overall health status of individuals across the lifespan. The course emphasizes the systematic collection and analysis of health data, including patient history, physical examination techniques, and the interpretation of findings. Students learn to perform assessments of major body systems, recognize normal and abnormal findings, and accurately document observations. Through lectures, demonstrations, and laboratory practice, students develop the competencies required for effective communication, clinical reasoning, and the formulation of basic nursing judgments relevant to patient care.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to the groin region?
A)Axillary
B)Lumbar
C)Cranial
D)Inguinal
Answer: D
Q2) Buccal,oral,and orbital are terms that refer to the structures in the A)neck.
B)head.
C)flank.
D)inguinal area.
Answer: B
Q3) Which word comes from the Greek word meaning "to dissect"?
A)Anatomy
B)Histology
C)Pathology
D)Physiology
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent?
A)Tincture
B)Alkaline
C)Acid
D)Aqueous
Answer: A
Q2) What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45?
A)The pH will be higher than 7.45.
B)The solution will become more alkaline.
C)The [H<sup>+</sup>] of the solution will increase.
D)The pH will be higher than 8.0.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is true of an anion?
A)An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes.
B)An anion always has an atomic mass of 15.
C)An anion carries a negative charge.
D)A hydrogen ion is an anion.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma proteins determine
A)plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure.
B)capillary filtration pressure.
C)the rate of diffusion out of the capillary.
D)the size of the capillary pores.
Answer: A
Q2) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase
A)are stages of cytokinesis.
B)occur during G .
C)are concerned with the synthesis of DNA and the doubling of the chromosomes.
D)are stages of mitosis.
Answer: D
Q3) The first gap phase (G ),second gap phase (G ),and synthesis phase (S)
A)occur during interphase.
B)include prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase.
C)are stages of mitosis.
D)All of the above are true.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs first?
A)Reading the mRNA code by tRNA
B)mRNA leaves the nucleus through the nuclear pores
C)Transcription
D)Translation
Q2) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is measured as the "blood sugar"?
A)Glycerol
B)Glycogen
C)Glucose
D)Lactose
Q3) A strand of DNA reads ATTCGCAGG.A strand of mRNA reads A)TAGGCGTCC.
B)UUGGCGCUC.
C)UTTCGCTCC.
D)UAAGCGUCC.
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The puerperal fever described by Dr.Semmelweiss is best described as
A)a localized infection.
B)age-related degenerative disease.
C)nosocomial infection.
D)pandemic.
Q2) Bacteria
A)include cocci,bacilli,and curved rods.
B)are not part of the normal flora of the intestines.
C)cause mycotic infections.
D)include mold and yeast.
Q3) Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum?
A)Causes syphilis
B)Classified as a bacterium
C)Is most often spread by the fecal-oral route
D)Is a spirochete
Q4) Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her A)urine (kidneys).
B)respiratory secretions (lungs).
C)nasal secretions (nose).
D)bile (gallbladder).
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fascia and capsular tissue are most similar to A)tendons and ligaments.
B)fat.
C)epithelial lining of the alveoli.
D)bone.
Q2) Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body?
A)Serous membrane
B)Synovial membrane
C)Mucous membrane
D)Meninges
Q3) Which of the following is most descriptive of tendons,ligaments,fascia,and capsules?
A)Designed for rapid diffusion of O and CO
B)Hormone secreting
C)Tough,dense,fibrous,connective
D)Cells form large sheets resembling floor tiles
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8
Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?
A)Shivering
B)Vasoconstriction
C)Cyanosis
D)Vasodilation
Q2) Sudoriferous glands
A)are sweat glands.
B)participate in temperature regulation.
C)include the eccrine and apocrine glands.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Which of the following is associated with tanning?
A)Sudoriferous glands
B)Apocrine glands
C)Arrector pili muscles
D)Melanocytes
Q4) Melanocytes
A)secrete a tanning pigment in response to exposure to sunlight.
B)secrete bilirubin and cause jaundice.
C)are located only in the external ear and secrete cerumen.
D)secrete carotene,giving the skin a yellow tint.
9
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most descriptive of the calcaneus?
A)Pollex
B)Phalange
C)Hand
D)Tarsal bone
Q2) The lateral malleolus
A)articulates with the proximal tibia.
B)articulates with the medial malleolus.
C)is a process on the distal tibia.
D)is a process on the distal fibula.
Q3) What is it called: The person moves his left thigh away from the midline of the body?
A)Abduction
B)Flexion
C)Plantar flexion
D)Inversion
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This muscle group has four muscles: two oblique,one rectus,and one transverse.
A)Quadriceps femoris
B)Hamstrings
C)Adductors
D)Abdominal
Q2) The purpose of myoglobin is to
A)store oxygen.
B)sequester calcium.
C)convert lactic acid to glucose.
D)make the muscle red.
Q3) This large anterior chest muscle inserts on the anterior humerus and has its origins on the clavicle,upper ribs,and sternum.It allows a person to point toward an object directly in front of him.
A)Sternocleidomastoid
B)Deltoid
C)Erector spinae
D)Pectoralis major
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures bring information toward the cell body?
