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Basic Concepts in Physical Science Exam Questions - 2616 Verified Questions

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Basic Concepts in Physical Science

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course offers an introduction to the foundational principles of physical science, encompassing key concepts from physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy. Students will explore topics such as matter and its properties, energy and motion, atomic structure, the periodic table, chemical reactions, and the universes structure. Through lectures, demonstrations, and experiments, the course emphasizes scientific reasoning, problem-solving skills, and the application of scientific methods to real-world scenarios, providing a broad understanding of the natural phenomena that shape our physical world.

Recommended Textbook

An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman

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20 Chapters

2616 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Temperature and Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cubic centimeter of pure water at maximum density has a mass of

A) 1 g.

B) 1 kg.

C) 1 cg.

D) 1 lb.

E) none of these

Answer: A

Q2) An object's ______________would be the same on Earth and on the Moon, but its weight would be different.

Answer: mass

Q3) The standard unit of mass in the mks system is the A) meter

B) kilogram

C) pound

D) second

E) gram

Answer: B

Q4) The metric system is a(n)____________ system. Answer: decimal, or base-10

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Chapter 2: Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the instantaneous velocity of an object is constant, then so is its

A) velocity.

B) distance.

C) acceleration.

D) displacement.

Answer: A

Q2) A golfer hits a ball on a level fairway at an angle of 55° relative to the horizontal, and it lands on the green. Another golfer hits a ball with the same speed but at another angle, and it lands on the green by the other ball. What was the launch angle for the second golfer?

A) 35°

B) 25°

C) 40°

D) 45°

E) 15°

Answer: A

Q3) An ant on a picnic table travels 30 cm eastward, then 15 cm northward, then 20 cm westward, and finally 15 cm southward. What is the magnitude of its net displacement?

Answer: 10 cm

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Chapter 3: Optics and Wave Effects

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jet propulsion can be explained in terms of Newton's third law and the ______________.

Answer: conservation of momentum

Q2) An apple weighs approximately one ______________.

Answer: newton (N)

Q3) In Newton's law of universal gravitation, F = Gm<sub>1</sub>m<sub>2</sub>/r<sup>2</sup> for uniform objects, the quantity r is______________.

Answer: the distance between the centers of m<sub>1</sub> and m<sub>2</sub>

Q4) The speed of a comet in its orbit around the Sun is ______________ when its distance from the Sun is greatest (aphelion).

A) zero

B) reversed C) greatest

D) least

Answer: D

Q5) An unbalanced force of 30 N is applied to a mass of 5.0 kg. What will be the resulting acceleration?

Answer: 0 m/s<sup>2</sup> (in the direction of the force)

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Chapter 4: Electricity and Magnetism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Although the United States has less than 5% of the world's population, it accounts for approximately ______________ of the world's annual consumption of fossil fuels.

A) 15%

B) 25%

C) 35%

D) 45%

Q2) Work in the amount of 280 J is done in lifting an object a distance of 4.0 m in a time of 7.0 s.a. How much force did it take to lift the object?

b. What was the power input?

Q3) Car B is traveling twice as fast as car A, but car A has twice the mass of car B. Which car has the greater kinetic energy and by what factor is it greater?

Q4) The energy of position is called A) potential energy. B) power.

C) kinetic energy. D) heat.

Q5) A horsepower is a unit of power equal to 550 ______________.

Q6) The SI unit of power is the ______________.

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Chapter 5: Atomic Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Heat transfer that involves mass movement is A) temperature.

B) conduction.

C) convection.

D) radiation.

Q2) ______________ is the process whereby energetic molecules escape from a liquid.

Q3) The average kinetic energy of the molecules in a gas is a measure of A) volume.

B) density.

C) temperature.

D) heat content.

Q4) On a winter day the temperature drops from -5°C to -15°C overnight. If a pan sitting outside contains 0.40 kg of ice, how much heat is removed from the ice for this temperature change?

Q5) If the temperature of a quantity of ideal gas increases, then A) the number of molecules must increase.

B) the pressure must increase. C) the volume must increase.

D) the product of the pressure and volume must increase.

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Q6) The Fahrenheit scale has a ___________ degree size than the Celsius scale.

Chapter 6: Nuclear Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sounds with frequencies higher than the human ear can detect are in the ______________ range.

Q2) The Doppler effect is observed only when

A) the source of a wave moves toward a stationary observer.

B) there is relative motion between the source of a wave and an observer.

C) an observer moves toward the stationary source of a wave.

D) both the source of a wave and an observer are moving toward each other.

Q3) Wave velocity is inversely proportional to A) period.

B) wavelength.

C) amplitude.

D) all of these.

Q4) A series of ocean waves, each 12.0 m from crest to crest and moving past an observer at a rate of 6.0 waves per second, has what speed?

A) 72 m/s

B) 2 m/s

C) 6 m/s

D) 0.5 m/s

Q5) The relationship of wave speed, wavelength, and frequency is given by ______________.

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Chapter 7: The Chemical Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) The angles of incidence and reflection

A) are not related.

B) can never be equal.

