Bacteriology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Bacteriology is the study of bacteria, focusing on their morphology, physiology, genetics, taxonomy, and ecological significance. This course explores the fundamental aspects of bacterial structure and function, their roles in health and disease, and their applications in industry, biotechnology, and medicine. Students will learn about bacterial growth, reproduction, metabolism, classification, and methods of identification. The course also covers the mechanisms of bacterial pathogenicity, antibiotic resistance, and the principles of infection control, providing a comprehensive understanding of bacteria and their interactions with humans and the environment.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is:
A) genus.
B) species.
C) class.
D) kingdom.
Answer: B
Q2) Colonial and microscopic morphologic properties, along with the pigmentation of colonies, would belong to a microorganism group of ________ characteristics.
A) genotypic
B) taxonomic
C) phenotypic
D) subspecies
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) Transduction is defined as the:
A) change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.
B) internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism's genome.
C) process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another.
D) mechanism that is mediated by viruses, by which DNA from two bacteria may come together in one cell, thus allowing for recombination.
Answer: D
Q2) The mechanism for adenosine triphosphate (ATP)production in which high-energy phosphate bonds produced by the central metabolic pathways are donated to adenosine diphosphate (ADP)to form ATP is:
A) substrate-level phosphorylation.
B) fermentative metabolism.
C) oxidative phosphorylation.
D) aerobic respiration.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) Infectious processes that quickly develop are referred to as _________ infections.
A) chronic
B) latent
C) acute
D) nosocomial
Answer: C
Q2) Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells?
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) Natural killer cells
D) Neutrophils
Answer: C
Q3) An example of antibody-mediated immunity is:
A) phagocytosis.
B) macrophage release.
C) T-cell activation.
D) B-cell activation.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Standard precautions include:
A) using barrier devices to prevent exposure to skin and mucous membranes.
B) recapping needles by hand.
C) storing drinks but not food in laboratory refrigerators.
D) discarding sharps in plastic biohazard bags.
Q2) The agency that has published guidelines regarding the packaging of biohazardous specimens is known as:
A) DHEC.
B) International Air Transport Association (IATA).
C) CDC.
D) EPA.
Q3) A cleaning solution used on the venipuncture site to avoid skin contamination of the blood sample is called a(n):
A) surfactant.
B) disinfectant.
C) biocide.
D) antiseptic.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Which type of media is designed to distinguish microorganisms on the basis of certain growth characteristics?
A) Selective
B) Nutritive
C) Differential
D) Definitive
Q2) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms?
A) Selective
B) Nutritive
C) Differential
D) Definitive
Q3) Which specimen culture, if positive, should be immediately reported to the clinician?
A) Urine
B) Blood
C) Throat
D) Stool
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to detect mycobacteria is:
A) calcofluor white.
B) acridine orange.
C) auramine.
D) immunofluorescence.
Q2) In the Kinyoun acid-fast staining method, ______ replaces _____ in the primary stain solution.
A) increased phenol; heat
B) heat; increased phenol
C) mycolic acid; heat
D) carbolfuchsin; phenol
Q3) The fluorochrome stain used to study a fungus is:
A) calcofluor white.
B) acridine orange.
C) auramine.
D) immunofluorescence.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) To read the hemolytic reaction accurately on a blood agar plate, the technologist must:
A) hold the plate up to the light, and observe the plate with the light coming from behind.
B) hold the plate under the light, and observe the plate with the light coming from the top.
C) hold the plate over a white background.
D) examine the plate using reflected and transmitted light.
Q2) Which medium can be described as containing hemoglobin, hemin (X factor), and the co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)(V factor)?
A) Chocolate
B) CNA blood
C) BHI
D) Thioglycollate
Q3) The role of the agar ingredient in culture medium is to:
A) provide a nutritional base for bacterial metabolism.
B) solidify the medium and provide a stable culture surface.
C) sterilize the medium and prevent contamination.
D) support the growth of only pathogenic organisms.
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) The enzyme that is commonly used for primer extensions in the PCR method works best at what temperature?
A) 25º C
B) 56º C
C) 72º C
D) 94º C
Q2) An organism whose genetic makeup is 50% C-G bonds would have a(n)_________ melting temperature (Tm), compared with an organism with 20% C-G bonds.
A) higher
B) lower
C) equal
D) similar
Q3) The target in the hybridization assay can be described as:
A) originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.
B) a reporter molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe DNA.
C) originating from an organism of known identity.
