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Banking Strategy and Management Review Questions - 910 Verified Questions

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Banking Strategy and Management Review Questions

Course Introduction

Banking Strategy and Management explores the principles and practices that drive the competitive positioning and operational effectiveness of banks and financial institutions. This course examines strategic planning, risk management, product development, customer relationship management, and regulatory compliance within the banking sector. Students will analyze industry trends, the impact of technological innovation, and the changing landscape of global financial markets. Through case studies and real-world examples, participants will develop critical skills in strategic decision-making, performance assessment, and leadership necessary for effective management in modern banking environments.

Recommended Textbook

Bank Management 7th Edition by Timothy W. Koch

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17 Chapters

910 Verified Questions

910 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Banking and the Financial Services Industry

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) ___-corporations have favorable tax treatment because a qualifying firm does not pay corporate income taxes.

A)C

B)Q

C)S

D)V

E)Z

Answer: C

Q2) An independent bank operates a single organization that accepts deposits and makes loans.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Which of the following is not a channel for delivering banking services?

A)Mobile banking.

B)Online banking.

C)Automated Teller Machines.

D)Branch banking.

E)Retail banking.

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: Government Policies and Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A primary purpose of maintaining the safety and soundness of banks is to:

A)encourage loan growth.

B)protect depositors.

C)ensure liquidity for the stock market.

D)prevent discrimination.

E)minimize bank losses.

Answer: B

Q2) The _________ established to Public Company Oversight Board to regulate public accounting firms that audit publicly-traded companies.

A)Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act

B)Competitive Equality Banking Act

C)Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act

D)Sarbanes-Oxley Act

E)Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act

Answer: D

Q3) Most banks have the ability to easily raise new capital by issuing new equity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Analyzing Bank Performance

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100 Verified Questions

100 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bank that deals primarily with commercial customers is called:

A)an Edge Act bank.

B)a retail bank.

C)a wholesale bank.

D)a uniform bank.

E)a liability bank.

Answer: C

Q2) Bank assets fall into each of the following categories except: A)loans.

B)investment securities.

C)demand deposits.

D)noninterest cash and due from banks.

E)other assets.

Answer: C

Q3) Balance sheet items are calculated for a particular point in time.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Managing Noninterest Income and Noninterest Expense

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35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss why the net interest margin for banks has generally been declining for the past several years.

Q2) For most banks, which of the following is the largest component of non-interest expense?

A)Personnel expenses

B)Rent

C)Required reserves held at the Federal Reserve

D)Electricity

E)Depreciation on buildings and equipment

Q3) Return on risk-adjusted capital is defined as:

A)Income/Allocated Risk Capital.

B)Allocated Risk Capital/Adjusted Income.

C)(Risk - Adjusted Income)/Capital.

D)Capital/Allocated Risk Capital.

E)Expenses + Target Profit.

Q4) Discuss why non-interest income has become more important to a bank's profitability since deregulation in the 1980's.

Q5) Discuss two ways that a bank can decrease its non-interest expense.

Q7) Discuss two ways that a bank can increase its non-interest income. Page 6

Q6) Discuss how bank's can reduce the number of unprofitable customers.

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Page 7

Chapter 5: The Performance of Nontraditional Banking Companies

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Sample Questions

Q1) BMW bank has more financial leverage than its peers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Under FASB 157, Level _______ assets valuation are based on observable market prices for the identical instrument.

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

E)5

Q3) If a firm already has stock outstanding that is publically traded, additional offerings are called:.

A)initial public offering.

B)second time equity offering.

C)primary offering.

D)secondary offering.

E)flavored offering.

Q4) Mortgage origination makes up the largest portion of Goldman Sachs' business.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Pricing Fixed-Income Securities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assuming all other factors are held constant, discuss how changes in each of the following impact a bond's duration.

-Maturity

-Coupon Rate

-Market Rate

Q2) If a bond is selling at par value, then:

A)the yield to maturity is less than the coupon rate.

B)the yield to maturity is greater than the coupon rate.

C)the yield to maturity is equal to the coupon rate.

D)its duration must be greater than its maturity.

E)its duration must be equal to its maturity.

Q3) Discuss why the effective annual rate will never be less than the simple interest rate.

Q4) A bank quotes you a rate of 7% on a CD, compounded quarterly.What is the effective annual rate?