C) are measured from a normal to the reflecting surface. D) add to 90°.

Q2) The least diffraction occurs for

A) \(\lambda\) < d.

B) \(\lambda\) = d.

C) \(\lambda\) > d.

D) none of these; that is, it makes no difference.

Q3) When light enters a denser medium, the speed of the light ______________.

Q4) ______________ waves cannot be polarized.

Q5) A diamond is said to have "fire" because of ______________.

Q6) Light for which the electric field vector is restricted to one plane is said to be A) linearly polarized.

B) linearly refracted. C) linearly reflected.

D) unpolarized.

Q7) The image of a convex mirror is always virtual, _________, and smaller.

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Chapter 8: Chemical Bonding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Earth's magnetic field

A) results from a huge bar magnet within the planet.

B) is believed to arise from currents within the planet's core.

C) is always parallel to the planet's surface.

D) is always in the same direction.

Q2) The expression V = IR is called ______________.

Q3) The angle between true north and the direction in which a compass needle points is called the angle of A) attack.

B) inclination.

C) declination.

D) dip.

Q4) For an ohmic conductor, current is

A) inversely proportional to voltage.

B) inversely proportional to resistance.

C) independent of resistance.

D) independent of voltage.

Q5) If two protons are moved 3 times closer together, the electrical force between them is what factor of the original force?

10

Q6) Two oppositely charged particles ______________ one another.

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Chapter 9: Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the energy E<sub>n</sub><sub>, </sub>in electron volts, of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 6.

Q2) Calculate the frequency in hertz of photons of light with energy of 9.90 \(\times\)10<sup>-19 </sup>J.

A) 0.67 \(\times\) 10<sup>14</sup> Hz

B) 0.67 \(\times\) 10<sup>15</sup> Hz

C) 1.49 \(\times\) 10<sup>15</sup> Hz

D) 1.49 \(\times\) 10<sup>14</sup> Hz

Q3) Calculate the frequency, in hertz, of photons of light with energy of 2.00 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>J.

Q4) The most modern model of the atom is known as the ______________ model.

Q5) With which object would the wave nature of matter be significant?

A) A hard-thrown baseball

B) A speeding truck

C) A moving electron

D) An orbiting planet

Q6) A CD player uses a laser whose light frequency is 3.85 \(\times\)10<sup>14 </sup>Hz. Calculate the energy, in joules, of the photons.

Q7) When an electron is added to an atom, a(n) _______________ ion is formed.

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Chapter 10: Organic Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of atom is the standard on which the atomic mass scale is based?

A) <sup>12</sup>C

B) <sup>16</sup>O

C) <sup>1</sup>H

D) <sup>56</sup>Fe

Q2) What is the symbol for the element whose atoms have 40 electrons each?

A) Ge

B) Zr

C) Ar

D) None of these

Q3) Which of the following types of radiation has the least ability to penetrate matter?

A) Alpha particles

B) Gamma rays

C) X-rays

D) Beta particles

Q4) The common unit of radiation absorbed dosage is the ______________.

Q5) If a radionuclide has a half-life of 8 h, ______________ half-lives would go by during 40 h.

Q6) A scientist named ______________ discovered the neutron in 1932.

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Chapter 11: Place and Time

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Sample Questions

Q1) The chemical properties of calcium and strontium are similar because both A) are located on the left side the periodic table.

B) are in the same group.

C) have four electrons in the first shell.

D) are in the same period.

Q2) Which is the formula for baking soda?

A) NaHCO<sub>3</sub>

B) NaOH

C) (NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2 </sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

D) HC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

Q3) Two or more forms of the same element that have different bonding structures in the same physical phase are called A) isobars. B) allotropes.

C) isotopes.

D) isomers.

Q4) The electrons in the outermost shell are called ______________ electrons.

Q5) The pale-green, gaseous element named ______________ was used as a poisonous gas in World War I.

Page 13

Q6) The molecular formula of "buckyball" is ______________.

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Chapter 13: The Solar System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a strong acid?

A) Citric acid

B) Nitric acid

C) Phosphoric acid

D) Acetic acid

Q2) A solution with a pH of 6 is

A) strongly acidic.

B) weakly basic.

C) strongly basic.

D) weakly acidic.

Q3) The rate of a chemical reaction would be decreased by

A) stirring the reactants.

B) increasing the concentration of the reactants.

C) adding a catalyst to the reactants.

D) cooling the reactants.

Q4) Which of the following is a weak acid?

A) Hydrochloric acid

B) Nitric acid

C) Sulfuric acid

D) Acetic acid

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Chapter 15: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies

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Sample Questions

Q1) The parallel that is a great circle is the ______________.

Q2) When one travels east while passing over the International Date Line, A) the date is decreased one day.

B) the time is decreased one hour.

C) the time is advanced one hour.

D) the date is advanced one day.

E) none of these occurs.

Q3) ______________ is defined as the angular measurement, in degrees, east or west of the reference meridian.

Q4) The imaginary line encircling Earth at its surface, halfway between the north and south geographic poles, is called the A) meridian.

B) equator.

C) International Date Line.