D) an enzyme that adds nucleotides during the replication process.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) The immunochemical test that involves an antigen present in a specimen binding to the combining sites of the antibody exposed on the surfaces of latex beads is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that:
A) extensive training is not necessary.
B) it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.
C) visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen is possible.
D) fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are those that:
A) react with many different types of antigens.
B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C) are produced by the offspring of a single hybrid cell.
D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The precipitin test that is widely used for detecting antibodies against fungal infection is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) A positive test was observed on a serum sample that resulted in the formation of a fine precipitate on a reaction card.The most likely organism serologically identified is:
A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Bacillus anthracis.
C) Treponema pallidum.
D) Toxoplasma gondii.
Q3) For an accurate diagnostic of a current infection, acute and convalescent sera should reflect a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.
A) decrease; two
B) increase; two
C) decrease; four
D) increase; four
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance
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Q1) Rifampin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q2) Gentamicin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q3) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q4) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to: A) vancomycin.
B) aminoglycoside.
C) cephalosporin.
D) amikacin.
Q2) The minimal bactericidal concentration (MBC)test involves:
A) testing the organism against gram-positive antibiotics.
B) testing the organism against gram-negative antibiotics.
C) 99.9% reduction in CFUs/mL, compared with the organism concentration in the original inoculum.
D) observing the first tube where growth is inhibited.
Q3) The concentrations in a broth dilution test that separate the categories of susceptible, intermediate, and resistant are called: A) MICs.
B) tolerance limits.
C) breakpoints.
D) border concentrations.
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) In clinical isolates, the most likely identification of coagulase-positive, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that are penicillin resistant would be:
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Staphylococcus intermedius.
C) Stomatococcus luteus.
D) Micrococcus aureus.
Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the oxidase reagent?
A) Staphylococcus aureus and S. epidermidis
B) S. epidermidis and Enterococcus
C) Aerococcus and Enterococcus
D) Micrococcus and Aerococcus
Q3) Which organism is catalase positive, coagulase negative, pyrrolidonyl arylamidase (PYR)positive, susceptible to novobiocin, urease negative, and beta hemolytic on sheep blood agar?
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) S. saprophyticus
C) S. cohnii
D) S. haemolyticus
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Erythrogenic toxin, hyaluronidase enzyme, and hemolysins S and O are extracellular products of:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. agalactiae.
Q2) Enterococci can be described as:
A) able to hydrolyze bile esculin.
B) usually beta-hemolytic.
C) a major cause of pharyngitis.
D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
Q3) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as:
A) resistant to bile and optochin.
B) beta-hemolytic.
C) catalase-positive.
D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A) Thayer-Martin agar.
B) 5% sheep blood agar.
C) MacConkey agar.
D) Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
Q2) A gram-positive Bacillus, which is beta-hemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar, produces a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar, is nonmotile, and was isolated from the stool of a patient with abdominal pain and watery diarrhea.Because of the patient's existing immunocompromised state, the physician administered penicillin as the antibiotic therapy.The patient's condition did not improve after 7 days of treatment.Which one of the following statements explains the reason for the antibiotic failure?
A) The course was too abbreviated and should be given for 14 days.
B) The patient may be allergic to penicillin and its therapeutic effects.
C) Penicillin is ineffective against gram-positive organisms.
D) The organism produces beta-lactamase, which renders the drug inactive.
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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Bacillus
C) Actinomyces
D) Mycobacterium
Q2) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is:
A) Listeria monocytogenes.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Bacillus anthracis.
D) Bacillus cereus.
Q3) Bacteria described as being coryneform have which of the following morphologic features?
A) Squared rods with squared ends arranged in pairs
B) Short gram-positive cocci in branching chains
C) Resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D) Long branching gram-positive bacilli
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A gram-positive bacillus identified as Lactobacillus is isolated in large quantities from the urine of a 16-year-old female.Based on this information, the patient should receive which antibiotic?
A) Penicillin
B) Tetracycline
C) Vancomycin
D) No antibiotics should be administered.
Q2) The reverse Christie, Atkins, Munch-Petersen (CAMP)test is positive for these curved gram-positive bacilli.Which beta-hemolytic organism is used in conjunction with this organism in the reverse CAMP test?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) S. agalactiae
C) S. saprophyticus
D) S. aureus
Q3) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Lactobacillus
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues, which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts, is referred to as:
A) actinomycetoma.
B) infectious granulomas.
C) lymphocytoma.