A)Dendrites
B)Axons
C)Nodes of Ranvier
D)Axon terminals
Q2) The primary somatosensory area and the primary motor area are separated by
A)Broca's area.
B)the central sulcus.
C)the pia mater.
D)the longitudinal fissure.
Q3) Antiemetic drugs
A)dissolve any blood clots in the vomiting center.
B)can affect the vomiting center and CTZ to relieve nausea and vomiting.
C)induce vomiting in a person who ingests poison.
D)reverse narcotic-induced respiratory depression.
Q4) Which branching structures carry information toward the cell body of a neuron?
A)Synapses
B)Axons
C)Dendrites
D)Nodes of Ranvier
12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral
Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is located within the spinal cavity?
A)Cauda equina
B)Cervical plexus
C)Brachial plexus
D)Vagus nerve
Q2) The tenth cranial nerve,the _____ nerve,"wanders" outside the head area and innervates the heart and gastrointestinal systems.
A)trigeminal
B)vagus
C)olfactory
D)spinal accessory
Q3) The dermatome is most related to which of the following?
A)Cranial nerves
B)Lumbar puncture
C)Spinal nerve distribution
D)The autonomic nervous system
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of thoracolumbar outflow?
A)Fight or flight
B)Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
C)Sympathetic nervous system
D)Paravertebral ganglia
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A)Fight-or-flight response
B)Thoracolumbar
C)Paravertebral ganglia
D)Postganglionic fiber is cholinergic
Q3) Which of the following is most related to the postganglionic sympathetics?
A)Muscarinic receptors
B)ACh
C)Alpha and beta receptor activation
D)Craniosacral outflow
Q4) What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow?
A)Vagal discharge
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Sympathetic nervous system
D)Limbic system
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The optic nerve
A)receives sensory information from mechanoreceptors.
B)transmits sensory information to the temporal lobe.
C)is cranial nerve III.
D)receives sensory information from the retina.
Q2) What is the effect of contraction and relaxation of the ciliary muscle?
A)Dilated pupil
B)Change in the shape of the lens
C)Raised eyelid
D)Blinking
Q3) The vitreous humor
A)is found in the anterior cavity of the eyeball.
B)is drained through the canal of Schlemm.
C)gently pushes the retina against the vascular choroid.
D)circulates from the posterior cavity into the anterior cavity through the pupil.
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15
Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of both prolactin and oxytocin? Both
A)are concerned with lactation.
B)are secreted by the adenohypophysis.
C)stimulate the mammary glands to make milk.
D)are concerned only with lactation.
Q2) Which gland secretes two hormones,one that elevates blood glucose levels and another that decreases blood glucose levels?
A)Pancreas
B)Adenohypophysis
C)Thyroid
D)Adrenal cortex
Q3) Obesity
A)antagonizes insulin.
B)elevates blood glucose levels.
C)increases blood pressure.
D)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of blood?
A)The average man has 4 to 6 L of blood.
B)The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45.
C)Oxygenated blood is redder than unoxygenated blood.
D)Water is three to five times more viscous than blood.
Q2) Which of the following does the prothrombin time measure?
A)The amount of oxygen in the blood
B)Clotting activity of the blood
C)Bone marrow activity
D)The degree or intensity of jaundice
Q3) What is the name of the condition caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?
A)Leukopenia
B)Anemia
C)Jaundice
D)Kernicterus
Q4) Which of the following best describes prothrombin and fibrinogen?
A)Thrombolytic agents
B)Anticoagulants
C)Clotting factors
D)Plasminogen activators
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the hardest working cardiac chamber and therefore has the thickest myocardium?
A)Right atrium
B)Right ventricle
C)Left atrium
D)Left ventricle
Q2) The mitral and the bicuspid valves
A)are semilunar valves.
B)are both located on the right side of the heart.
C)"see" only unoxygenated blood.
D)are the same valves.
Q3) The epicardium is a layer of the
A)myocardium.
B)diaphragm.
C)pericardium.
D)endocardium.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under what condition is end-diastolic volume (EDV) most likely to increase while ejection fraction decreases?
A)Exercise
B)Sympathetic nerve stimulation
C)(+) Inotropic response
D)Heart failure
Q2) A very anxious person appears in the ER.He has a heart rate of 160 beats/min and indicates that he has a history of panic attacks.He is prescribed an antianxiety agent and a drug to slow his heart rate.Identify the drug (to slow heart rate).
A)Muscarinic antagonist
B)Beta -adrenergic blocker
C)Sympathomimetic
D)Vagolytic
Q3) Decreased blood flow through the coronary arteries is most likely to cause A)valve damage.
B)pulmonary edema.
C)angina pectoris.
D)bradycardia.
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19
Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of both the aortic arch and the right brachiocephalic arteries? Both
A)arise from the coronary arteries.
B)deliver their contents to the jugulars.
C)receive oxygenated blood from the circle of Willis.
D)give rise to the left and right common carotid arteries.
Q2) Which of the following should be colored blue?
