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Basic Chemistry is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of chemistry, including atomic structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, and the properties of solutions. Students will learn about the periodic table, chemical reactions, acids and bases, and basic laboratory techniques. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills and understanding the practical applications of chemistry in everyday life. This course provides a foundational knowledge base for further studies in chemistry and related scientific disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Introductory Chemistry 4th Edition by Steve Russo
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Q1) An atom is the smallest possible single piece of an element that still retains all the properties of that element.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is the name given to the element with the symbol "As"?
A)silver
B)argon
C)antimony
D)arsenic
E)astatine
Answer: D
Q3) The earth, taken together as a unit, may be considered one very large piece of heterogeneous matter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is coldest temperature?
A)-40 °C
B)-40 °F
C)210 K
D)All of the above are the same.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following correctly converts 0.000001546 mi in scientific notation?
A)1.546 × 10<sup>6</sup> mi
B)1.546 × 10<sup>5</sup> mi
C)1.546 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> mi
D)1.546 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>6</sup> mi
Answer: D
Q3) Which is the SI unit for mass?
A)kilogram
B)pound
C)gram
D)ounce
Answer: A
Q4) Convert 302 cubic inches to liters (1 inch = 2.54 centimeters).
Answer: 4.95 L

4
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Q1) Which of the following is not a main group element?
A)S
B)As
C)Cu
D)Xe
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following has the lowest ionization energy?
A)F
B)P
C)Ca
D)Cs
Answer: D
Q3) Which element, isotope, or ion listed below contains 16 protons, 17 neutrons, and 18 electrons?
A)(<sup>33</sup>Ar<sup>2-</sup>)
B)(<sup>33</sup>S<sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>)
C)(<sup>33</sup>Cl)
D)(<sup>34</sup>S<sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>)
Answer: B
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Q1) The element is defined by its atomic number.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both the energy and the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are related by the constants c, the speed of light, and Planck's constant, h.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The correct shortcut for writing the electronic configuration of Sr is [Ar]4s<sup>2</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The atomic radius can be calculated by x-ray diffraction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which s orbital is the largest?
A)1s
B)2s
C)-2s
D)-1s
Q6) Which element is the more reactive, sodium (Na)or potassium (K)?
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the number of single bonds in C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
Q2) Which of the following anions has the largest number of oxygen atoms and at the same time has the most negative charge?
A)carbonate
B)phosphate
C)permanganate
D)chromate
Q3) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a -2 charge?
A)ammonium
B)carbonate
C)dihydrogen phosphate
D)acetate
Q4) There are twice as many oxygen as hydrogen atoms in the dihydrogen phosphate anion.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the steric number of the central atom in CH<sub>4</sub>?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) Which compound listed below has a bond angle of 180° around the central atom?
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)CC1<sub>4</sub>
D)NH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) CHC1<sub>3</sub>
Q4) NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q5) The angle around carbon in hydrogen cyanide is ________.
A)105°
B)109°
C)120°
D)180°
Q6) CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup>
Q7) SCN<sup>-</sup>
Q8) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
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Sample Questions
Q1) The freezing point of dry ice is 0 °C.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The terms "dispersion forces" and "London forces" are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does not sublime?
A)mothballs
B)iodine crystals
C)salt
D)dry ice
Q4) The acetone molecule has a large dipole because of the electronegativity difference between carbon and oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) chromium, Cr
Q6) iodine, I<sub>2</sub>
Q7) silicon carbide, SiC, m.p.: 2700 °C
Q9) ethanol, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O, m.p.: -117 °C Page 9
Q8) magnesium chloride, MgC1<sub>2</sub>, m.p.: 714 °C
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Sample Questions
Q1) All hydroxides are water insoluble
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following reactions is a single replacement reaction?
A)HCl + NaOH NaCl + H<sub>2</sub>O
B)Mg + HCl H<sub>2</sub> + MgCl<sub>2</sub>
C)CaCl<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O CaCl<sub>2</sub> 2H<sub>2</sub>O
D)KClO<sub>3</sub> KCl + O<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following equations is not a single replacement reaction?
A)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> + Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> H<sub>2</sub>O + MgSO<sub>4</sub>
B)Zn + HCl H<sub>2</sub> + ZnCl<sub>2</sub>
C)Al + Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> + Fe
D)Na + H<sub>2</sub>O NaOH + H<sub>2</sub>
Q4) One needs to balance a chemical reaction before identifying the type of reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following % compositions does not correspond to one of the elements of C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>4</sub>?
A)4%
B)26%
C)36%
D)60%
Q2) What is the % yield if 52 g ammonia produce 45 g NO?
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)18%
Q3) The balanced equation involves the corresponding coefficients ________.
A)1: 2: 2: 3
B)1: 3: 2: 3
C)2: 7: 4: 6
D)2: 9: 4: 6
Q4) Determine the number of grams of copper present in a 4.0 kg sample of the mineral chalcopyrite (CuFeS<sub>2</sub>).
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the reduced species in the following chemical process: Cu + 2AgCl
CuC1<sub>2</sub> + 2Ag
A)Ag
B)Ag+
C)Cl-
D)Cu