D) Actinomadura.
Q2) Which partially acid-fast, gram-positive, and branching filamentous bacteria appear dry and white to creamy to orange with rhizoid edges on routine agar and are urea-positive and resistant to lysozyme?
A) Tsukamurella
B) Gordonia
C) Actinomadura
D) Dermatophilus
Q3) Non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:
A) Nocardia.
B) Rhodococcus.
C) Streptomyces.
D) Gordona.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) This organism, belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae, grows best at 25º to 30º
C.Domestic and wild rats and other animals can carry this organism.What is the medium of choice?
A) MacConkey agar
B) Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD) agar
C) Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar
D) Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
Q2) Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
Q3) Escherichia coli can produce a toxin similar to Shigella dysenteriae and can cause hemorrhagic colitis.What other organ does it affect?
A) Heart
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Kidney
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) Acinetobacter spp.
B) Bordetella trematum
C) Burkholderia gladioli
D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Q2) Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by:
A) the oxidase test.
B) maltose and glucose medium.
C) tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D) nitrate reduction.
Q3) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of animals.
B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by which one of the following?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Ralstonia pickettii
C) Burkholderia mallei
D) Burkholderia pseudomallei
Q2) Not including organisms in the Enterobacteriaceae family, the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens are:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Burkholderia.
C) Ralstonia.
D) Vibrio.
Q3) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of urea agar for quality control purposes?
A) Pseudomonas fluorescens and Burkholderia cepacia complex
B) Ralstonia mannitolilytica and Acidovorax delafieldii
C) Brevundimonas diminuta and Brevundimonas vesicularis
D) Brevundimonas vesicularis and Ralstonia pickettii
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although validated susceptibility testing methods do not exist for this group of organisms, in vitro data suggest that certain cephalosporins and aminoglycosides are effective against which one of the following groups of organisms?
A) Ochrobactrum anthropi
B) Shewanella putrefaciens
C) Paracoccus yeei
D) Rhizobium radiobacter
Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) peritonitis.
B) endocarditis.
C) meningitis.
D) bacteremia.
Q3) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism that rarely causes human infection, grows poorly at 35º C; however, grows optimally between 20º and 25º C?
A) Psychrobacter immobilis
B) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
C) Rhizobium radiobacter
D) Shewanella putrefaciens
Page 24
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Q1) Neonates and individuals who are immunocompromised are at risk for developing meningitis if they contract which organism?
A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
B) Myroides odoratum
C) Sphingobacterium spp.
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group EO-3
Q2) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?
A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis
B) Chryseobacterium spp. and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum
D) Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum
Q3) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of animals.
B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The biochemical description of Bordetella bronchiseptica is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q2) The biochemical description of Myroides is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) urease-positive and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q3) Quality control is set up to determine the validity of cetrimide agar.Which two organisms should be used?
A) Bordetella bronchiseptica and Cupriavidus pauculus
B) Achromobacter denitrificans and Alcaligenes faecalis
C) Achromobacter piechaudii and Bordetella bronchiseptica
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Alcaligenes-like group 1 and Cupriavidus pauculus
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms
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Q1) An organism suspected of being one of the Vibrio spp.grew on MacConkey agar.To determine whether it was a vibrio cell or in the Enterobacteriaceae family, an oxidase test was performed on the colony.The results of the oxidase test, however, were negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The oxidase test should be performed on TCBS agar, not MacConkey agar.
B) The oxidase test should be performed on a sheep blood agar plate to avoid false-negative results.
C) The pH of the MacConkey agar is most likely elevated to alkaline conditions.
D) No discrepancy is present. All vibrio cells are oxidase-negative.
Q2) Vibrio cholera and V.alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?
A) Green
B) Black
C) Yellow
D) Blue
Q3) The transmission of Vibrio spp.to humans is by:
A) exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B) ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C) inhalation of contaminated air.
D) close contact with carriers of the organism.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) Habitats are unknown.
C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q2) When performing quality control on motility media, which of the following organisms should be used?
A) Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group IIc and CDC group IIe
C) CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D) CDC group IIh and Acidovorax facilis
Q3) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive, motile by wet mount, and has the ability to oxidize glucose, xylose, and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Sphingomonas
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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following tests can be performed to differentiate the two subspecies of Neisseria-elongata and glycolytica?
A) Catalase
B) Nitrate reduction
C) DNase
D) Growth in nutrient broth
Q2) The virulence of this organism(s), which is transmitted via a dog bite, is attributed to:
A) protease production.