A)Umbilical vein
B)Jugulars
C)Celiac trunk
D)Pulmonary veins
Q3) An occlusion of this blood vessel is most apt to cause difficulties in cognition.
A)Common carotid artery
B)Portal vein
C)Subclavian artery
D)Median cubital vein
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Capillary pressure is a reflection of A)plasma proteins.
B)albumin.
C)lymph.
D)blood pressure.
Q2) Why does blood flow from the arterial side of the circulation to the venous side of the circulation?
A)Capillary pressure is higher than the pressure within the large arteries and veins.
B)The oncotic pressure in the venous side of the circulation is greater than the oncotic pressure on the venous side of the circulation.
C)The pressure on the arterial side of the circulation is higher than the pressure on the venous side of the circulation.
D)Blood volume is greater on the arterial side of the circulation than on the venous side of the circulation.
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thymosin
A)is a hormone.
B)is the fluid within the lymph nodes.
C)is secreted by all lymph nodes.
D)plays no known role.
Q2) The spleen
A)removes worn-out blood cells from circulation.
B)is avascular.
C)is located in the RUQ.
D)secretes splenic hormones that control the entire lymphoid system.
Q3) A person has a severe streptococcal pharyngitis (sore throat).He is most likely to develop
A)hypertrophied thymus gland.
B)cervical lymphoma.
C)enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
D)painful cervical lymph nodes.
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stimulates memory cells to produce antibody-secreting plasma cells?
A)An antitoxin
B)A booster shot
C)Gamma globulin
D)Antivenom
Q2) The plasma cells
A)are part of the T cell clone.
B)secrete antibodies.
C)are considered nonspecific immunity.
D)are the same as memory B cells.
Q3) The purpose of vaccination is to provide an initial exposure to an antigen to stimulate the formation of
A)killer T cells.
B)complement.
C)anaphylaxis.
D)memory cells.
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pleural membranes
A)line the respiratory passages.
B)form the bronchioles.
C)are serous membranes.
D)are confined to the mediastinum.
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause hypoxemia?
A)Kussmaul respirations
B)Hyperventilation
C)Medullary depression
D)Brain stem stimulation
Q3) Which of the following structures is located both in the thoracic cavity and mediastinum but not in the pleural cavities?
A)Lungs
B)Heart
C)Alveoli
D)Bronchioles
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chyle is found in the
A)portal vein.
B)stomach.
C)lacteals.
D)pancreas.
Q2) Deglutition refers to
A)chewing.
B)peristalsis.
C)swallowing.
D)burping.
Q3) Which of the following does not communicate with the common bile duct?
A)Cystic duct
B)Duodenum
C)Portal vein
D)Hepatic duct
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to cause ascites and esophageal varices?
A)Common bile duct obstruction
B)Gallstones
C)Stenosis of the pyloric valve
D)Increased portal vein pressure
25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albuminuria is most indicative of
A)an enlarged pore size of the collecting duct membrane.
B)urinary incontinence.
C)increased pore size of the glomeruli
D)a deficiency of ADH and/or aldosterone.
Q2) The urinary tract is lined with
A)serous membrane.
B)the renal capsule.
C)mucous membrane.
D)tubular epithelium.
Q3) Renin
A)is a hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
B)is called converting enzyme.
C)activates angiotensinogen.
D)Two of the above are true.
Q4) Which of the following structures is considered "plumbing"?
A)Collecting duct
B)Ureter
C)Glomerulus
D)Two of the above are true.
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following anions buffers H ?
A)Ca² +
B)HCO -
C)Na+
D)K+
Q2) Hyperkalemia
A)refers to an elevated serum calcium level.
B)generally develops in response to declining renal function.
C)is often caused by a kaliuretic diuretic.
D)is caused by excess aldosterone.
Q3) More than 99% of which cation is stored in the bones and teeth?
A)Potassium
B)Hydrogen
C)Chloride
D)Calcium
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output exceeds intake?
A)Diuresis
B)Polyuria
C)Hematuria
D)Dehydration
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Semen
A)is formed and stored within the scrotum.
B)contains only testosterone.
C)means seed.
D)is made and stored within the prostate gland.
Q2) Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary?
A)Corpus luteum
B)Graafian follicle
C)Fertilized ovum
D)Corpus albicans
Q3) Estrogen and progesterone are A)gonadotropins.
B)secreted by the trophoblastic cells as they implant in the uterine wall.
C)secreted by the ovaries.
D)hormonal stimuli for the release of FSH and LH.
Q4) An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone
A)stimulates the release of gonadotropins.
B)prevents the release of FSH and LH.
C)transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.
D)causes menstruation.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) From week 3 to week 8,the baby-to-be is called a(n)
A)zygote.
B)morula.
C)fetus.
D)embryo.
Q2) Which word refers to milk production by the mammary glands?
A)Implantation
B)Parturition
C)Lactation
D)Quickening
Q3) Which of these hormones is released in response to suckling and activation of the hypothalamus and neurohypophysis?
A)Progesterone
B)Estrogen
C)Oxytocin
D)Prolactin
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