Q2) Which of the following is true for reaction Zn + CuCl<sub>2</sub> ZnCl<sub>2</sub> + Cu ?
A)The solution will turn blue.
B)The solution will turn from blue to light blue.
C)The gray zinc powder will disappear.
D)Both B and C are correct.
Q3) The overall charge of sodium dichromate is ________.
A)0
B)+1
C)+2
D)-2
Q4) The lowest oxidation state sulfur can have is in the sulfite form.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) 1 torr is equal to 1 cm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q2) 947 mbar is equal to 0.933 atm (given 1 atm= 1.015 bar).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true for an ideal gas?
A)The pressure of a gas increases when its volume decreases.
B)The pressure of a gas increases when its temperature increases.
C)The pressure of a gas increases when the number of gas moles increases.
D)All of the above statements are correct.
Q4) An unknown gaseous substance has a density of 1.06 g/L at 31 °C and 371 torr. Its molecular weight is ________.
A)27
B)54
C)81
D)108
Q5) The lowest temperature that can theoretically be achieved is -273.16 °C A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) For most molecular solids an increase in temperature generally causes an increase in solubility.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under what conditions would a gas be most soluble in a liquid?
A)high temperature and high pressure
B)high temperature and low pressure
C)low temperature and high pressure
D)low temperature and low pressure
Q3) Phenolphthalein turns ________ when the solution is basic.
A)clear
B)blue
C)pink
D)orange
Q4) If a solute is to be soluble in a given solvent, which step in the solution-making process must have a negative value for its energy?
A)the physical separation of solvent particles
B)the physical separation of solute particles
C)the formation of solvent/solute interactions
D)All three of the preceding steps must be negative for a solute to be soluble.
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Q1) An exothermic reaction usually leads to a release in energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The rate of reaction: A (g)+ 3B (g) C (g)+ 2D (g)is Rate = -k[A][B]<sup>3</sup>. If the concentration of B is doubled while that of A is unchanged, the rate will ________.
A)stay the same
B)be increased by a factor of 6
C)double
D)be increased by a factor of 8
Q3) Consider the reaction X Y with the following data: Energy of reactants = 25 kJ/mole; Energy of products = 75 kJ/mole; Energy of transition state = 100 kJ/mole.
The energy of activation for the reverse reaction is ________ kJ/mole.
A)25
B)50.
C)75
D)100
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Q1) Consider the equation 2NH<sub>3</sub> (g) N<sub>2</sub> (g)+ 3H<sub>2</sub> (g). Decreasing the concentration of ammonia gas will ________.
A)shift the reaction to the right
B)shift the reaction to the left
C)have no effect
D)cannot be determined, since the temperature is unknown
Q2) An "equilibrium condition" can be achieved only when the reactant-to-product conversion is complete (100% of the reactants have been converted to products).
A)True
B)False
Q3) At equilibrium, the "amount of product" present is always greater than the "amount of reactant" present.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adding a catalyst to any reaction will always change the value of the equilibrium constant.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following qualifies as a Bronsted-Lowry acid?
A)KOH
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)Na<sup>+</sup>
D)NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
Q2) Which of the following does not qualify as a Bronsted-Lowry base?
A)CH<sub>4</sub>
B)NH<sub>3</sub>
C)PH<sub>3</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>O
Q3) Which of the following produces only one H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> ion per molecule of acid when dissolved in water, although itself has other non-ionizable hydrogens?
A)hydrobromic
B)sulfurous
C)hypochlorous
D)acetic
Q4) What is the pH of an aqueous solution that has a hydrogen-ion concentration of 4.83 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>9</sup> mol/L?
Q5) What were the defining characteristics of bases as known to the alchemists?
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fission reaction is always endothermic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the heaviest particle?
A)deuterium
B)neutron
C)alpha particle
D)beta particle
Q3) Isotopes have ________.
A)the same number of protons but different number of neutrons
B)the same number of neutrons but different number of protons
C)the same number protons and the same number of neutrons
D)different number protons and neutrons
Q4) When carbon-14 is converted to nitrogen-14 ________.
A)an electron is captured
B)an alpha particle is emitted
C)an electron is released
D)a neutron is released
Q5) <sup>16</sup>O + <sup>4</sup>He ______
Q6) <sup>1</sup>n + ______ <sup>141</sup>Ba + <sup>92</sup>Kr + 3 <sup>1</sup>n
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Q1) The IUPAC name of C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>4</sub> is ________.
A)propane
B)butene
C)propyne
D)propene
Q2) The number of possible isomers of molecular C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> is
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) Which of the following formulas may be attributed to an alkyne?
A)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O
B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O
C)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
D)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
Q4) Ethanol may be obtained via the fermentation of grains.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Draw the structure of butanal.

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Q1) Which of the following does not appear in a DNA strand?
A)deoxyribose sugar
B)phosphate
C)amino acids
D)amine base
Q2) Think for a moment about the terms "polymer" and "polysaccharide". Is it right to refer to polysaccharides as "nature's polymers"? Why or why not?
Q3) Through the "genetic engineering" of human DNA, it is hoped that someday a wide variety of diseases can be prevented or cured.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Construct the complementary strand of this piece of a DNA molecule: G T A C C T T G G T A A T T G
Q5) Viruses are not, technically, truly living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Lysine is considered an essential amino acid.
A)True
B)False

21
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