B) various toxins.
C) hemolysins.
D) something unknown.
Q3) Testing for differentiation of Moraxella nonliquefaciens and M.osloensis can best be performed by:
A) the ability to utilize acetate.
B) the ability to liquefy serum.
C) glucose utilization tests.
D) growth on MacConkey agar.
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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q2) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase, indole, and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
Q3) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A) pink pigmentation.
B) grapelike odor.
C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D) bleachlike odor.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?
A) Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis
B) Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica
C) Pasteurella multocida and Suttonella indologenes
D) Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B) Eikenella corrodens.
C) Pasteurella multocida.
D) Weeksella virosa.
Q3) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A) Indole
B) Catalase
C) Nitrate
D) Sucrose
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Chapter
30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,
Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) To test the validity of catalase reagent, which two organisms should be used?
A) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B) Cardiobacterium hominis and Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
C) Kingella denitrificans and Kingella kingae
D) Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Q2) Which antimicrobial regimen should be administered to a patient suspected of having endocarditis as a result of infection with Cardiobacterium hominis?
A) Chloramphenicol and tetracycline
B) Erythromycin and ciprofloxacin
C) Ampicillin and ceftriaxone
D) Penicillin, with or without an aminoglycoside agent
Q3) Which yellow-pigmented organism exhibits gliding motility that grows best at 35º C and in conditions with increased carbon dioxide (CO )but cannot grow in ambient air?
A) Actinobacillus
B) Capnocytophaga
C) Cardiobacterium
D) Kingella
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) Growth of most Haemophilus species in culture is enhanced by:
A) incubation at 33° to 35° C.
B) high humidity.
C) 5% to 10% carbon dioxide (CO2).
D) enriched special media.
Q2) In a phenomenon known as satelliting, tiny colonies of Haemophilus spp.may be observed growing on sheep blood agar close to colonies of bacteria that can produce: A) hemin.
B) NAD.
C) vitamin K.
D) cystine.
Q3) Which of the following opportunistic organisms is associated with slowly progressive subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A) Haemophilus ducreyi
B) H. influenzae
C) Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
D) H. parahaemolyticus
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Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A) Gram stain
B) Wright stain
C) Trichrome stain
D) Warthin-Starry silver stain
Q2) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A) B. bacilliformis
B) B. henselae
C) B. elizabethae
D) B. clarridgeiae
Q3) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:
A) direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B) contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C) multiplication of the organism in food products.
D) direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q2) Antimicrobial therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection consists of:
A) penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem.
B) clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem.
C) metronidazole, bismuth salt, and tetracycline.
D) azithromycin alone.
Q3) Curved, microaerophilic, gram-negative rods, with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines, describe which group of bacteria?
A) Campylobacter
B) Helicobacter
C) Arcobacter
D) Enterobacter
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as:
A) Philadelphia pneumonia.
B) legionnaires' disease.
C) tuberculosis.
D) rheumatic fever.
Q2) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative, faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A) Fluoroquinolones
B) Erythromycin
C) Penicillin
D) Aminoglycosides
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A) cattle.
B) sheep or goats.
C) swine.
D) dogs.
Q2) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable, which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A) Penicillin and azithromycin
B) Ampicillin and gentamycin
C) Doxycycline and rifampin
D) Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q3) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A) dairy farmers.
B) fishermen.
C) prison guards.
D) those working with exotic birds.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and
Related Species
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Q1) A nasopharyngeal aspirate is cultured on Bordet-Gengou agar, and growth is observed.The colonies are also subjected to a direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)stain, which is also positive.On the basis of these findings, the antimicrobial therapy that should be administered to the patient is:
A) azithromycin.
B) gentamycin.
C) streptomycin.
D) imipenem.
Q2) Which of the following toxins contributes to the virulence of Bordetella pertussis and works by hemolyzing red cells and activating cyclic adenosine monophosphate, which inactivates several types of host immune cells?
A) Endotoxin
B) Pertussis toxin
C) Tracheal cytotoxin
D) Adenylate cyclase toxin
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A) is oxidase-negative.
B) is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C) does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D) does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
Q2) Which assay is available to identify Francisella tularensis serologically?
A) Complement fixation
B) Direct fluorescent antibody test
C) Immunodiffusion assays
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)
Q3) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?
A) Brucella
B) Bordetella
C) Pasteurella
D) Francisella
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:
A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B) a granulomatous lesion.