D) longitude.

E) latitude.

Q5) A two-dimensional coordinate system is called a(n) ______________ coordinate system.

Q6) A time zone is theoretically ______________° wide.

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Q7) Some people mistakenly call noon and midnight ______________ and

Chapter 16: The Universe

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Sample Questions

Q1) At present, the formation of the solar system is believed by most astronomers to have begun with a large, swirling volume of cold gas and dust called the ______________ nebula.

A) condensation

B) primordial

C) accretion

D) celestial

Q2) Which of the following planets can be in opposition?

A) Mercury

B) Venus

C) Earth

D) Saturn

Q3) The planet Mercury

A) has retrograde motion.

B) is the closest planet to Venus.

C) is the smallest of the terrestrial planets.

D) has a uniquely circular orbit.

Q4) In 1851, Earth's rotation was demonstrated using a(n) ______________.

Q5) The Earth-centered model of the solar system is called the ______________ model.

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Q6) The solar system model of Copernicus is known as the ______________ model.

Chapter 17: The Atmosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Someone on the far side of the Moon would observe Earth rise once every A) 24 hours.

B) 24 hours and 50 minutes.

C) 29.5 Earth days.

D) None of these, the observer would never see Earth rise.

Q2) Solar system space is occupied by very small, solid particles that are called ______________.

Q3) The impact of meteorites on the Moon has caused

A) craters only.

B) rays only.

C) rills only.

D) both rays and craters.

Q4) The largest impact features on the surface of the Moon are the ______________ basins.

Q5) Which planet has the second largest moon in the solar system?

A) Jupiter

B) Saturn

C) Uranus

D) Neptune

Q6) The Moon's maria, or plains, are believed to have been caused by

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Chapter 19: Atmospheric Effects

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Sample Questions

Q1) The velocity-dependent force that produces air motion and is associated with Earth's rotation is called the ______________.

Q2) For normal household temperatures, a comfortable relative humidity is

A) 100%

B) 0%

C) 25%

D) 50%

Q3) An altocumulus cloud belongs to which cloud family?

A) Low

B) Clouds of vertical development

C) High

D) Middle

Q4) At 1800 degrees Fahrenheit, this part of atmosphere is heated almost directly by the Sun's rays.

A) Stratosphere

B) Troposphere

C) Mesosphere

D) Thermosphere

Q5) The relative humidity is 100% at the ______________ temperature.

Q6) Relative humidity is measured with a(n) ______________.

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Chapter 21: Structural Geology and Plate Tectonics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The plastic-like substratum on which the lithospheric plates move is called the A) outer core.

B) endosphere.

C) isosphere.

D) asthenosphere.

Q2) Large fractures in Earth's surface that are associated with movement of lithospheric plates are called ______________.

Q3) The lithosphere "floats" on the asthenosphere, and the parts of lower density float higher. This state of buoyancy is called A) specific continuity.

B) isostasy.

C) the syncline anomaly.

D) remanent balance.

Q4) Transverse seismic body waves are known by the letter ______________.

Q5) The Appalachian Mountains in the eastern United States are examples of ______________ mountains.

Q6) S seismic waves can travel only through ______________ material.

Q7) A(n) ______________ fault occurs as the result of compressional forces.

Q8) Wyoming's Grand Tetons are examples of ______________ mountains.

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Chapter 22: Minerals Rocks and Volcanoes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Intrusive igneous rock formations that cut more or less vertically across older formations are said to be ______________.

A) recordant

B) discordant

C) concordant

D) precordant

Q2) The deflection of one lithospheric plate beneath another plate with which it is colliding is called

A) subduction.

B) superposition.

C) cross-cutting.

D) plutonic movement.

Q3) Particles of sand, mud, and rock fragments deposited along rivers, in lakes, and on the seafloors are called by the general term _____________.

Q4) The Columbia Plateau in the northwestern United States is an example of a(n) A) flood basalt.

B) batholith.

C) monolith.

D) sill.

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Chapter 23: Surface Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Any flow of water occurring between well-defined banks is defined by geologists as A) a stream.

B) a meander.

C) a lake.

D) none of these.

Q2) Which of the following phenomena results from limestone being dissolved by rainwater?

A) Caverns

B) Delta formation

C) Sea arches

D) Beaches

Q3) After the Pacific and Atlantic oceans, the next largest ocean on Earth is which ocean?

A) Arctic

B) Indian

C) Antarctic

D) Mediterranean

Q4) The measure of a material's capacity to transmit fluids is called the material's

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Chapter 24: Geologic Time

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Sample Questions

Q1) Archaeopteryx fossils are those of a prehistoric

A) bird.

B) crinoid.

C) trilobite.

D) ground sloth.

Q2) Which epoch is also called the Ice Ages?

A) Permian

B) Holocene

C) Pleistocene

D) Cretaceous

Q3) New material filling a mold forms a ______________ of the original shell or bone.

A) cast

B) mold

C) hole

D) groove

Q4) The largest units of geologic time are called ______________.

Q5) The term age of ancient life is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.

Q6) The term age of reptiles is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.

Page 22

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