A)6.79%

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Chapter 7: Managing Interest Rate Risk: Gap and Earnings Sensitivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a bank expects interest rates to increase in the coming year, it should:

A)increase its GAP.

B)issue fewer variable rate loans.

C)issue more 3-month CDs.

D)issue more fixed rate loans.

E)become more liability sensitive.

Q2) If rate-sensitive assets equal $600 million and rate-sensitive liabilities equals $800 million, what is the expected change in net interest income if rates fall by 1%?

A)Net interest income will increase by $2 million.

B)Net interest income will fall by $2 million.

C)Net interest income will increase by $20 million.

D)Net interest income will fall by $20 million.

E)Net interest income will be unchanged.

Q3) Discuss the similarities and differences between earnings sensitivity analysis and income statement GAP analysis.

Q4) Discuss the statement "The relationship between GAP and net interest income is too simplistic."

Q5) Discuss the difference between a bank's periodic and cumulative GAP.

Q6) Discuss three factors that affect net interest income.

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Chapter 8: Managing Interest Rate Risk: Economic Value of Equity

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the weaknesses of using static GAP analysis versus duration gap analysis?

A)Static GAP ignores the time value of money.

B)Static GAP ignores the cumulative impact of interest rate changes on a bank's risk profile.

C)Static GAP does not proscribe the treatment of demand deposits.

D)All of the above are weaknesses of using static GAP analysis versus duration gap analysis.

E)a.and b.

Q2) Which of the following would generally be considered price sensitive?

A)Fed funds purchased

B)Fed funds sold

C)Repurchase agreements

D)Demand deposits

E)A 20-year zero coupon bond

Q3) How does effective duration differ from modified duration?

Q4) Discuss the differences between assets and liabilities that are price sensitive and those that are rate sensitive.

Q5) What are the strengths and weaknesses of duration gap analysis?

Q6) Why is it difficult to estimate the duration of demand deposits?

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Chapter 9: Using Derivatives to Manage Interest Rate Risk

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not an advantage of the swap market over the futures market for managing interest rate risk?

A)Getting out of a contract is easier in the swap market.

B)With a swap contract, you can hedge away longer-term risks than with futures contracts.

C)The notional amount of the swap can be set to any value acceptable to both trading parties.

D)All of the above are advantages of the swap market over the futures market.

E)a.and c.are not advantages of the swap market over the futures market.

Q2) A bank can establish a floor on interest rate costs by:

A)buying a call option on Eurodollar futures.

B)selling Eurodollar futures contracts.

C)selling a call option on Eurodollar futures.

D)a.and b.

E)b.and c.

Q3) Discuss the difference between speculating and hedging.

Q4) Speculators take a position to reduce their risk profile.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Explain the concepts of cross hedging and basis risk.

Page 12

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Chapter 10: Funding the Bank

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Sample Questions

Q1) Repurchase agreements generally carry a lower interest rate than comparable maturity Fed funds.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Interest costs do not equal the effective cost of bank liabilities because:

A)reserve requirements increase the effective cost.

B)there may be substantial processing costs.

C)service charges may offset a portion of non-interest expense.

D)all of the above.

E)a.and c.

Q3) A bank is going to issue $10,000,000 in 5-year par value bonds that pay a 5% annual coupon.The bank must pay .7% of the face value in floatation costs.What is the bank's effective cost of borrowing?

A)5.0%

B)5.2%

C)5.7%

D)6.2%

E)7.5%

Q4) Discuss the process of estimating the cost of deposit accounts.

Q5) What is the purpose of having a correspondent bank relationship?

Page 13

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Chapter 11: Managing Liquidity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Correspondent banking services would include which of the following?

A)Check collection

B)Data processing services

C)Federal funds trading

D)all of the above

E)a.& c.only

Q2) Which of the following is a non-discretionary factor that will decrease a bank's daily reserves held at the Federal Reserve?

A)Deferred availability items

B)Receiving a discount window loan

C)Remittances charged

D)Excess balances at the local clearing house

E)Federal funds sold

Q3) The ease of converting an asset to cash with a minimum of loss is known as:

A)asset liquidity.

B)volatile liquidity.

C)core liquidity.

D)liability liquidity.

E)non-core liquidity.

Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a bank holding less cash.