C) septic arthritis.
D) endocarditis.
Q2) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, which is characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, as well as a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities?
A) Streptobacillus moniliformis
B) Brucella abortus
C) Bordetella spp.
D) Pasteurella spp.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-negative, maltose-negative, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and DNase-positive is:
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Moraxella catarrhalis.
C) N. cinerea.
D) N. gonorrhoeae.
Q2) The differentiation of the similar Moraxella catarrhalis and Neisseria can be best accomplished by:
A) examination of Gram stain of the colony.
B) vancomycin susceptibility testing.
C) the oxidase test.
D) glucose utilization testing.
Q3) The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, maltose-positive, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of bacterial meningitis is:
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) N. lactamica.
C) N. flavescens.
D) N. gonorrhoeae.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Prereduced, anaerobically sterilized (PRAS)media:
A) are produced, packaged, shipped, and stored under anaerobic conditions.
B) have a short shelf life of only 2 weeks.
C) enable the culture to be incubated in the regular incubator under aerobic conditions.
D) contain peroxides that enhance the growth of certain anaerobes.
Q2) Egg-yolk agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q3) Percutaneous lung aspirate is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q4) Expectorated sputum is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
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42
Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms
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Q1) A diabetic patient has developed gas gangrene of the right foot.The most likely anaerobe causing this infection is:
A) Clostridium tetani.
B) C. perfringens.
C) C. botulinum.
D) C. difficile.
Q2) Incubation conditions for anaerobic cultures include:
A) 30° to 35° C.
B) incubation for 48 hours before exposing the culture to air.
C) incubation for at least 3 days before discarding.
D) aerobic incubation of the broth medium with the cap loose.
Q3) Quality control is set up on a new lot of an indole reagent.Clostridium bifermentans and Clostridium bolteae are used, and the following results are obtained: C.bifermentans: positive
C.bolteae: negative
Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The reagent is most likely expired.
B) The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.
C) These two organisms are poor choices; both are indole-positive.
D) No discrepancy is present. The results obtained are correct.
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Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The stain that requires heating the slide for better penetration of stain into the mycobacterial cell wall is known as the:
A) Kinyoun.
B) Ziehl-Neelsen.
C) fluorochrome.
D) carbolfuchsin.
Q2) The type of specimen collected for mycobacterial studies that must be neutralized with 10% sodium carbonate is:
A) spontaneously produced sputum.
B) gastric lavage.
C) transtracheal aspiration.
D) bronchial lavage.
Q3) Known to cause an inflammatory bowel disease referred to as Johne disease in cattle, sheep, and goats, which organism has been isolated from the bowel mucosa of patients with Crohn disease?
A) M. paratuberculosis
B) M. avium-intracellulare
C) M. phlei
D) M. lepraemurium
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Of the following organisms, which has a unique developmental life cycle including a replicative form, the reticulate body (RB), and an extracellular, metabolically inert, infective form, the elementary body (EB)?
A) Rickettsia
B) Chlamydia
C) Ehrlichia
D) Coxiella
Q2) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A) Lice
B) Ticks
C) Fleas
D) Chiggers
Q3) Of the following organisms, which can be described as a fastidious obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells and infects humans as accidental hosts in most cases?
A) Rickettsia
B) Chlamydia
C) Calymmatobacterium
D) Coxiella
45
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Q1) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B) direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C) latex agglutination.
D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q2) The natural habitat of Mycoplasma spp., which causes infectious disease in humans, can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of humans.
B) aquatic environment.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A) Chlamydia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Rickettsia
D) Coxiella
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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Long, slender, helically curved, gram-negative bacilli with hooked ends are identified as belonging to which species?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Coxiella
Q2) A stage of venereal syphilis, characterized by tissue destruction, central nervous system disease, cardiovascular abnormalities, eye disease, and granuloma-like lesions, is known as ________ syphilis.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
Q3) A widely used nontreponemal serologic assay is the ________ test.
A) rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
B) Treponema pallidum passive particle agglutination (TP-PA)
C) fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
D) microhemagglutination test for antibody to Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP)
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections: Overview
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Q1) The concentration protocol of the ova and parasite (O&P)examination:
A) requires freshly passed, unpreserved stool.
B) is designed to allow the detection of protozoan cysts, coccidian oocysts, microsporidial spores, and helminth eggs and larvae.
C) is microscopically examined at low, high dry, and oil immersion magnifications.
D) is designed to facilitate the identification of intestinal protozoa.
Q2) A modified acid-fast stain is performed on lung tissue.The most likely organism that will be observed is:
A) Naegleria fowleri.
B) Mansonella streptocerca.
C) Giardia lamblia.
D) Cryptosporidium spp.
Q3) Which of the following intestinal parasites is found in humans and also in pigs?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Cryptosporidium spp.
D) Balantidium coli
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) This flagellate is pear-shaped with "falling leaf" motility.It contains variant-specific surface proteins (VSPs)on its surface, which provide a mechanism for the organism to survive in the small intestine as a result of its ability to resist intestinal proteases.The organism is:
A) Giardia lamblia.
B) Chilomastix mesnili.
C) Dientamoeba fragilis.
D) Enteromonas hominis.
Q2) Which of the following flagellates has a single nucleus in the cyst and the typical curved, cytostomal fibril, which is called a shepherd's crook?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Chilomastix mesnili
C) Dientamoeba fragilis
D) Enteromonas hominis
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Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) Trypanosoma cruzi
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
Q2) P.malariae
A)Normal shape and size
B)Normal shape; size may be normal or slightly smaller
C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal; oval to normal
D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval
Q3) A thick ring, large nucleus, and bands across the cell and 6 to 12 merozoites in a mature schizont are all characteristics of which Plasmodium spp.?
A) P. vivax
B) P. ovale
C) P. falciparum
D) P. malariae
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Chapter 49: Other Protozoa
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Q1) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q2) Primates, as well as dogs, sheep, and horses, have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?
A) Naegleria fowleri
B) Acanthamoeba spp.
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Balamuthia mandrillaris
Q3) The troph of the motile Trichomonas vaginalis organism measures 7 to 23 microns long and 5 to 15 microns wide.The recommended treatment of choice for this urogenital infection is:
A) tetracycline.
B) metronidazole.
C) penicillin.
D) ketoconazole.
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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) A short buccal capsule, large bulb on the esophagus, and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A) Trichuris trichiura
B) Capillaria philippinensis
C) Strongyloides stercoralis
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
Q2) The larvae of the worm Strongyloides stercoralis are the most common found in human stool specimens.Depending on the fecal transit time through the intestine and the patient's condition, both rhabditiform and rare filariform may be present.The treatment of choice for uncomplicated infections is:
A) metronidazole.
B) ivermectin.
C) pyrantel pamoate.
D) combination antihelminthic and board-spectrum antibiotics.
Q3) The most common and largest roundworm encountered is:
A) Trichuris trichiura.
B) Strongyloides stercoralis.
C) Ascaris lumbricoides.
D) Necator americanus.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) Systemic involvement is rare in infection caused by Ancylostoma braziliense or A.caninum; however, pneumonitis may occur.The antihelminthic therapy used to treat this infection is:
A) ivermectin or thiabendazole.
B) metronidazole or thiabendazole.
C) mebendazole or ivermectin.
D) albendazole or diethylcarbamazine.
Q2) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?
A) Presence of adult worms in the feces
B) Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy
C) Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin
D) Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces
Q3) Humans acquire infection with Trichinella tissue nematode by ingesting undercooked meat that contains the infective encysted larvae.In which tissue do these larvae encyst?
A) Brain
B) Meninges
C) Myocardium
D) Striated muscle
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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes
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Q1) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made, and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:
A) Wuchereria bancrofti.
B) Onchocerca volvulus.
C) Loa loa.
D) Brugia malayi.
Q2) Loa loa
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
Q3) Brugia spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
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Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The double-pored tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium caninum, consisting of many small proglottids, measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:
A) dog.
B) cat.
C) flea.
D) human.
Q2) The Taenia solium organism, which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long, contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is:
A) dogs.
B) cats.
C) pigs.
D) cattle.
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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism, Echinococcus multilocularis, are:
A) foxes.
B) coyotes.
C) rodents.
D) humans.
Q2) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A) Coenurosis
B) Cysticercosis
C) Hydatid disease
D) Sparganosis
Q3) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Echinococcus multilocularis
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm, which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore, has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs, cats, and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater:
A) snails.
B) fish.
C) crabs.
D) shrimp.
Q2) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:
A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.
B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.
C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.
D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.
Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A) fish.
B) snails.
C) crabs.
D) crayfish.
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Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) The eggs of Paragonimus mexicanus measure approximately 80 microns by 40 microns, are unembryonated and operculated, and have thick shells that are brownish yellow.An individual with this infection has most likely traveled to which endemic area?