Page 14

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Chapter 12: The Effective Use of Capital

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bank that does not meet the minimum levels for Tier 1 capital, total capital, and leverage capital ratios is classified as:

A)well-capitalized.

B)adequately capitalized.

C)undercapitalized.

D)significantly undercapitalized.

E)critically undercapitalized.

Q2) Decreasing capital increases risk by decreasing financial leverage.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Under the current risk-based capital requirements, banks must hold capital against standby letters of credit they have issued as guarantees.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is "moral hazard" and what is its impact on deposit insurance?

Q5) Smaller banks rely more heavily on internally generated capital than larger banks. A)True B)False

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Page 15

Chapter 13: Overview of Credit Policy and Loan

Characteristics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Venture capital financing that comes in the "later rounds" of financing may take the form of:

A)start-up capital loans.

B)mezzanine financing.

C)automobile financing.

D)seed money.

E)staff financing.

Q2) What are the firm's estimated working capital needs?

A)$90

B)$540

C)$630

D)$1,170

E)$2,034

Q3) Which of the following is the primary emphasis of a values-driven credit culture?

A)Annual bank profit

B)Bank soundness and stability

C)Loan volume

D)Loan growth

E)Short-term earnings

Page 16

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Chapter 14: Evaluating Commercial Loan Requests and Managing Credit Risk

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Sample Questions

Q1) Next year, sales at Dylan are expected to increase by 10%.Also next year, the dividend payout ratio will not change, while gross profit, operating profit, net income, current assets and current liabilities will be the same percentage of sales as the current year.If the firm issues no new common stock, what will be the addition to retained earnings next year?

A)$1,112,000

B)$2,746,200

C)$3,200,000

D)$4,884,000

E)$5,372,400

Q2) Term loans are generally repaid with funds from:

A)investing cash flows.

B)issuing new debt.

C)reductions in inventory and receivables.

D)cash flows from operations.

E)redeeming marketable securities.

Q3) Every balance sheet and income statement item must be recognized on a cash-based income statement.

A)True

B)False

Page 17

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Chapter 15: Evaluating Consumer Loans

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Sample Questions

Q1) If the loan quoted has an add-on rate, what is the approximate annual percentage rate (APR) on the loan?

A)20%

B)18%

C)14%

D)12%

E)10%

Q2) Which of the following are lenders prohibited from asking on a credit application?

A)The applicant's income

B)If the applicant has a telephone

C)If the applicant has declared bankruptcy in the past

D)How long the applicant has been on the job

E)Lenders are not prohibited from asking any of the above

Q3) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a debit card?

A)The consumer is charged higher finance charges than on a credit card.

B)The consumer loses float.

C)They have higher processing costs than ATMs.

D)They have lower processing costs than checks.

E)They are not widely available.

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Page 18

Chapter 16: Managing the Investment Portfolio

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Sample Questions

Q1) A security might exhibit negative convexity because:

A)its duration is greater than its maturity.

B)it has a fixed interest rate below current market rates.

C)a bank has a negative GAP.

D)it has embedded options.

E)markets are not efficient.

Q2) The underlying mortgages in Ginnie Mae mortgage pools include:

A)Federal Housing Association (FHA) mortgages.

B)Veterans Administration (VA) mortgages.

C)privately issued mortgages.

D)all of the above

E)a.and b.only

Q3) A portfolio is equally invested in securities with 1-, 2-, and 3-years to maturity.Each year as the 1-year securities mature, the funds are reinvested in 3-year securities.This is an example of which investment strategy?

A)Barbell maturity strategy

B)Riding the yield curve

C)Laddered maturity strategy

D)Timing maturity strategy

E)Cycle maturity strategy

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Chapter 17: Global Banking Activities

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Euro is not usable in wholesale financial transactions in:

A)France.

B)Germany.

C)Spain.

D)the United Kingdom.

E)Austria.

Q2) Non-performing international loans do not completely reflect potential losses because:

A)foreign governments have never defaulted on their debts.

B)banks often loan borrowers funds to make payments on existing loans.

C)U.S.banks can easily recover the funds in foreign courts.

D)the U.S.government has strongly discouraged U.S.banks from making international loans.

E)all of the above

Q3) A universal bank can engage in:

A)making commercial loans.

B)making consumer loans.

C)selling insurance.

D)all of the above

E)a.and b.only

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