A) Japan
B) Africa
C) New Guinea
D) South America
Q2) Sheep liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q3) Chinese liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A) S. mansoni
B) S. japonicum
C) S. haematobium
D) S. mekongi
Q2) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A) S. japonicum
B) S. haematobium
C) S. mansoni
D) S. intercalatum
Q3) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 microns long by 40 to 70 microns wide and have a sharp, pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?
A) Ascites fluid
B) Sputum
C) Bile
D) Urine
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Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) All mold cultures and clinical samples should always be handled in a Class _____ level biosafety cabinet.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q2) A 29-year-old patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)is suspected of having a Cryptococcus neoformans infection in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).A CSF specimen is collected and set up on cycloheximide agar.In addition, an India ink stain is set up.The India ink stain reveals encapsulated yeast; however, 3 weeks later, the cycloheximide agar is negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The India ink result is most likely false positive.
B) The ingredients in the cycloheximide agar most likely inhibited the growth of the organism.
C) C. neoformans is rarely recovered from CSF; therefore the cycloheximide result is accurate.
D) The India ink stain is most likely contaminated.
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Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,
Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Unbranched sporangiophores with rhizoids that appear opposite the point where the stolon arises at the base of the sporangiophore best describes which zygomycetes?
A) Mucor
B) Rhizopus
C) Lichtheimia
D) Absidia
Q2) Which dermatophyte usually fluoresces yellow-green under a Wood's lamp?
A) Microsporum gypseum
B) Trichophyton verrucosum
C) Microsporum audouinii
D) Epidermophyton floccosum
Q3) Which of the following Trichophyton spp.grows slowly (14 to 30 days)and best at 35° to 37° C? In addition, enriched media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.
A) T. verrucosum
B) T. tonsurans
C) T. rubrum
D) T. mentagrophytes
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds
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Q1) Conidia are arranged sympodially, golden brown, multicelled, and curved with a central swollen cell.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q2) Conidiophores bear a chain of large brown conidia, resembling a drumstick, and contain both horizontal and longitudinal septa.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis
Jiroveci
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Q1) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?
A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) The cell membrane of Pneumocystis jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______, which differentiates it from other fungi.
A) sterols; cholesterol
B) ergosterol; sterols
C) cholesterol; ergosterol
D) sitosterol; sterols
Q3) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A) Bradyzoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Sporocyte
D) Cyst
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Page 63
Chapter 62: The Yeasts
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Q1) Which yeast identification system uses chromogenic substrates to assess specific enzyme activity usually detected within 4 hours?
A) Vitek
B) MicroScan
C) API-20C AUX
D) Uni-Yeast-Tek
Q2) In general, yeast reproduce asexually by the formation of:
A) ascospores.
B) basidiospores.
C) blastoconidia.
D) arthroconidia.
Q3) Blood cultures are drawn on a patient suspected of having a fungemia.Positive cultures reveal the presence of chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar.In addition, the yeast is germ-tube positive.The most likely identification of the fungal agent is:
A) C. glabrata.
B) C. tropicalis.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) C. albicans.
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64
Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with an invasive Aspergillosis infection.The antifungal therapy that should be administered is:
A) nystatin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) amphotericin B.
D) fluconazole.
Q2) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q3) The agency that provides documents and sets standards for antifungal susceptibility testing is the:
A) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Library Sciences (NAACLS).
B) Association of Specialized and Cooperative Library Agencies (ASCLS).
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP).
D) Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI).
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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)is:
A) buccal mucosa.
B) sputum.
C) throat.
D) nasopharyngeal.
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
A)Adenovirus
B)HSV
C)HBV
D)Arbovirus
Q3) The appropriate temperature in which to store specimens for viral isolation is ____º
C.
A) 4
B) 25
C) 30
D) 37
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) This hemorrhagic fever causes disease in humans and nonhuman primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas, and monkeys.It is identified in the laboratory using which type of assay?
A) Immunodiffusion
B) Peptide nucleic acid fluorescence in situ hybridization (PNA-FISH)
C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D) Reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are surface glycoproteins associated with what family of viruses?
A) Parvovividae
B) Orthomyxoviridae
C) Picornaviridae
D) Caliciviridae
Q3) A 36-year-old woman is on a cruise ship and later develops nausea, abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea.She is most likely suffering from which virus?
A) Norovirus
B) Rotavirus
C) Coronavirus
D) Torovirus
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Page 67
Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention
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Q1) Viable cells take up neutral red dye.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
Q2) Point mutations in the hemagglutination (HA)or neuraminidase (NA)genes during viral ribonucleoprotein (RNP)replication give rise to new strains.This mechanism is known as the antigenic:
A) drift.
B) shift.
C) re-assortment.
D) modification.
Q3) Acyclovir
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
68
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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) The BACTEC automated blood culture system detects organisms by monitoring a rise in carbon dioxide (CO )levels using which type of sensor?
A) Fluorescence
B) Colorimetric
C) Isotopic
D) Saponin
Q2) The most common portal of entry for bacteremia is:
A) the genitourinary tract.
B) the respiratory tract.
C) an abscess.
D) the biliary tract.
Q3) If tachyzoites are found circulating in blood, then the infection would be classified as a:
A) parasitemia.
B) bacteremia.
C) viremia.
D) fungemia.
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Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) The nasal hairs, convoluted passages, and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates:
A) nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B) promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C) can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D) reduce colonization of normal bacterial flora.
Q2) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B) adults younger than 30 years of age.
C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D) school-age children.
Q3) The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults, regardless of age, is:
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Epiglottitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) An infection of the epiglottis and other soft tissues above the vocal cords, whose presentation typically includes fever and difficulty in swallowing because of the pain, drooling, and respiratory obstruction with inspiratory stridor, is:
A) epiglottitis.
B) pharyngitis.
C) Vincent angina.
D) rhinitis.
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Chapter
Nervous System
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Q1) Infection within the subarachnoid space or throughout the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane is referred to as:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) meningitis.
Q2) The middle layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
Q3) A condition characterized by concomitant meningitis that occurs with encephalitis is called:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) pleocytosis.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include:
A) Klebsiella pneumococci.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Streptococcus agalactiae.
D) Moraxella catarrhalis.
Q2) Orbital cellulitis
A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) Dacryoadenitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
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Page 73
Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is:
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Klebsiella spp.
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A) Enterobacteriaceae.
B) yeast.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
D) Corynebacteria.
Q3) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.
A) digestive
B) upper respiratory
C) urinary
D) genital
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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Bartholinitis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., Peptostreptococcus spp., Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
Q2) Bacterial vaginosis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., Peptostreptococcus spp., Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enteric organisms
G)Mumps virus
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be incubated in:
A) a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C) regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) Myositis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) Necrotizing fasciitis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)are caused by:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis and S. aureus.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D) Streptococcus spp.
E) viral agents.
Q2) Any tissues received in the clinical microbiology laboratory should be minced and homogenized in a biosafety cabinet.If lung tissue is sent and processed, then which organism should be examined using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)testing?
A) Listeria
B) Legionella
C) Leishmania
D) Leptospira
Q3) Which fungal condition is most often detected in the bone marrow?
A) Brucellosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Leishmaniasis
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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Occurring continuously through the remaining value-added steps
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q2) Protocol for testing susceptibility test systems include testing _____ consecutive days.
A) daily for 7
B) bi-weekly for 30
C) every other day for 14
D) with use for 20
Q3) Test performance, tolerance limits, reagent preparation, required quality control, result reporting, and references are areas included in the:
A) Total Quality Management Manual.
B) Standard Operating Procedure Manual (SOPM).
C) Continuous Quality Improvement Manual.
D) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) Manual.
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Chapter 78: Infection Control
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Q1) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A) autonomous
B) nosocomial
C) opportunistic
D) septic
Q2) Surveillance cultures are in place to monitor infections implicated in cooling towers or hot water sources.Health care professionals are interested in limiting outbreaks with which organism in water supplies?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Legionella spp.
C) Shigella spp.
D) Cyclospora spp.
Q3) The classification of a surgical wound as dirty refers to a:
A) lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.
B) surgical wound in an emergency setting in which the cleansing protocol was not followed.
C) surgical wound that has become grossly infected.
D) large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.
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Page 80
Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) If a pinpoint colony on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation is isolated, and if the colony is oxidase-, urease-, and indole-negative and also exhibits bipolar staining on Gram stain, then the suspect bioterror agent is most likely:
A) Bacillus anthracis.
B) Francisella tularensis.
C) Brucella spp.
D) Yersinia pestis.
Q2) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.
C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.
D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q3) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A) horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B) microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C) microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D) living beings to wage war in peacetime.
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